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J G CM stuff > FF Comeback > Flashcards

FF Comeback Flashcards

1
Q

DRM supply how much water?

A

1500 LPM approx

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2
Q

WRM supply how much water?

A

1500 LPM for 45 mins minimum by law

8 bar outlet pressure from 2006
4-5 bar pre 2006

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3
Q

Over what height do building regs require provision for fire fighting /firefighter access?

A

18 metres

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4
Q

Over what height do WRMs need to be installed?

A

Over 60 metres

2006+ 50 metres

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5
Q

What 3 facilities may be fitted to a building over 18m as part of building regs?

A

Firefighting shafts
Dry/wet risers
Firefighting lifts

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6
Q 
Firefighting shafts 
Fire mains (not fire lifts) may be found in buildings over what height?
A

7.5m

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7
Q

Fire sector commander is a minimum rank of what?

A

Crew Manager

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8
Q

Where should a bridgehead be set up?

A

2 floors below fire floor in a firefighting lobby and not a corridor

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9
Q

Who is responsible for establishing a bridgehead?

A

Fire sector commander

Min Crew Manager

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10
Q

At high rise incidents the fire sector commander will take how many FFs to the bridgehead?

A

3
2x BA for firefighting/ rescue
1x ECO

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11
Q

Fire teams entering a “Fire Lift” must exit where?

A

2 floors below the fire floor

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12
Q

Who should take control of and stay with a “Fire lift”?

A

A Fire fighter. detailed by OIC

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13
Q

Where should a Fire Lift remain during an incident?

A

At the Bridgehead so rescued people can be quickly brought to ground level

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14
Q

What does it mean if the Green ECB battery sign is flashing?

A

Charged

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15
Q

Green ECB battery sign solid green?

A

Charging

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16
Q

Red battery led 1 or 2 illuminates on ECB?

A

ECB is defective

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17
Q

How long will the ECB remain working with an illuminated amber low battery sign??

A

2 hours approx

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18
Q

Describe the ECB ADSU warning icon?

A

Bar with a horn sounder icon either side (illuminates red)

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19
Q

Describe ECB DSU warning icon?

A

Warning triangle with exclamation mark inside (illuminates red)

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20
Q

Describe the “wearer returning to ECP” warning icon?

A

Door opening with an arrow going through. (Illuminates Amber)

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21
Q

A flashing red evacuation signal icon means what?

A

Sent by ECO

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22
Q

A solid red evacuation signal icon means what?

A

Acknowledged by ECO

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23
Q

Whilst the ECB is in sleep mode, what does pressing and holding the “I” information button do?

A

Shows battery charge in 1 hour increments using dots and dashes up to max of 8= 8 hour charge

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24
Q

What buttons are used to scroll through the menu on the ECB?

A

Enter 2 & 8

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25
Q

If a tally shows Et before the E:0000 display, what does that mean?

A

Defective tally transponder = error transponder

Manual log on required

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26
Q

How often does the ECB update?

A

Every 20 seconds

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27
Q

What is the default figures showing on the ECB LCD display to the right of the tally slots?

A

TOW

Time of whistle

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28
Q

What does TTW BG mean?

A

Time to whistle bodyguard

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29
Q

What does an illuminated green clock to the left of the information button mean?

A

When default TTW time to whistle is displayed and status displays charge level

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30
Q

What is the first alarm (default) on the ECB? (Single double beep)

A

10 mins before TOW activation (advise BA team by radio)

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31
Q

What is the single double beep on the ECB other than the 10 minute to TOW warning?

A

The actuation of 10 minutes to TOW warning on the BA set

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32
Q

What action should be taken when the Amber battery icon illuminates during use of the ECB?

A

Wearers committed should carry on as normal until the wears are finished, no more teams shall be committed through that board and the board should be placed on charge when all wearers are out, (another board should be started, not stage 2)

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33
Q

How are the 2 types of emergency evacuation initiated?

A

Press and hold either evac Wearer or evac all wearers buttons until red led is illuminated and double beep heard

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34
Q

Upon receipt of an evacuation signal on a bodyguard, how is it acknowledged?

A

Press and release RH bodyguard button (single beep is emitted)

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35
Q

When an evacuation signal is sent from the ECB, how does the ECO know it has been received?

A

A short high pitched audible alarm is activated and red led will stop flashing and stay illuminated

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36
Q

How is a voluntary withdrawal on the bodyguard sent to the ECO?

A

Press and hold right button until radio icon appears then release

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37
Q

On the series 3 Mercedes, how long must the Air dump button on the ePC control be pressed for to activate?

A

5 seconds

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38
Q

On the ePC control, how do you know the switches are activated?

A

They are highlighted blue

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39
Q

On the series 3 Air dump, how is the suspension returned to full height?

A

Once lowered= ( second press)

A further press will return suspension to normal height.

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40
Q

What does the HTT switch do on the ePC control?

A

Manual override of hydrant to tank valve.

When valve closed the HTT switch will open valve for 10 seconds.
Valve cannot be closed if water low and valve open
When water level isn’t low or full the valve can be opened and shut via HTT switch

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41
Q

What conditions must be met for the series 3 PTO to be engaged?

A

Handbrake on and neutral button selected

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42
Q

How is the pump engaged on the Series 3 Mercedes?

A

PTO switch in cab on (handbrake and neutral selected)
ePC will then be in pump standby,
Press the pump switch on ePC to engage pump

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43
Q

How is manual pressure mode selected on the series 3 merceces?

A

By pressing the rpm up or down buttons

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44
Q

What pump pressure is required to achieve 230 lpm on the high pressure hose reels on the series 3 Mercedes?

A

35 bar high pressure will give 230 LPM maximum branch flow

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45
Q

When using high pressure hose reels and low pressure jets simultaneously, what needs to be selected?

