FF Comeback Flashcards
1
Q
DRM supply how much water?
A
1500 LPM approx
2
Q
WRM supply how much water?
A
1500 LPM for 45 mins minimum by law
8 bar outlet pressure from 2006
4-5 bar pre 2006
3
Q
Over what height do building regs require provision for fire fighting /firefighter access?
A
18 metres
4
Q
Over what height do WRMs need to be installed?
A
Over 60 metres
2006+ 50 metres
5
Q
What 3 facilities may be fitted to a building over 18m as part of building regs?
A
Firefighting shafts
Dry/wet risers
Firefighting lifts
6
Q
Firefighting shafts Fire mains (not fire lifts) may be found in buildings over what height?
A
7.5m
7
Q
Fire sector commander is a minimum rank of what?
A
Crew Manager
8
Q
Where should a bridgehead be set up?
A
2 floors below fire floor in a firefighting lobby and not a corridor
9
Q
Who is responsible for establishing a bridgehead?
A
Fire sector commander
Min Crew Manager
10
Q
At high rise incidents the fire sector commander will take how many FFs to the bridgehead?
A
3
2x BA for firefighting/ rescue
1x ECO
11
Q
Fire teams entering a “Fire Lift” must exit where?
A
2 floors below the fire floor
12
Q
Who should take control of and stay with a “Fire lift”?
A
A Fire fighter. detailed by OIC
13
Q
Where should a Fire Lift remain during an incident?
A
At the Bridgehead so rescued people can be quickly brought to ground level
14
Q
What does it mean if the Green ECB battery sign is flashing?
A
Charged
15
Q
Green ECB battery sign solid green?
A
Charging
16
Q
Red battery led 1 or 2 illuminates on ECB?
A
ECB is defective
17
Q
How long will the ECB remain working with an illuminated amber low battery sign??
A
2 hours approx
18
Q
Describe the ECB ADSU warning icon?
A
Bar with a horn sounder icon either side (illuminates red)
19
Q
Describe ECB DSU warning icon?
A
Warning triangle with exclamation mark inside (illuminates red)
20
Q
Describe the “wearer returning to ECP” warning icon?
A
Door opening with an arrow going through. (Illuminates Amber)
21
Q
A flashing red evacuation signal icon means what?
A
Sent by ECO
22
Q
A solid red evacuation signal icon means what?
A
Acknowledged by ECO
23
Q
Whilst the ECB is in sleep mode, what does pressing and holding the “I” information button do?
A
Shows battery charge in 1 hour increments using dots and dashes up to max of 8= 8 hour charge
24
Q
What buttons are used to scroll through the menu on the ECB?
A
Enter 2 & 8
25
If a tally shows Et before the E:0000 display, what does that mean?
Defective tally transponder = error transponder
| Manual log on required
26
How often does the ECB update?
Every 20 seconds
27
What is the default figures showing on the ECB LCD display to the right of the tally slots?
TOW
| Time of whistle
28
What does TTW BG mean?
Time to whistle bodyguard
29
What does an illuminated green clock to the left of the information button mean?
When default TTW time to whistle is displayed and status displays charge level
30
What is the first alarm (default) on the ECB? (Single double beep)
10 mins before TOW activation (advise BA team by radio)
31
What is the single double beep on the ECB other than the 10 minute to TOW warning?
The actuation of 10 minutes to TOW warning on the BA set
32
What action should be taken when the Amber battery icon illuminates during use of the ECB?
Wearers committed should carry on as normal until the wears are finished, no more teams shall be committed through that board and the board should be placed on charge when all wearers are out, (another board should be started, not stage 2)
33
How are the 2 types of emergency evacuation initiated?
Press and hold either evac Wearer or evac all wearers buttons until red led is illuminated and double beep heard
34
Upon receipt of an evacuation signal on a bodyguard, how is it acknowledged?
Press and release RH bodyguard button (single beep is emitted)
35
When an evacuation signal is sent from the ECB, how does the ECO know it has been received?
A short high pitched audible alarm is activated and red led will stop flashing and stay illuminated
36
How is a voluntary withdrawal on the bodyguard sent to the ECO?
Press and hold right button until radio icon appears then release
37
On the series 3 Mercedes, how long must the Air dump button on the ePC control be pressed for to activate?
5 seconds
38
On the ePC control, how do you know the switches are activated?
They are highlighted blue
39
On the series 3 Air dump, how is the suspension returned to full height?
Once lowered= ( second press)
| A further press will return suspension to normal height.
40
What does the HTT switch do on the ePC control?
Manual override of hydrant to tank valve.
When valve closed the HTT switch will open valve for 10 seconds.
Valve cannot be closed if water low and valve open
When water level isn't low or full the valve can be opened and shut via HTT switch
41
What conditions must be met for the series 3 PTO to be engaged?
Handbrake on and neutral button selected
42
How is the pump engaged on the Series 3 Mercedes?
PTO switch in cab on (handbrake and neutral selected)
ePC will then be in pump standby,
Press the pump switch on ePC to engage pump
43
How is manual pressure mode selected on the series 3 merceces?
By pressing the rpm up or down buttons
44
What pump pressure is required to achieve 230 lpm on the high pressure hose reels on the series 3 Mercedes?
35 bar high pressure will give 230 LPM maximum branch flow
45
When using high pressure hose reels and low pressure jets simultaneously, what needs to be selected?