A

High pressure lever, low pressure bar selection

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46
Q

The initial BA team fighting a High rise fire should have their 45mm jet and branch plugged into the rising main on what floor?

A

1 floor below the fire floor or next floor below that if not

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47
Q

An additional BA team fighting a high rise fire should have their jet and branch plugged into the rising main on what floor?

A

On the fire floor or nearest below and 1 length longer than the initial BA team.

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48
Q

Can a covering jet be supplied from the dividing breaching that the main jet is supplied from also?

A

Yes it can but as a second choice, the 2nd breaching outlet should be for a 2nd main jet with the covering jet ideally from the fire floor rising main outlet

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49
Q

How long is the long line?

A

31 metres

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50
Q

How long is the short line?

A

15.5 metres

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51
Q

How should the short line be made up?

A

In a figure of eight

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52
Q

Where can the bar code be found on the long and short lines?

A

1.5 metres from each end of both lines

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53
Q

Do stations carry spare long and short lines?

A

Yes, every station should have a spare long and short line

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54
Q

What is the minimum pressure a cylinder must contain to be fitted to a BA set?

A

270 bar

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55
Q

What is the full length of a BA personal line?

A

6 metres

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56
Q

How often and to what pressure are BA cylinders tested?

A

Every 2 years to 450 bar

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57
Q

How many litres of air does an SDBA cylinder hold?

A

2160 litres of air = 300 bar (fully charged)

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58
Q

What does the black and white shoulder markings of a cylinder denote?

A

Breathable air

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59
Q

What is the weight of a fully charged SDBA cylinder?

A

8.5kg

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60
Q

How often is the hydraulic test carried out on BA cylinders?

A

Every 5 years

Less than 28 days remaining before test date shown

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61
Q

How long is the short section of the BA personal line?

A

1.25 metres

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62
Q

What is the test frequency of a BA personal line?

A

On receipt, after use, 28 days

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63
Q

The entanglement cable cutters are European standard tested to what voltage?

A

1000v AC

1500v DC

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64
Q

How often is data transferred between ECB and wearers?

A

Every 20 seconds

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65
Q

What is the line of sight range of the telemetry signal ?

A

3km it severely restricted by buildings / other obstructions

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66
Q

Where is the telemetry identification number on the BA set?

A

Rear of BACK plate, bottom left as you look at it

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67
Q

The electronic low pressure warning device of the bodyguard is set to operate at what pressure?

A

84 bar
= start of 12 min safety margin
7 bar a min consumption

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68
Q

What is the duration of the safety margin for SDBA and EDBA?

A

12 mins SDBA

18 mins EDBA

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69
Q

How long must no movement be detected before an ADSU activation?

A

45 seconds

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70
Q

Who carries the telemetry repeaters?

A

FRU and CU

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71
Q

How long is the leaky feeder and who carries it?

A

175 metres

Carried on FRU only

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72
Q

What is the procedure for operating the telemetry repeaters?

A

SDBA teams can deploy them.
Proceed until signal lost, back track 5 meters then deploy repeater.
(Ensure aerial screwed in on top of repeater box.

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73
Q

How are the telemetry repeater box numbers situated?

A

Box 1 must be within range of ECB.

Number 2 must be within range of box 1 or ECB.

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74
Q

Adding 1 or 2 telemetry repeaters amplifies the signal distance by how far?

A

From 3km to 6km (double) with 1 box.

From 6km to 9km (treble) with 2 boxes

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75
Q

What 2 things can a leaky feeder cable be connected to?

A

ECB or Telemetry repeater

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76
Q

What does F.I.R.E stand for?

A

Fire initial response equipment

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77
Q

How many controlled dividing breeching devices can be used on a rising main?

A

Only 1 per main

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78
Q

Where should the controlled dividing breeching be plugged in?

A

Directly into the main if poss 1 floor below the fire

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79
Q

3 jets may be used from 1 rising main at a high rise incident, describe the layout in order?

A 
Jet 1 (main jet from controlled dividing breeching 1 floor below fire floor.
Jet 2 ( covering jet from fire floor, direct from main, 1 length longer)
Jet 3 main jet if required, from other controlled dividing breeching outlet
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80
Q

A BA emergency team should carry what when reporting to the nominated ECP?

A

An additional ECB
A second set (ECO’s set) for every 2 wearers
A charged 45mm jet ideally from an alternate pump and water supply.

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81
Q

When reporting to the dedicated emergency Team ECO as an emergency team member, what actions should be taken regarding the second set?

A

Split the tally from the key.
Write second set instead of a name.
Key stays in the bodyguard

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82
Q

As a committed emergency team member, what actions should be taken upon finding a distressed wearer?

A

Silence the DSU using the 2nd set key then return it to the 2nd set.
Inform ECP that wearers have been located.
Gauge check all BA sets to determine if a rescue can commence.
Supplement air supply if required.

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83
Q

When should a DSU be actuated?

A 
BA team member:
Lost 
Confused 
Injured
BA set difficulties 
Distressed 
Trapped
Disoriented
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84
Q

When reporting for decontamination whilst in GTS, what is the minimum air pressure on the BA set before the air supply must be supplemented with the second set?

A

100 bar

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85
Q

When preparing or using a second set during GTS, what additional item is required?

A

Back to back make coupling fitted to the second set.

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86
Q

When tying a long line to the 135 ladder for a props to face pitch, how is it tied?

A

Under the wheel bar and over the top round using a round turn and 2 half hitches

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87
Q

Which crew member sites the head of the ladder on a props to face pitch?

A

No 3

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88
Q

Who ties the long line to the top round of the 135 during a props to face pitch?

A

No 5

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89
Q

Which crew members will check Pawls engaged and state pawls engaged on a 135 props to face pitch?

A

No 2 and no 5

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90
Q

What command will be given when the prop handlers are ready to support the ladder after waking round 1 at a time during a props to face 135 pitch?

A

Right!

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91
Q

When 3 + 4 walk the props round to to rear (1 at a time) on a 135 props to face pitch, where should the props be?

A

Always on the outside.

During and whilst walking round and turning around.

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92
Q

On the quadruplicate control information form at FSG incidents, what Copy stays with the ICP to hand over to the command unit?

A

White copy

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93
Q

What is the minimum rank for a search co-ordinator?

A

Watch Manager

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94
Q

How much foam solution does the Mercedes S3 onboard tank hold?

A

80 litres

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95
Q

What type of foam is only used on the Mercedes S3?

A

Auxquimia

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96
Q

What percentage of foam is required to water to fight flammable liquids from the Mercedes S3?

A

3% auxquimia foam to water

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97
Q

How many LPM of water is the Godiva pump on the Mercedes S3 capable of pumping from a 3 metre lift at 10 bar pressure?

A

3000 LPM

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98
Q

How is an open water lift achieved on the Mercedes S3 ?

A

All deliveries closed including hose reels.
Tank to pump gate closed.
Connect hard suction hose to pump inlet.
Start up and engage PTO until a pump pressure reading is achieved on the flow data. Open deliveries as required

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99
Q

After lifting and pumping from open water, what must be carried out?

A

A full pump and deliveries flush using clean water

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100
Q

How is a burst length dealt with?

A

Lay out replacement hose
If a jet length, notify crews to withdraw to safety.
Swap hose and tie a knot in either end of the burst length.
Upon make up, burst length is made up from the male coupling.

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101
Q

What is the alternative method off slipping the 135 ladder if the lower beam is stiff?

A

3 & 4 turn their backs to the pump bay and push against the stand off rings

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102
Q

What is the rule of thumb for compound pressure ?

A

Every 10 metres above causes 1 bar pressure loss at the branch.
(1 metre above = - 0.1 bar, e.g. Pump tank water height to pump)

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103
Q

What is the general rule of thumb for calculating pressure loss on a 45mm hose?

A

1 bar per length

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104
Q

What is the genre rule of thumb for calculating pressure loss on a 70mm hose?

A

0.2 bar per length

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105
Q

How many LPM should a hydrant deliver and at what pressure?

A

2000 LPM at 1.7 bar

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106
Q

How many crew members are needed to pitch the 135 props to face?

A

Five

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107
Q

What is the height of the Mercedes S3?

A

10ft 2”
Or
3.1metres

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108
Q

How long are the hose reels on the Mercedes S3?

A

72 metres

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109
Q

What pump pressure is required to get 230 lpm at 6 bar branch pressure on the Mercedes S3 hose reels ?

A

40 bar at the pump

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110
Q

What does RTPP stand for?

A

Round the pump proportioner

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111
Q

What is at the other end of the guideline?

A

150mm loop for connecting the extending guideline snap hook

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112
Q

How far apart are the tabs on a guideline?

A

150mm (15cm)

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113
Q

What is the length of the 2 tabs on a BA guideline?

A

125mm long
50mm short
When both held in each hand, short knotted is way out

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114
Q

At what intervals do the guideline tabs appear?

A

2.5 metres then 150mm apart tabs then another 2.5 metres and so on

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115
Q

Where do the A and B / branch tallies attach?

A

To the D section directly underneath the snap hook

not the D shackle

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116
Q

BA emergency team must provide a 2nd set for every how many wearers in the emergency team?

A

Every 2 emergency wearers must have a 2nd set

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117
Q

How should a BA set be placed inside the 2nd set bag?

A

BA set left side down with cylinder tap facing upwards.

tap should be laid towards the big pouch end

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118
Q

How many foam transfer tubes can be connected together?

A

4 tubes= 8 metre reach max

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119
Q

What is the only type of foam to be used on the Mercedes S3?

A

Auxquimia

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120
Q

What is the maximum amount of foam concentrate the RTPP can induce?

A

120 L/min

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121
Q

What percentage of foam concentrate to water must be used?

A

3 %

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122
Q

120 L/min of foam concentrate will produce how much finished foam?

A

2000 litres per minute at 3% induction

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123
Q

What should a guideline be tied to?

A

An immovable object

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124
Q

How many guidelines can be run from one ECP?

A

2 guidelines max but only 1 per entry route

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125
Q

How is a main guideline extended?

A

2nd bag is removed from number 2 and clipped onto the same Ba Set D ring of number 1 as 1st bag, new snap hook connected to previous bag 150mm loop, previous bag discontinued and guideline laying continues.

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126
Q

How should outbound and inbound BA teams cross over on a guideline?

A

Inbound team crouches down and holds guideline out so outbound can negotiate it as a tie off point, with multiple team members attached to the line the inbound team leader should gather all the karabiners together in one hand.

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127
Q

What are the 2 methods of searching off a guideline with your personal line?

A

Team leader extends to 6m and other team members remain connected to the team leader in a chain between leader and guideline.
2 is all members extended to 1.25m in a chain (4 max)

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128
Q

The Low pressure warning whistle on SDBA activates when how many minutes of air are left?

A

12 mins at consumption rate of 50 LPM

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129
Q

If a donor is unable to supply air during emergency exchange of air, what should happen?

A

Adopt entrapped procedure

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130
Q

At RTCs, what size should the inner and outer cordons be?

A

2 metres inner circle around the scene of operations minimum.
5 metres outer circle should be 5 metres around the inner circle.

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131
Q

At RTCs, what should only enter the 2 metre inner circle?

A

Personnel in PPE and equipment only.

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132
Q

At RTCs what should be in the 5 metre outer circle?

A

OIC and personnel holding area

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133
Q

At RTCS, can personnel cross a central reservation to deal with an incident on the opposite carriageway?

A

Never unless traffic has been stopped by police or Hato.

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134
Q

What is a Hato?

A

Highways agency transport officer

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135
Q

At RTCs what takes priority? Hi vis tabard or IC tabard?