High pressure lever, low pressure bar selection
46
The initial BA team fighting a High rise fire should have their 45mm jet and branch plugged into the rising main on what floor?
1 floor below the fire floor or next floor below that if not
47
An additional BA team fighting a high rise fire should have their jet and branch plugged into the rising main on what floor?
On the fire floor or nearest below and 1 length longer than the initial BA team.
48
Can a covering jet be supplied from the dividing breaching that the main jet is supplied from also?
Yes it can but as a second choice, the 2nd breaching outlet should be for a 2nd main jet with the covering jet ideally from the fire floor rising main outlet
49
How long is the long line?
31 metres
50
How long is the short line?
15.5 metres
51
How should the short line be made up?
In a figure of eight
52
Where can the bar code be found on the long and short lines?
1.5 metres from each end of both lines
53
Do stations carry spare long and short lines?
Yes, every station should have a spare long and short line
54
What is the minimum pressure a cylinder must contain to be fitted to a BA set?
270 bar
55
What is the full length of a BA personal line?
6 metres
56
How often and to what pressure are BA cylinders tested?
Every 2 years to 450 bar
57
How many litres of air does an SDBA cylinder hold?
2160 litres of air = 300 bar (fully charged)
58
What does the black and white shoulder markings of a cylinder denote?
Breathable air
59
What is the weight of a fully charged SDBA cylinder?
8.5kg
60
How often is the hydraulic test carried out on BA cylinders?
Every 5 years
| Less than 28 days remaining before test date shown
61
How long is the short section of the BA personal line?
1.25 metres
62
What is the test frequency of a BA personal line?
On receipt, after use, 28 days
63
The entanglement cable cutters are European standard tested to what voltage?
1000v AC
| 1500v DC
64
How often is data transferred between ECB and wearers?
Every 20 seconds
65
What is the line of sight range of the telemetry signal ?
3km it severely restricted by buildings / other obstructions
66
Where is the telemetry identification number on the BA set?
Rear of BACK plate, bottom left as you look at it
67
The electronic low pressure warning device of the bodyguard is set to operate at what pressure?
84 bar
= start of 12 min safety margin
7 bar a min consumption
68
What is the duration of the safety margin for SDBA and EDBA?
12 mins SDBA
| 18 mins EDBA
69
How long must no movement be detected before an ADSU activation?
45 seconds
70
Who carries the telemetry repeaters?
FRU and CU
71
How long is the leaky feeder and who carries it?
175 metres
| Carried on FRU only
72
What is the procedure for operating the telemetry repeaters?
SDBA teams can deploy them.
Proceed until signal lost, back track 5 meters then deploy repeater.
(Ensure aerial screwed in on top of repeater box.
73
How are the telemetry repeater box numbers situated?
Box 1 must be within range of ECB.
| Number 2 must be within range of box 1 or ECB.
74
Adding 1 or 2 telemetry repeaters amplifies the signal distance by how far?
From 3km to 6km (double) with 1 box.
| From 6km to 9km (treble) with 2 boxes
75
What 2 things can a leaky feeder cable be connected to?
ECB or Telemetry repeater
76
What does F.I.R.E stand for?
Fire initial response equipment
77
How many controlled dividing breeching devices can be used on a rising main?
Only 1 per main
78
Where should the controlled dividing breeching be plugged in?
Directly into the main if poss 1 floor below the fire
79
3 jets may be used from 1 rising main at a high rise incident, describe the layout in order?
```
Jet 1 (main jet from controlled dividing breeching 1 floor below fire floor.
Jet 2 ( covering jet from fire floor, direct from main, 1 length longer)
Jet 3 main jet if required, from other controlled dividing breeching outlet
```
80
A BA emergency team should carry what when reporting to the nominated ECP?
An additional ECB
A second set (ECO's set) for every 2 wearers
A charged 45mm jet ideally from an alternate pump and water supply.
81
When reporting to the dedicated emergency Team ECO as an emergency team member, what actions should be taken regarding the second set?
Split the tally from the key.
Write second set instead of a name.
Key stays in the bodyguard
82
As a committed emergency team member, what actions should be taken upon finding a distressed wearer?
Silence the DSU using the 2nd set key then return it to the 2nd set.
Inform ECP that wearers have been located.
Gauge check all BA sets to determine if a rescue can commence.
Supplement air supply if required.
83
When should a DSU be actuated?
```
BA team member:
Lost
Confused
Injured
BA set difficulties
Distressed
Trapped
Disoriented
```
84
When reporting for decontamination whilst in GTS, what is the minimum air pressure on the BA set before the air supply must be supplemented with the second set?
100 bar
85
When preparing or using a second set during GTS, what additional item is required?
Back to back make coupling fitted to the second set.
86
When tying a long line to the 135 ladder for a props to face pitch, how is it tied?
Under the wheel bar and over the top round using a round turn and 2 half hitches
87
Which crew member sites the head of the ladder on a props to face pitch?
No 3
88
Who ties the long line to the top round of the 135 during a props to face pitch?
No 5
89
Which crew members will check Pawls engaged and state pawls engaged on a 135 props to face pitch?
No 2 and no 5
90
What command will be given when the prop handlers are ready to support the ladder after waking round 1 at a time during a props to face 135 pitch?
Right!
91
When 3 + 4 walk the props round to to rear (1 at a time) on a 135 props to face pitch, where should the props be?
Always on the outside.
| During and whilst walking round and turning around.
92
On the quadruplicate control information form at FSG incidents, what Copy stays with the ICP to hand over to the command unit?
White copy
93
What is the minimum rank for a search co-ordinator?
Watch Manager
94
How much foam solution does the Mercedes S3 onboard tank hold?
80 litres
95
What type of foam is only used on the Mercedes S3?
Auxquimia
96
What percentage of foam is required to water to fight flammable liquids from the Mercedes S3?
3% auxquimia foam to water
97
How many LPM of water is the Godiva pump on the Mercedes S3 capable of pumping from a 3 metre lift at 10 bar pressure?
3000 LPM
98
How is an open water lift achieved on the Mercedes S3 ?
All deliveries closed including hose reels.
Tank to pump gate closed.
Connect hard suction hose to pump inlet.
Start up and engage PTO until a pump pressure reading is achieved on the flow data. Open deliveries as required
99
After lifting and pumping from open water, what must be carried out?
A full pump and deliveries flush using clean water
100
How is a burst length dealt with?
Lay out replacement hose
If a jet length, notify crews to withdraw to safety.
Swap hose and tie a knot in either end of the burst length.
Upon make up, burst length is made up from the male coupling.
101
What is the alternative method off slipping the 135 ladder if the lower beam is stiff?
3 & 4 turn their backs to the pump bay and push against the stand off rings
102
What is the rule of thumb for compound pressure ?
Every 10 metres above causes 1 bar pressure loss at the branch.
(1 metre above = - 0.1 bar, e.g. Pump tank water height to pump)
103
What is the general rule of thumb for calculating pressure loss on a 45mm hose?
1 bar per length
104
What is the genre rule of thumb for calculating pressure loss on a 70mm hose?
0.2 bar per length
105
How many LPM should a hydrant deliver and at what pressure?
2000 LPM at 1.7 bar
106
How many crew members are needed to pitch the 135 props to face?
Five
107
What is the height of the Mercedes S3?
10ft 2"
Or
3.1metres
108
How long are the hose reels on the Mercedes S3?
72 metres
109
What pump pressure is required to get 230 lpm at 6 bar branch pressure on the Mercedes S3 hose reels ?
40 bar at the pump
110
What does RTPP stand for?
Round the pump proportioner
111
What is at the other end of the guideline?
150mm loop for connecting the extending guideline snap hook
112
How far apart are the tabs on a guideline?
150mm (15cm)
113
What is the length of the 2 tabs on a BA guideline?
125mm long
50mm short
When both held in each hand, short knotted is way out
114
At what intervals do the guideline tabs appear?
2.5 metres then 150mm apart tabs then another 2.5 metres and so on
115
Where do the A and B / branch tallies attach?
To the D section directly underneath the snap hook
| not the D shackle
116
BA emergency team must provide a 2nd set for every how many wearers in the emergency team?
Every 2 emergency wearers must have a 2nd set
117
How should a BA set be placed inside the 2nd set bag?
BA set left side down with cylinder tap facing upwards.
| tap should be laid towards the big pouch end
118
How many foam transfer tubes can be connected together?
4 tubes= 8 metre reach max
119
What is the only type of foam to be used on the Mercedes S3?
Auxquimia
120
What is the maximum amount of foam concentrate the RTPP can induce?
120 L/min
121
What percentage of foam concentrate to water must be used?
3 %
122
120 L/min of foam concentrate will produce how much finished foam?
2000 litres per minute at 3% induction
123
What should a guideline be tied to?
An immovable object
124
How many guidelines can be run from one ECP?
2 guidelines max but only 1 per entry route
125
How is a main guideline extended?
2nd bag is removed from number 2 and clipped onto the same Ba Set D ring of number 1 as 1st bag, new snap hook connected to previous bag 150mm loop, previous bag discontinued and guideline laying continues.
126
How should outbound and inbound BA teams cross over on a guideline?
Inbound team crouches down and holds guideline out so outbound can negotiate it as a tie off point, with multiple team members attached to the line the inbound team leader should gather all the karabiners together in one hand.
127
What are the 2 methods of searching off a guideline with your personal line?
Team leader extends to 6m and other team members remain connected to the team leader in a chain between leader and guideline.
2 is all members extended to 1.25m in a chain (4 max)
128
The Low pressure warning whistle on SDBA activates when how many minutes of air are left?
12 mins at consumption rate of 50 LPM
129
If a donor is unable to supply air during emergency exchange of air, what should happen?
Adopt entrapped procedure
130
At RTCs, what size should the inner and outer cordons be?
2 metres inner circle around the scene of operations minimum.
5 metres outer circle should be 5 metres around the inner circle.
131
At RTCs, what should only enter the 2 metre inner circle?
Personnel in PPE and equipment only.
132
At RTCs what should be in the 5 metre outer circle?
OIC and personnel holding area
133
At RTCS, can personnel cross a central reservation to deal with an incident on the opposite carriageway?
Never unless traffic has been stopped by police or Hato.
134
What is a Hato?
Highways agency transport officer
135
At RTCs what takes priority? Hi vis tabard or IC tabard?
Hi Vis tabard
136
At RTCs what lighting should be enabled on the appliance?
Appliance flood lighting
Blue warnings
Fend offs
137
Who gives the order for the police accident sign to be deployed?