A

Hi Vis tabard

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136
Q

At RTCs what lighting should be enabled on the appliance?

A

Appliance flood lighting
Blue warnings
Fend offs

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137
Q

Who gives the order for the police accident sign to be deployed?

A

IC but it should be used at all incidents where personnel are working on roadways.

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138
Q

Where should the police accident sign be deployed?

A

Where it doesn’t obstruct moving vehicles prior to any bends or dips or other obstructions. (Grass verge or paved area in full view of oncoming traffic)

139
Q

What is the general rule of thumb with regards to appliance positioning on roadways?

A

Pumps prior to incident and post on 2 way roads with specials in the middle

140
Q 
With regards to FRS act 2004 RTCs, for what reason can we:
Break into a vehicle without consent.
Close a highway.
Stop and regulate traffic.
Restrict access of persons?
A

To rescue people.

Protect people from harm

141
Q

If a persons trapped informative message has been sent, what should happen with the FRU?

A

Must be allowed to arrive, not returned

142
Q

At RTCs, what should you remember when switching work from one casualty to another?

A

Change gloves to avoid cross contamination

143
Q

What 2 things do U need to remember if airbags are unactivated at RTCs?

A

No radio transmissions from inside vehicle.

Put SRS restraint cover over steering wheel.

144
Q

What colours are SRS and HV cables?

A

SRS yellow

HV Orange

145
Q

Can an appliance designated as initial command pump be used for anything else?

A

No

Blue lights must be on

146
Q

When leaving the scene of an RTC on the motorway, what should the MD consider?

A

Advise all personnel
Leave a safe working area behind
Leave blues and fend offs on

147
Q

If an RTC occurs on a 2 way road, what lanes need to close?

A

Both lanes

148
Q

If an RTC occurs on the hard shoulder of a motorway, what lanes need to close?

A

Hard shoulder and lane 1

149
Q

If an RTC occurs on lane 1 of a 3 lane motorway, what lanes need to close?

A

Hard shoulder, Lane 1 and 2

150
Q

If an RTC occurs on lane 2 of a 3 lane moterwsy, what lanes need to close?

A

Lane 1,2,3

151
Q

If an RTC occurs on lane 3 of a 3 lane motorway, what lanes need to close?

A

2 and 3

152
Q

If an RTC occurs across the central reservation of a 3 lane each direction motorway, what lanes need to close ?

A

2 and 3 each direction

153
Q

On the RB 101 branch, how many teeth can be damaged to render the branch off the run?

A

5 teeth or 3 in a row = OTR

154
Q

What direction does the collar need to be turned to get a solid jet on the RB101?

A

Clockwise

on the red collar have the 2 silver bars at 12 o’clock

155
Q

How is a 45 degree angle achieved on the RB101?

A 
Anti clockwise 
( have the pointer on the black collar at 12 o'clock) also note the  widening silver V on red collar.
156
Q

What is the default flow rate setting for the RB101?

A

230 LPM

157
Q

What is the bar operating range on the projet 2?

A

3.5-7 bar

158
Q

What is the maximum throw from the projet2?

A

57 metres

159
Q

At 3.5 bar, what is the flow for the jet on its own on the projet2?

A

440 LPM

160
Q

What is the flow rate for the project 2 at 3.5 bar on jet and spray?

A

640 LPM

161
Q

What is the flow rate for the project 2 at 7 bar Jet only?

A

630 LPM

162
Q

What is the flow rate on the project 2 at 7 bar jet and spray cone?

A

930 LPM

163
Q

What is the ultimatic hose reel branch flow rates?

A

115 to 150 LPM

164
Q

How would a branch working on the third floor at 8 bar pressure number 2 delivery be communicated?

A 
Clenched fist up with thumbs inwards
Water on!
Number 2 delivery
Branch working on the third floor
8 bar pressure
165
Q

What is the procedure for changing or extending a hose length?

A

Lay out hose next to burst length or interception point.
Get branch operator to place of safety
Get pump operator to knock off.
Change length and tie a knot in both ends of u/s length.
Upon make up, u/s length is rolled up my the male coupling.

166
Q

On the ground monitor, what is the flow rate of the single flow rate deluge nozzle?

A

1750 LPM

Solid core jet

167
Q

What is the purpose of the flow shaper that attaches to the ground monitor before the single flow rate deluge nozzle?

A

Creates spin on the solid core jet helping it maintain its shape over a long distance

168
Q

What angles can the ground monitor be moved?

A

20 degrees left or right from centre line and 30 to 60 degrees vertical elevation
(Can be pushed down to 20 degrees but operator must have 2 hands on it to counter increased jet reaction, sprung loaded down to 20 degrees from 30)

169
Q

What are the 3 settings on the ground monitor variable flow rate jet spray nozzle?

A

950
1400
1900 LPM

170
Q

What are the words of command for hauling aloft?

A 
Stand from under
Clear there
Haul away from the building
Ground
Up top
Below
171
Q

When should hoses be crossed by the couplings?

A

When bowled out awaiting call from branch operator for water on, this is to stop water being delivered before branch operator is ready

172
Q

How should a hose reel be hauled aloft?

A

Overhand knot in the branch end then a clove hitch around the knotted branch

173
Q

How is Dutch rolled hose hauled aloft?

A

Fig of eight knot in line then personal line folded in half through centre of hose then double sheet bend attached to fig of eight loop.

174
Q

What are the 3 methods of contact with your buddy whilst in BA?

A

Personal line
Physical contact
Within touching distance
(Only exception is stairs and vertical ladders) short time apart as poss

175
Q

What do flashing blue LEDs on the bodyguard mean?

A

Telemetry signal established and current

Also radio icon tick present

176
Q

How is the Turnaround pressure worked out?

A

Air figure when you leave entry control-90 bar + half remaining air
(Half remaining air + 90 bar safety margin)

Or half your air +45

177
Q

What is the safety margin of air when working out TAP?