IC but it should be used at all incidents where personnel are working on roadways.
138
Where should the police accident sign be deployed?
Where it doesn't obstruct moving vehicles prior to any bends or dips or other obstructions. (Grass verge or paved area in full view of oncoming traffic)
139
What is the general rule of thumb with regards to appliance positioning on roadways?
Pumps prior to incident and post on 2 way roads with specials in the middle
140
```
With regards to FRS act 2004 RTCs, for what reason can we:
Break into a vehicle without consent.
Close a highway.
Stop and regulate traffic.
Restrict access of persons?
```
To rescue people.
| Protect people from harm
141
If a persons trapped informative message has been sent, what should happen with the FRU?
Must be allowed to arrive, not returned
142
At RTCs, what should you remember when switching work from one casualty to another?
Change gloves to avoid cross contamination
143
What 2 things do U need to remember if airbags are unactivated at RTCs?
No radio transmissions from inside vehicle.
| Put SRS restraint cover over steering wheel.
144
What colours are SRS and HV cables?
SRS yellow
| HV Orange
145
Can an appliance designated as initial command pump be used for anything else?
No
| Blue lights must be on
146
When leaving the scene of an RTC on the motorway, what should the MD consider?
Advise all personnel
Leave a safe working area behind
Leave blues and fend offs on
147
If an RTC occurs on a 2 way road, what lanes need to close?
Both lanes
148
If an RTC occurs on the hard shoulder of a motorway, what lanes need to close?
Hard shoulder and lane 1
149
If an RTC occurs on lane 1 of a 3 lane motorway, what lanes need to close?
Hard shoulder, Lane 1 and 2
150
If an RTC occurs on lane 2 of a 3 lane moterwsy, what lanes need to close?
Lane 1,2,3
151
If an RTC occurs on lane 3 of a 3 lane motorway, what lanes need to close?
2 and 3
152
If an RTC occurs across the central reservation of a 3 lane each direction motorway, what lanes need to close ?
2 and 3 each direction
153
On the RB 101 branch, how many teeth can be damaged to render the branch off the run?
5 teeth or 3 in a row = OTR
154
What direction does the collar need to be turned to get a solid jet on the RB101?
Clockwise
| on the red collar have the 2 silver bars at 12 o'clock
155
How is a 45 degree angle achieved on the RB101?
```
Anti clockwise
( have the pointer on the black collar at 12 o'clock) also note the widening silver V on red collar.
```
156
What is the default flow rate setting for the RB101?
230 LPM
157
What is the bar operating range on the projet 2?
3.5-7 bar
158
What is the maximum throw from the projet2?
57 metres
159
At 3.5 bar, what is the flow for the jet on its own on the projet2?
440 LPM
160
What is the flow rate for the project 2 at 3.5 bar on jet and spray?
640 LPM
161
What is the flow rate for the project 2 at 7 bar Jet only?
630 LPM
162
What is the flow rate on the project 2 at 7 bar jet and spray cone?
930 LPM
163
What is the ultimatic hose reel branch flow rates?
115 to 150 LPM
164
How would a branch working on the third floor at 8 bar pressure number 2 delivery be communicated?
```
Clenched fist up with thumbs inwards
Water on!
Number 2 delivery
Branch working on the third floor
8 bar pressure
```
165
What is the procedure for changing or extending a hose length?
Lay out hose next to burst length or interception point.
Get branch operator to place of safety
Get pump operator to knock off.
Change length and tie a knot in both ends of u/s length.
Upon make up, u/s length is rolled up my the male coupling.
166
On the ground monitor, what is the flow rate of the single flow rate deluge nozzle?
1750 LPM
| Solid core jet
167
What is the purpose of the flow shaper that attaches to the ground monitor before the single flow rate deluge nozzle?
Creates spin on the solid core jet helping it maintain its shape over a long distance
168
What angles can the ground monitor be moved?
20 degrees left or right from centre line and 30 to 60 degrees vertical elevation
(Can be pushed down to 20 degrees but operator must have 2 hands on it to counter increased jet reaction, sprung loaded down to 20 degrees from 30)
169
What are the 3 settings on the ground monitor variable flow rate jet spray nozzle?
950
1400
1900 LPM
170
What are the words of command for hauling aloft?
```
Stand from under
Clear there
Haul away from the building
Ground
Up top
Below
```
171
When should hoses be crossed by the couplings?
When bowled out awaiting call from branch operator for water on, this is to stop water being delivered before branch operator is ready
172
How should a hose reel be hauled aloft?
Overhand knot in the branch end then a clove hitch around the knotted branch
173
How is Dutch rolled hose hauled aloft?
Fig of eight knot in line then personal line folded in half through centre of hose then double sheet bend attached to fig of eight loop.
174
What are the 3 methods of contact with your buddy whilst in BA?
Personal line
Physical contact
Within touching distance
(Only exception is stairs and vertical ladders) short time apart as poss
175
What do flashing blue LEDs on the bodyguard mean?
Telemetry signal established and current
| Also radio icon tick present
176
How is the Turnaround pressure worked out?
Air figure when you leave entry control-90 bar + half remaining air
(Half remaining air + 90 bar safety margin)
Or half your air +45
177
What is the safety margin of air when working out TAP?
90 bar safety margin
178
How many incident ground A tests can be carried out at scene?
One incident ground A test
| Set not to be used after the 2nd wear unless B test carried out
179
What is the load capacity for the blocks and wedges?
50 tonnes across the whole surface area
| Reduce if not
180
What is the load capacity for the step blocks?
20 tonnes across the whole surface area
| Reduce if not
181
If a compartment remains hot/warm, what is the minimum RPE?
Breathing apparatus
| Because of unseen fire gases still present
182
Can EDBA wearers wear a set Twice?
Re-entry and second wear only in exceptional circumstances
183
BA team leader should withdraw team when?
```
Uncontrolled loss
LPWW
Unwell / confused
Bodyguard fault
DSU
Exposed to irrespirable
Telemetry and comms continuous failure.
Evac signal from ECO
Whistle heard
Loss of FF media.
```
184
When is the only time an emergency team can be used for other tasks?
Only to save a saveable life.
185
What is the required circumstances to operate an emergency team?
Lead by a min of CM
At least as large as the largest team inside.
Same PPE/ RPE
Same radio channel.
Adopt EC call sign ( alpha emergency team 1, 2,3 etc)
Consist of fresh wearers unless knowledge of inside required.
Second set for every 2 wearers
Own Entry control board.
Charged 45mm jet from separate pump.
186
Once a hose line has been hauled aloft using a rolling hitch and clove hitch, what knot should be used to tie the line to an immovable object?
Round turn and 2 half hitches
187
When hoses are bowled out and hauled aloft, what safety measure is applied to the hose couplings at the bottom of the ladder?
Couplings Crossed over and laid on the ground in an "X"
188
If a BA team member is in distress due to entanglement, what must they do?
Activate their DSU
189
If a DSU has been activated by a team member, what should be the actions of the team?
Withdraw
190
If an ECO is informed of an entanglement, what should be their actions?
Inform person responsible for Entry control and commit BA emergency team
191
How many foam transfer tubes can be connected in series?
4
192
How many stages of Entry control are there?
Stage 1
| Stage 2
193
What limits Entry control to stage 1?
Limited wearers over a limited period of time
One board
6 wearers
One ECP (except where 2 are close together and visible from 1 ECP)
IC to nominate emergency team asa resources allow.
IC to nominate a FF to comms op asa resources allow.
194
How many Entry control aide memoirs are there?
12
195
Why should the Entry control board be on its stand with its back to the wearers and handles not obstructed?
To maximise the signal
196
What needs to happen to set up Entry control?
Surcoat on with lamp and radio attached.
Board on stand
Check clock
Check comms (channel 6)
IEC set up resuscitator
Prompt IC for emergency team, telemetry repeaters/ leaky feeders
Confirm brief with BA teams
Bracket team, add floor, call sign+LHW/RHW, task, media weight of attack
240 bar? and time in on tally
Skin check
Enter New entry 1st or 2nd wear or re-entry.
A B test not recorded if required to remarks
197
When suspected/ confirmed radiation incidents, what happens extra at Entry control?
EPD reading added to "in" section on the rear of the tally
198
What colour is the BA comms op surcoat and where can the BA comms op insert be found?
Yellow/ black top half chequered
Insert available from CU
199
What does the BA comms op do and who does he/she report to?
Send / receive messages from committed BA teams and liaise with ECO
Reports to person responsible for ECP
200
What is the minimum rank of BA sector ?
Station manager (SM)
201
What Entry control aide memoir is DTW?
Number 5
202
What Entry control aide memoir is for the BA comms op?
Number 4
203
What is the maximum hose can be allowed to stretch?
5% length
| 10% diameter
204
What is the weight of 45 and 70mm hose?
45mm =9kg
70mm =15kg
205
How long are 45 and 70 hose lengths?
23 metres
206
What is the maximum working pressure of 45 and 70 hose?
15 bar
207
How long are lengths of 90mm HLU hose?
30 metres each
| 4km per HLU
15 bar max work pressure
208
What lengths of 150mm hose are available on the HVP?
50 m
10 m
5 m
209
How long is hard suction hose?
2.44m each
X2 carried on each appliance
100mm diameter
210
How many minutes of air remain when the LPWW activates on a SDBA set?
12 minutes At 50 LPM
211
How many minutes of air remain when the LPWW activates on An EDBA set?
18 minutes at 58 LPM EDBA
212
At what bodyguard pressure does a GTS wearer reporting for decontamination require their air supply to be supplemented?
100 bar
213
A second set prepared for a GTS wearer supplementation is prepared how?
Second set bag with 1m second person connection external and back to back coupling attached.
214
For GTS decontamination, if a wearer is low on air, what are the methods of attaching 2 second sets?
Decon op 1 dirty attaches second set 1m with BACK to back to GTS waist coupling (100 bar or less).
When GTS at waist level, (air less than 90 bar) decon op 2 clean provides another 2nd set with back to back coupling to wearer. Wearer attaches coupling to his inline connector from face mask.
215
Who decides if a GTS wear is extended from 20 mins?
The individual wearers and not the team leader alone
216
Can GTS Entry control remain stage 1?
Only if wearers are in line of sight of ECO
217
If a BA wearer is going under air on his own on the TL, HP or ALP, what actions should the ECO take?
```
Write location (ALP etc) in locations.
Establish comms with ECO or comms op
Ensure they have safety harness and lanyard attached to an anchor point
```
218
Can an aerial appliance cage be used as a bridgehead?