A

90 bar safety margin

178
Q

How many incident ground A tests can be carried out at scene?

A

One incident ground A test

Set not to be used after the 2nd wear unless B test carried out

179
Q

What is the load capacity for the blocks and wedges?

A

50 tonnes across the whole surface area

Reduce if not

180
Q

What is the load capacity for the step blocks?

A

20 tonnes across the whole surface area

Reduce if not

181
Q

If a compartment remains hot/warm, what is the minimum RPE?

A

Breathing apparatus

Because of unseen fire gases still present

182
Q

Can EDBA wearers wear a set Twice?

A

Re-entry and second wear only in exceptional circumstances

183
Q

BA team leader should withdraw team when?

A 
Uncontrolled loss
LPWW 
Unwell / confused
Bodyguard fault
DSU
Exposed to irrespirable
Telemetry and comms continuous failure.
Evac signal from ECO
Whistle heard 
Loss of FF media.
184
Q

When is the only time an emergency team can be used for other tasks?

A

Only to save a saveable life.

185
Q

What is the required circumstances to operate an emergency team?

A

Lead by a min of CM
At least as large as the largest team inside.
Same PPE/ RPE
Same radio channel.
Adopt EC call sign ( alpha emergency team 1, 2,3 etc)
Consist of fresh wearers unless knowledge of inside required.
Second set for every 2 wearers
Own Entry control board.
Charged 45mm jet from separate pump.

186
Q

Once a hose line has been hauled aloft using a rolling hitch and clove hitch, what knot should be used to tie the line to an immovable object?

A

Round turn and 2 half hitches

187
Q

When hoses are bowled out and hauled aloft, what safety measure is applied to the hose couplings at the bottom of the ladder?

A

Couplings Crossed over and laid on the ground in an “X”

188
Q

If a BA team member is in distress due to entanglement, what must they do?

A

Activate their DSU

189
Q

If a DSU has been activated by a team member, what should be the actions of the team?

A

Withdraw

190
Q

If an ECO is informed of an entanglement, what should be their actions?

A

Inform person responsible for Entry control and commit BA emergency team

191
Q

How many foam transfer tubes can be connected in series?

A

4

192
Q

How many stages of Entry control are there?

A

Stage 1

Stage 2

193
Q

What limits Entry control to stage 1?

A

Limited wearers over a limited period of time

One board
6 wearers
One ECP (except where 2 are close together and visible from 1 ECP)

IC to nominate emergency team asa resources allow.
IC to nominate a FF to comms op asa resources allow.

194
Q

How many Entry control aide memoirs are there?

A

12

195
Q

Why should the Entry control board be on its stand with its back to the wearers and handles not obstructed?

A

To maximise the signal

196
Q

What needs to happen to set up Entry control?

A

Surcoat on with lamp and radio attached.
Board on stand
Check clock
Check comms (channel 6)
IEC set up resuscitator
Prompt IC for emergency team, telemetry repeaters/ leaky feeders
Confirm brief with BA teams
Bracket team, add floor, call sign+LHW/RHW, task, media weight of attack
240 bar? and time in on tally
Skin check
Enter New entry 1st or 2nd wear or re-entry.
A B test not recorded if required to remarks

197
Q

When suspected/ confirmed radiation incidents, what happens extra at Entry control?

A

EPD reading added to “in” section on the rear of the tally

198
Q

What colour is the BA comms op surcoat and where can the BA comms op insert be found?

A

Yellow/ black top half chequered

Insert available from CU

199
Q

What does the BA comms op do and who does he/she report to?

A

Send / receive messages from committed BA teams and liaise with ECO

Reports to person responsible for ECP

200
Q

What is the minimum rank of BA sector ?

A

Station manager (SM)

201
Q

What Entry control aide memoir is DTW?

A

Number 5

202
Q

What Entry control aide memoir is for the BA comms op?

A

Number 4

203
Q

What is the maximum hose can be allowed to stretch?

A

5% length

10% diameter

204
Q

What is the weight of 45 and 70mm hose?

A

45mm =9kg

70mm =15kg

205
Q

How long are 45 and 70 hose lengths?

A

23 metres

206
Q

What is the maximum working pressure of 45 and 70 hose?

A

15 bar

207
Q

How long are lengths of 90mm HLU hose?

A

30 metres each

4km per HLU
15 bar max work pressure

208
Q

What lengths of 150mm hose are available on the HVP?

A

50 m
10 m
5 m

209
Q

How long is hard suction hose?

A

2.44m each
X2 carried on each appliance
100mm diameter

210
Q

How many minutes of air remain when the LPWW activates on a SDBA set?

A

12 minutes At 50 LPM

211
Q

How many minutes of air remain when the LPWW activates on An EDBA set?

A

18 minutes at 58 LPM EDBA

212
Q

At what bodyguard pressure does a GTS wearer reporting for decontamination require their air supply to be supplemented?

A

100 bar

213
Q

A second set prepared for a GTS wearer supplementation is prepared how?

A

Second set bag with 1m second person connection external and back to back coupling attached.

214
Q

For GTS decontamination, if a wearer is low on air, what are the methods of attaching 2 second sets?

A

Decon op 1 dirty attaches second set 1m with BACK to back to GTS waist coupling (100 bar or less).

When GTS at waist level, (air less than 90 bar) decon op 2 clean provides another 2nd set with back to back coupling to wearer. Wearer attaches coupling to his inline connector from face mask.

215
Q

Who decides if a GTS wear is extended from 20 mins?

A

The individual wearers and not the team leader alone

216
Q

Can GTS Entry control remain stage 1?

A

Only if wearers are in line of sight of ECO

217
Q

If a BA wearer is going under air on his own on the TL, HP or ALP, what actions should the ECO take?