No, must NOT be used as an ECP
219
Can a BA wearer under air operate an aerial appliance cage?
No, must be by base controller only, NO RPE to be worn by Aerial operator
220
Can an aerial appliance be moved when used for BA team access?
No, must not be moved under any circumstances until ALL BA wearers have returned and all accounted for.
221
What does RPELO stand for?
Respiratory protection equipment logistics officer
Contactable 24/7 via RMC
222
What is the only other agency that can run through our ECB?
Las Hart EDBA teams (must have their own comms op)
223
What is the minimum weight of attack for basement jobs?
45mm hose line with branch set to 230 LPM
224
What 4 things does basement procedure consist of?
BA crew in full PPE and 1x45mm jet.
Access and egress clear
Access and egress protected with a second team with 1x45mm jet
Basement procedure implemented sent to control
225
What are the designated rest periods and cool water consumption amounts following ambient and hot BA wears?
Ambient 30 mins 500ml
Hot 60 mins 1000ml
Only ever shortened to save a saveable life with no other wearers available
226
If there is more than 1 ECP and stage 2 is implemented at 1 ECP, what happens to the remaining stage 1 ECP?
It becomes stage 2 regardless.
227
What is the maximum amount of BA wearers that can be controlled from stage 1 ECP?
Six
228
When MUST an OIC nominate an emergency team?
As soon as resources are available
229
When will the OIC nominate a comms op?
When resources permit (stage 1 +)
230
Who carries the 4 branch guideline tallies?
FRU only
231
Who carries the telemetry repeaters?
FRU and CU
| Rem (repeaters =2 = FRU and CU)
232
Who carries the leaky feeder reels?
FRU only
233
Who carries the second set carrying bags?
FRU CU OSU
234
If 2 ECBs are used on 1 ECP, what happens to the alphabetical call sign?
Remains the same, only 1 alphabetical call sign per ECP (including emergency team, alpha emergency team 1 etc)
235
When committing a BA team to go-ex foam, what action must the ECO carry out?
Unclip the LDV outer rubber casing. And lift clear.
| Prevents build up causing free flow
236
What icon is to be constantly monitored for a telemetry signal by the ECO?
Solid green radio icon against each tally position
237
Can an ECO commit an BA emergency team?
Yes but must inform the person responsible for the ECP.
| Eg if radio contact fails and telemetry fails
238
Can telemetry and manual calculations be used on the same ECB?
No
| Board is either telemetry or manual calculations and will NOT be mixed on the same board.
239
What is the minimum rank of ECPS?
CM
240
What happens to Entry control if Telemetry repeater(s) or leaky feeder is deployed?
Becomes Stage 2
241
What happens to Entry control if Chemical protective clothing is deployed and the wearers are out of the line of sight?
Stage 2
242
What must be provided as an addition to BA emergency Teams at stage 2 Entry control?
Relief BA team must be established as well as an emergency team when stage 2 is implemented
243
Can SDBA and EDBA teams be entered and controlled from the same board?
Yes but the teams cannot be mixed, ( bracketed teams must have the same RPE per team and emergency team must have EDBA as a minimum if any EDBA team is committed
244
What is the minimum amount of BA that must be ready for use before the appliance comes off the run?
2 (minimum)
245
Who should be called for urgent replacement of BA set(s) ?
Logistics manager
| RMC 88321
246
What number is the BA Comms op aide memoir?
Number 4
247
What number is the ECPS incident duties AIde memoir?
Number 2
248
What Number aide memoir is DTW?
Number 5
249
If the IC requires EDBA above that already in attendance and sends a message to control, how many FRUs and support pumps will be mobilised?
3 x FRUs
| 3 x EDBA support pumps
250
If leaky feeders are required at scene, how should this be requested?
As an "assistance" message = 1 FRU required for telemetry leaky feeder.
251
What does PRO and PRC stand for?
Performance review of operations
Performance review of command function
252
What are the 4 templates on the FIB?
Incident information
High rise incident record
Incident plan
Casually information
253
What number aide memoir is the BA sector commander duties?
Entry control Aide memoir number 3
254
What does the RPE support unit carry?
Bulk BA cylinders and BA related equipment
255
What colour surcoat does the RPELO and RPE support wear?
Yellow either insert on front and back
256
What does DaMOP
Development and maintenance of operational professionalism
257
What radio channel should the ECPS be on?
Incident ground channel 1
258
What are the 4 types of emergency procedures available to BA teams committed to an incident?
DSU
Entrapped
Exchange of air
Radio assistance
259
When an ADSU/DSU is heard actuating, what should the Team leader do?
Direct teams to investigate source regardless of what teams are doing if they can safely.
260
Why should an entangled BA wearer cross there arms at chest height?
To protect BA hoses
261
How should an SDBA set be placed in the second set bag?
On its left side with valve uppermost
Face mask stays in bag
Min 240 bar
Split tally from key and leave key in bodyguard
Long flaps placed over short flaps (top and bottom together 1st)
262
Who carries the second set bag?
FRU
CU
OSU
263
What other ancillaries come within the second set bag?
1 metre long hose with male male couplings
Back to back female adaptor
264
What are the 3 methods of using the 2nd set?