A 
Write location (ALP etc) in locations.
Establish comms with ECO or comms op
Ensure they have safety harness and lanyard attached to an anchor point
218
Q

Can an aerial appliance cage be used as a bridgehead?

A

No, must NOT be used as an ECP

219
Q

Can a BA wearer under air operate an aerial appliance cage?

A

No, must be by base controller only, NO RPE to be worn by Aerial operator

220
Q

Can an aerial appliance be moved when used for BA team access?

A

No, must not be moved under any circumstances until ALL BA wearers have returned and all accounted for.

221
Q

What does RPELO stand for?

A

Respiratory protection equipment logistics officer

Contactable 24/7 via RMC

222
Q

What is the only other agency that can run through our ECB?

A

Las Hart EDBA teams (must have their own comms op)

223
Q

What is the minimum weight of attack for basement jobs?

A

45mm hose line with branch set to 230 LPM

224
Q

What 4 things does basement procedure consist of?

A

BA crew in full PPE and 1x45mm jet.

Access and egress clear

Access and egress protected with a second team with 1x45mm jet

Basement procedure implemented sent to control

225
Q

What are the designated rest periods and cool water consumption amounts following ambient and hot BA wears?

A

Ambient 30 mins 500ml
Hot 60 mins 1000ml
Only ever shortened to save a saveable life with no other wearers available

226
Q

If there is more than 1 ECP and stage 2 is implemented at 1 ECP, what happens to the remaining stage 1 ECP?

A

It becomes stage 2 regardless.

227
Q

What is the maximum amount of BA wearers that can be controlled from stage 1 ECP?

A

Six

228
Q

When MUST an OIC nominate an emergency team?

A

As soon as resources are available

229
Q

When will the OIC nominate a comms op?

A

When resources permit (stage 1 +)

230
Q

Who carries the 4 branch guideline tallies?

A

FRU only

231
Q

Who carries the telemetry repeaters?

A

FRU and CU

Rem (repeaters =2 = FRU and CU)

232
Q

Who carries the leaky feeder reels?

A

FRU only

233
Q

Who carries the second set carrying bags?

A

FRU CU OSU

234
Q

If 2 ECBs are used on 1 ECP, what happens to the alphabetical call sign?

A

Remains the same, only 1 alphabetical call sign per ECP (including emergency team, alpha emergency team 1 etc)

235
Q

When committing a BA team to go-ex foam, what action must the ECO carry out?

A

Unclip the LDV outer rubber casing. And lift clear.

Prevents build up causing free flow

236
Q

What icon is to be constantly monitored for a telemetry signal by the ECO?

A

Solid green radio icon against each tally position

237
Q

Can an ECO commit an BA emergency team?

A

Yes but must inform the person responsible for the ECP.

Eg if radio contact fails and telemetry fails

238
Q

Can telemetry and manual calculations be used on the same ECB?

A

No

Board is either telemetry or manual calculations and will NOT be mixed on the same board.

239
Q

What is the minimum rank of ECPS?

A

CM

240
Q

What happens to Entry control if Telemetry repeater(s) or leaky feeder is deployed?

A

Becomes Stage 2

241
Q

What happens to Entry control if Chemical protective clothing is deployed and the wearers are out of the line of sight?

A

Stage 2

242
Q

What must be provided as an addition to BA emergency Teams at stage 2 Entry control?

A

Relief BA team must be established as well as an emergency team when stage 2 is implemented

243
Q

Can SDBA and EDBA teams be entered and controlled from the same board?

A

Yes but the teams cannot be mixed, ( bracketed teams must have the same RPE per team and emergency team must have EDBA as a minimum if any EDBA team is committed

244
Q

What is the minimum amount of BA that must be ready for use before the appliance comes off the run?

A

2 (minimum)

245
Q

Who should be called for urgent replacement of BA set(s) ?

A

Logistics manager

RMC 88321

246
Q

What number is the BA Comms op aide memoir?

A

Number 4

247
Q

What number is the ECPS incident duties AIde memoir?

A

Number 2

248
Q

What Number aide memoir is DTW?

A

Number 5

249
Q

If the IC requires EDBA above that already in attendance and sends a message to control, how many FRUs and support pumps will be mobilised?

A

3 x FRUs

3 x EDBA support pumps

250
Q

If leaky feeders are required at scene, how should this be requested?

A

As an “assistance” message = 1 FRU required for telemetry leaky feeder.

251
Q

What does PRO and PRC stand for?

A

Performance review of operations

Performance review of command function

252
Q

What are the 4 templates on the FIB?

A

Incident information
High rise incident record
Incident plan
Casually information

253
Q

What number aide memoir is the BA sector commander duties?

A

Entry control Aide memoir number 3

254
Q

What does the RPE support unit carry?

A

Bulk BA cylinders and BA related equipment

255
Q

What colour surcoat does the RPELO and RPE support wear?

A

Yellow either insert on front and back

256
Q

What does DaMOP

A

Development and maintenance of operational professionalism

257
Q

What radio channel should the ECPS be on?

A

Incident ground channel 1

258
Q

What are the 4 types of emergency procedures available to BA teams committed to an incident?

A

DSU
Entrapped
Exchange of air
Radio assistance

259
Q

When an ADSU/DSU is heard actuating, what should the Team leader do?

A

Direct teams to investigate source regardless of what teams are doing if they can safely.

260
Q

Why should an entangled BA wearer cross there arms at chest height?

A

To protect BA hoses

261
Q

How should an SDBA set be placed in the second set bag?

A

On its left side with valve uppermost

Face mask stays in bag

Min 240 bar

Split tally from key and leave key in bodyguard

Long flaps placed over short flaps (top and bottom together 1st)

262
Q

Who carries the second set bag?

A

FRU
CU
OSU

263
Q

What other ancillaries come within the second set bag?

A

1 metre long hose with male male couplings

Back to back female adaptor

264
Q

What are the 3 methods of using the 2nd set?

A

Method 1
Connect recipients face mask to inline connector of 2nd set (their face mask and hose must be in working order)

Method 2
Remove face mask from 2nd set then connect 1 metre rescue hose to “2nd person” connection on second set then to the “2nd person connection on the recipients set.

Method 3
Helmet off, peel back hood, remove straps (top first) then on count of 3 switch face mask to 2nd set face mask.
(Rem to hold 1st breath button when original face mask taken away)
Rem recipient to take a large breath before any method carried out.

265
Q

What is the working height of the short extension ladder?

A

6 metres

266
Q

The bar that runs between the head rollers of a ladder is known as what?

A

Head iron

267
Q

How long is the roof ladder?

A

4.6 metres

268
Q

What colour flame is approximately what temperature?

A

Deep red 600-800
Orange- yellow 1100
White 1300-1500
Blue 1400-1650

269
Q

During a confined space pitch of the 135 ladder, what should be remembered to sight the heel correctly?

A

Approach from right=Right hand side of window? Use 2nd round from jack beam to right hand side of window.
Approach from right= left hand side of window? Use 1st round from jack beam to left side of window.
Mirror image for left approach.
Rem: when approaching window it’s either 2nd round or 1st round in that order (2 or 1)

270
Q

How is the 135 sighted on a confined space pitch?

A

Outer Jack pad 1/3 out of working height

271
Q

During a confined space pitch, how far should the first prop handler move towards the inside of the building?

A

1 metre past jack pad (prop outermost)

272
Q

What is the general guode time for reliefs of firefighting teams?

A

Every 3 hours

273
Q

On a 135 props to face pitch, where should the prop handler align the prop when they have moved to the face of the ladder?

A

Align with outside of jacking beam

274
Q

If the prop handlers names aren’t known, what words of command are used to tell the prop handler to move their prop?

A

You, prop round

275
Q

Who sites the head on a props to face pitch?

A

Number 3

276
Q

Upon making up the 135 after a props to face pitch, who extends to lower the ladder after 3,4 and 5 move the head out to vertical?

A

Number 2 only

277
Q

Upon making up the 135 after a props to face pitch, what is number 5s job after assisting 3&4 to move the head out?

A

5 keeps the line clear from excessive slack (only pulls the ladder head initially out of the building)

278
Q

What 3 things categorise a P1 person?

A

Increased risk of fire
Less able to react to fire
Less able to escape from fire

279
Q

What is an SOR?

A

Serious outstanding risk

A SOR to the resident which had not been dealt with while completing a HFSV

280
Q

If an SOR is identified, what further action must be implemented?

A

Fire retardant bedding

Telecare recommendation with linked fire detection

Sprinklers

Juvenile firesetters intervention team referral

281
Q

What is the minimum distance Aerial appliances must be from inspection covers?

A

1 metre

282
Q

What should be avoided when siting aerial appliance jacks?

A

Pavements
Kerb areas
Soft Unmade up or obscured ground (snow/puddles)
Unsupported walls

283
Q

When Aerials are working near power cables, what are the safe distance rules?

A

10 metres operationally
20 metres training
30 metres water tower

10,20,30 rule

284
Q

What can be used on an appliance to monitor wind direction?

A

A piece of barrier tape elevated somehow

Ladder/ Ceiling hook etc)

285
Q

What area is required to safely unload prime movers?

A

25 x 8 metres

286
Q

What information is required at the gathering and thinking stage of the DMM

A

Task/Event
Resources
Risk/ benefit

287
Q

What 2 types of tactical mode are there and what do they mean?

A

Oscar offensive inside hazard area

Delta defensive outside hazard area

288
Q

Assistance messages are requested how?

A

Press and hold 9

Urgent request to speak

289
Q

Persons reported is sent for what reason?

A

Control or IC informed or reasonably suspect that:

People are trapped by fire
Combustion products
Hazardous substance release

290
Q

Persons reported will trigger control to do what?

A

Request Ambulance to incident

(If persons involved is on 999 call, control will order ambulance and inform IC en route.

291
Q

What are the 5 parts to an assistance message?

A 
From at
Resources 
RVP
Vehicles to enter via
Tac mode
292
Q

With regards to running calls, what is different about notifying control when sending the priority message?

A

Instead of From at its:

From….running call received to…. at

293
Q

What is the sequence for sending a running call message to control?

A

FRAFT

From?
Running call received to?
At?
Resources? (A381 attending?)
Full brigade attendance or no further?
Tac mode
294
Q

When sending a 9 unable to proceed message, what must be sent immediately so control can mobilise a different resource and how should it be sent?

A

For breakdown or Accident

From…..
Why……. (due to)
Then further traffic after this.

Unable to proceed: from, why, further traffic

295
Q

What 2 reasons would cause an unable to proceed?

A

Mechanical breakdown.

Accident.

296
Q

After an unable to proceed priority is sent, what details should the further traffic contain?

A

Location and nature of fault for breakdown

Accident = from at.
appliance involved?
Collision with?
Persons trapped? Or not?
Persons injured or not?
Request attendance of? 
(Ambulance for who?) female member of public, approx 30 years of age, C&B
Suffering from whiplash?
Further attendance or not?
Tac mode
297
Q

What are the 2 exceptions to contact control about risk information?

A

MDT not working and you are the only appliance

Yankee Hazard relating to explosives

298
Q

For what types of incident will control request an ambulance ?

A

Persons reported fire
8 pumps +
Other incidents where Persons involved/ trapped

IC must confirm Ambulance ordered

299
Q

Why do we bounce the Pawls on the ladder?

A

Because it’s possible that the ladder extension can rest on the AAD instead of the Pawls if extended too quickly

300
Q

What are the yellow marks on the side of the 9 metre ladder?

A

Bridging limitation marks

301
Q

When bridging a ladder, how much of the ladder must overlap the gap as a minimum?