Method 1
Connect recipients face mask to inline connector of 2nd set (their face mask and hose must be in working order)
Method 2
Remove face mask from 2nd set then connect 1 metre rescue hose to "2nd person" connection on second set then to the "2nd person connection on the recipients set.
Method 3
Helmet off, peel back hood, remove straps (top first) then on count of 3 switch face mask to 2nd set face mask.
(Rem to hold 1st breath button when original face mask taken away)
Rem recipient to take a large breath before any method carried out.
265
What is the working height of the short extension ladder?
6 metres
266
The bar that runs between the head rollers of a ladder is known as what?
Head iron
267
How long is the roof ladder?
4.6 metres
268
What colour flame is approximately what temperature?
Deep red 600-800
Orange- yellow 1100
White 1300-1500
Blue 1400-1650
269
During a confined space pitch of the 135 ladder, what should be remembered to sight the heel correctly?
Approach from right=Right hand side of window? Use 2nd round from jack beam to right hand side of window.
Approach from right= left hand side of window? Use 1st round from jack beam to left side of window.
Mirror image for left approach.
Rem: when approaching window it's either 2nd round or 1st round in that order (2 or 1)
270
How is the 135 sighted on a confined space pitch?
Outer Jack pad 1/3 out of working height
271
During a confined space pitch, how far should the first prop handler move towards the inside of the building?
1 metre past jack pad (prop outermost)
272
What is the general guode time for reliefs of firefighting teams?
Every 3 hours
273
On a 135 props to face pitch, where should the prop handler align the prop when they have moved to the face of the ladder?
Align with outside of jacking beam
274
If the prop handlers names aren't known, what words of command are used to tell the prop handler to move their prop?
You, prop round
275
Who sites the head on a props to face pitch?
Number 3
276
Upon making up the 135 after a props to face pitch, who extends to lower the ladder after 3,4 and 5 move the head out to vertical?
Number 2 only
277
Upon making up the 135 after a props to face pitch, what is number 5s job after assisting 3&4 to move the head out?
5 keeps the line clear from excessive slack (only pulls the ladder head initially out of the building)
278
What 3 things categorise a P1 person?
Increased risk of fire
Less able to react to fire
Less able to escape from fire
279
What is an SOR?
Serious outstanding risk
A SOR to the resident which had not been dealt with while completing a HFSV
280
If an SOR is identified, what further action must be implemented?
Fire retardant bedding
Telecare recommendation with linked fire detection
Sprinklers
Juvenile firesetters intervention team referral
281
What is the minimum distance Aerial appliances must be from inspection covers?
1 metre
282
What should be avoided when siting aerial appliance jacks?
Pavements
Kerb areas
Soft Unmade up or obscured ground (snow/puddles)
Unsupported walls
283
When Aerials are working near power cables, what are the safe distance rules?
10 metres operationally
20 metres training
30 metres water tower
10,20,30 rule
284
What can be used on an appliance to monitor wind direction?
A piece of barrier tape elevated somehow
| Ladder/ Ceiling hook etc)
285
What area is required to safely unload prime movers?
25 x 8 metres
286
What information is required at the gathering and thinking stage of the DMM
Task/Event
Resources
Risk/ benefit
287
What 2 types of tactical mode are there and what do they mean?
Oscar offensive inside hazard area
Delta defensive outside hazard area
288
Assistance messages are requested how?
Press and hold 9
| Urgent request to speak
289
Persons reported is sent for what reason?
Control or IC informed or reasonably suspect that:
People are trapped by fire
Combustion products
Hazardous substance release
290
Persons reported will trigger control to do what?
Request Ambulance to incident
(If persons involved is on 999 call, control will order ambulance and inform IC en route.
291
What are the 5 parts to an assistance message?
```
From at
Resources
RVP
Vehicles to enter via
Tac mode
```
292
With regards to running calls, what is different about notifying control when sending the priority message?
Instead of From at its:
| From....running call received to.... at
293
What is the sequence for sending a running call message to control?
FRAFT
```
From?
Running call received to?
At?
Resources? (A381 attending?)
Full brigade attendance or no further?
Tac mode
```
294
When sending a 9 unable to proceed message, what must be sent immediately so control can mobilise a different resource and how should it be sent?
For breakdown or Accident
From.....
Why....... (due to)
Then further traffic after this.
Unable to proceed: from, why, further traffic
295
What 2 reasons would cause an unable to proceed?
Mechanical breakdown.
| Accident.
296
After an unable to proceed priority is sent, what details should the further traffic contain?
Location and nature of fault for breakdown
```
Accident = from at.
appliance involved?
Collision with?
Persons trapped? Or not?
Persons injured or not?
Request attendance of?
(Ambulance for who?) female member of public, approx 30 years of age, C&B
Suffering from whiplash?
Further attendance or not?
Tac mode
```
297
What are the 2 exceptions to contact control about risk information?
MDT not working and you are the only appliance
Yankee Hazard relating to explosives
298
For what types of incident will control request an ambulance ?
Persons reported fire
8 pumps +
Other incidents where Persons involved/ trapped
IC must confirm Ambulance ordered
299
Why do we bounce the Pawls on the ladder?
Because it's possible that the ladder extension can rest on the AAD instead of the Pawls if extended too quickly
300
What are the yellow marks on the side of the 9 metre ladder?
Bridging limitation marks
301
When bridging a ladder, how much of the ladder must overlap the gap as a minimum?