A

650mm

302
Q

When should a ladder be plumbed?

A

After under run and before extending

Final adjustments can be made after it is extended and the head is resting on the building.)

303
Q

When taking a leg lock, how many rounds above the round your standing on should the leg be passed over?

A

2 rounds above the round your standing on, the leg passes over that round.

304
Q

How should the 9 metre ladder be grasped whilst transporting it around?

A

Backs of hands to the centre of the ladder
(All knuckles facing each other) (1+2 towards 3)

1+2 grab second round from head
3 grabs last round at the heel

305
Q

What is the minimum clearance required to slip the 9 metre ladder?

A

10 metres

306
Q

To what height will the 9 metre ladder pivot on the beam gantry?

A

4.2 metes

Watch out for power cables and obstructions

307
Q

For what 3 reasons will a FSG call end?

A

Caller leaves by their own means.
BA crews rescue them
Line cleared

308
Q

When must fully worded stop messages be sent?

A 
More than 1 hose reel
Make ups
Injuries
Unusual
People involved except shut in lifts and lock outs
309
Q

What is status 9?

A

When an appliance has been put on batch mobilising by control

310
Q

If appliances are detained at an incident, how long must they be detained before a message is included with a stop message?

A

20 mins

311
Q

Who can declare persons reported?

A

IC

Control

312
Q

What are the colour bands on the 9m ladder?

A

For individual and full extension bridging maximum

313
Q

If level one water operations implemented, what action do brigade control carry out?

A

Inform a tactical advisor(technical rescue) and a Station Manager

314
Q

What are the 3 levels of water operations?

A

Level one (firefighters working within 3 metres of water, mud, ice including water rescue from land side)

Level 2 entering water, mud, ice

Level 3 mass flooding

315
Q

When can risk info be requested from control?

A

If Yankee hazard

Or

MDT failure and u are the 1st or only appliance attending
(Need info?, is another appliance coming ? (If MDT packs up)= No, ask control

316
Q

Major incident declaration initiates what to be mobilised by control?

A 
6 pumps
2 CUs
1 FRU
Additional senior officers 
1 Ambulance
(6211 + officers)

(Must send methane with declaration)

317
Q

What does methane stand for? And when is it sent?

A

Sent on major incident declaration

M major incident declared?
E exact location 
T type of incident 
H hazards or potential for?
A access routes
N number of casualties 
E emergency services required?
318
Q

How many identification numbers are there to check on an A test?

A

9

Face mask 
LDV 
Backplate FnR
Ba tally and telemetry module
Log book FnR
Bodyguard number
319
Q

On an A test, how many leds will flash on an ADSU and DSU activation?

A

ADSU = 2 red 2 blue and 1 green

DSU = 2 red 2 blue only

320
Q

What is an acceptable loss of pressure on an A test ( 1 min hold)

A

10 bar

321
Q

How long do you have to complete the breathe down after the 1 min pressure hold on an A test?

A

3 mins

322
Q

A fireground A test is recorded in the BA log book how?

A

A test after use

Include time of test and cylinder number

323
Q

What vehicle is required in order for a B test to be carried out in the incident ground?

A

OSU with BA maintenance kit

324
Q

What pressures do the electronic and pneumatic warnings activate in a BA set?

A

Electronic 84 bar

Pneumatic 74 bar +-5

325
Q

When is a 28 day text due?

A

28 days after the on receipt B test

326
Q

How long should a set be worn with the tally in the board in a 28 day test?

A

15 mins

327
Q

What does the leak test icon look like on the bodyguard?

A

Vertical dumbbell symbol

328
Q

What colour leds are displayed when a telemetry signal is received?

A

Green and blue

329
Q

What is status 35?

A

In attendance at standby location (non station based)

330
Q

When is the order of vehicle fend off layout when the FRU is in attendance?

A

Pumps behind the scene, FRU in front or beyond the pumps

331
Q

What is the 30,30,30 rule?

A

Extreme wildfire behaviour can occur if:
30% humidity or lower
Wind 30km/h
Temp 30 degrees C or above

332
Q

At high rise sectorisation, what is the search, fire and lobby sector?

A

Search is above the fire sector (search and ventilation)

Fire is fire floor + 1 floor above and below

Lobby is ground floor to fire sector (includes bridgehead)

333
Q

How much water do aerials supply at max output?

A

HP 2275 LPM
TL 2000 LPM
ALP 325 2450 LPM
ALP 320 1700 LPM

TL and Alp monitors can be controlled remotely when in use as a water tower.

334
Q

Can Aerials produce foam?

A

Yes, secondary aspirated foam.

335
Q

Can Aerials mimic a DRM?

A

All except TL can mimic DRM

336
Q

What Aerials carry a stretcher and frame?

A

All except HP

337
Q

What aerial can accommodate a wheelchair bound casualty?

A

ALP 325

338
Q

What Aerials are fitted with live footage cameras viewable at the Aerial base console?

A

TL and ALP 325

339
Q

What are the 4 safety handling systems on the series 3?

A

ASR (German)
Acceleration skid control

ESP
Electronic stability program

ETS
Electronic traction system

ABS
Anti-lock brake system

340
Q

How much water does the water back pack hold?

A

20 litres

341
Q

5 DRA steps are?

A

Evaluation of the situation, task and persons at risk
(Identify hazards and risks to people and environment considered)

Select safe systems of work
(Due regard for policy)

Assess chosen system of work
(Risk/benefit)

Introduce additional control measures
(Further reduce risk)

Reassess systems of work
Risk/benefit reassessment)

Op discretion if required?

342
Q

When lifting from open water, how is the hard suction secured?

A

Short line in half
Form a clove hitch at the half way loop around the strainer knobs then half hitch further back at next set of knobs and finally tie off to the appliance

343
Q

What size must the lettering be on dry riser inlet boxes?

A

50mm

J G CM stuff (8 decks)

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