650mm
302
When should a ladder be plumbed?
After under run and before extending
| Final adjustments can be made after it is extended and the head is resting on the building.)
303
When taking a leg lock, how many rounds above the round your standing on should the leg be passed over?
2 rounds above the round your standing on, the leg passes over that round.
304
How should the 9 metre ladder be grasped whilst transporting it around?
Backs of hands to the centre of the ladder
(All knuckles facing each other) (1+2 towards 3)
1+2 grab second round from head
3 grabs last round at the heel
305
What is the minimum clearance required to slip the 9 metre ladder?
10 metres
306
To what height will the 9 metre ladder pivot on the beam gantry?
4.2 metes
| Watch out for power cables and obstructions
307
For what 3 reasons will a FSG call end?
Caller leaves by their own means.
BA crews rescue them
Line cleared
308
When must fully worded stop messages be sent?
```
More than 1 hose reel
Make ups
Injuries
Unusual
People involved except shut in lifts and lock outs
```
309
What is status 9?
When an appliance has been put on batch mobilising by control
310
If appliances are detained at an incident, how long must they be detained before a message is included with a stop message?
20 mins
311
Who can declare persons reported?
IC
Control
312
What are the colour bands on the 9m ladder?
For individual and full extension bridging maximum
313
If level one water operations implemented, what action do brigade control carry out?
Inform a tactical advisor(technical rescue) and a Station Manager
314
What are the 3 levels of water operations?
Level one (firefighters working within 3 metres of water, mud, ice including water rescue from land side)
Level 2 entering water, mud, ice
Level 3 mass flooding
315
When can risk info be requested from control?
If Yankee hazard
Or
MDT failure and u are the 1st or only appliance attending
(Need info?, is another appliance coming ? (If MDT packs up)= No, ask control
316
Major incident declaration initiates what to be mobilised by control?
```
6 pumps
2 CUs
1 FRU
Additional senior officers
1 Ambulance
(6211 + officers)
```
(Must send methane with declaration)
317
What does methane stand for? And when is it sent?
Sent on major incident declaration
```
M major incident declared?
E exact location
T type of incident
H hazards or potential for?
A access routes
N number of casualties
E emergency services required?
```
318
How many identification numbers are there to check on an A test?
9
```
Face mask
LDV
Backplate FnR
Ba tally and telemetry module
Log book FnR
Bodyguard number
```
319
On an A test, how many leds will flash on an ADSU and DSU activation?
ADSU = 2 red 2 blue and 1 green
DSU = 2 red 2 blue only
320
What is an acceptable loss of pressure on an A test ( 1 min hold)
10 bar
321
How long do you have to complete the breathe down after the 1 min pressure hold on an A test?
3 mins
322
A fireground A test is recorded in the BA log book how?
A test after use
| Include time of test and cylinder number
323
What vehicle is required in order for a B test to be carried out in the incident ground?
OSU with BA maintenance kit
324
What pressures do the electronic and pneumatic warnings activate in a BA set?
Electronic 84 bar
| Pneumatic 74 bar +-5
325
When is a 28 day text due?
28 days after the on receipt B test
326
How long should a set be worn with the tally in the board in a 28 day test?
15 mins
327
What does the leak test icon look like on the bodyguard?
Vertical dumbbell symbol
328
What colour leds are displayed when a telemetry signal is received?
Green and blue
329
What is status 35?
In attendance at standby location (non station based)
330
When is the order of vehicle fend off layout when the FRU is in attendance?
Pumps behind the scene, FRU in front or beyond the pumps
331
What is the 30,30,30 rule?
Extreme wildfire behaviour can occur if:
30% humidity or lower
Wind 30km/h
Temp 30 degrees C or above
332
At high rise sectorisation, what is the search, fire and lobby sector?
Search is above the fire sector (search and ventilation)
Fire is fire floor + 1 floor above and below
Lobby is ground floor to fire sector (includes bridgehead)
333
How much water do aerials supply at max output?
HP 2275 LPM
TL 2000 LPM
ALP 325 2450 LPM
ALP 320 1700 LPM
TL and Alp monitors can be controlled remotely when in use as a water tower.
334
Can Aerials produce foam?
Yes, secondary aspirated foam.
335
Can Aerials mimic a DRM?
All except TL can mimic DRM
336
What Aerials carry a stretcher and frame?
All except HP
337
What aerial can accommodate a wheelchair bound casualty?
ALP 325
338
What Aerials are fitted with live footage cameras viewable at the Aerial base console?
TL and ALP 325
339
What are the 4 safety handling systems on the series 3?
ASR (German)
Acceleration skid control
ESP
Electronic stability program
ETS
Electronic traction system
ABS
Anti-lock brake system
340
How much water does the water back pack hold?
20 litres
341
5 DRA steps are?
Evaluation of the situation, task and persons at risk
(Identify hazards and risks to people and environment considered)
Select safe systems of work
(Due regard for policy)
Assess chosen system of work
(Risk/benefit)
Introduce additional control measures
(Further reduce risk)
Reassess systems of work
Risk/benefit reassessment)
Op discretion if required?
342
When lifting from open water, how is the hard suction secured?
Short line in half
Form a clove hitch at the half way loop around the strainer knobs then half hitch further back at next set of knobs and finally tie off to the appliance
343
What size must the lettering be on dry riser inlet boxes?
50mm
