Fever, Pain, And Nutrition O’neil Flashcards

1
Q

What thermometer can get results in 3 minutes?

A

Mercury in glass (rectal and oral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What type of thermometer can get results in 1 minute?

A

Electronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What type of thermometer can get results in 1 second?

A

Tympanic thermometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What age are rectal thermometers preferred in?

A

< 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is considered a fever if taking a rectal temperature?

A

> 101.8 F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is considered a fever if you are taking an oral temperature?

A

> 100 F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is considered a fever if you’re taking an axillary temperature?

A

> 99 F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Refer or treat: Fever in an infant 3 months or younger

A

Refer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Refer or treat: Fever lasting less than 3 days

A

Treat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Refer or treat: infant > 3 months with fever 104 F

A

Refer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Refer or treat: Presence of a skin rash, difficulty breathing, ear pain, seizure, redness or swollen painful area

A

Refer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Refer or treat: Temperature less than 103 F

A

Treat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Refer or treat: Cold or flu symptoms for more than 7 days

A

Refer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Refer or treat: pregnant patient with a fever

A

Refer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Refer or treat: Vomiting > 12 hours; diarrhea > 2 days with a fever

A

Refer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does the P stand for in the PQRST evaluation?

A

Palliative or precipitating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does the Q stand for in the PQRST evaluation?

A

Quality of pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does the R stand for in the PQRST evaluation?

A

Region, radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does the S stand for in the PQRST evaluation?

A

Subjective description of severity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does the T stand for in the PQRST evaluation?

A

Temporal or time-related nature of the pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Refer or treat: headache with vision changes or dizziness

A

Refer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Refer or treat: allergy to ASA, APAP, NSAIDs

A

Refer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Refer or treat: stiffness in the limbs

A

Treat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Refer or treat: pain with nausea or severe vomiting

A

Refer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Refer or treat: last menstrual period > 6 weeks ago

A

Refer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Refer or treat: chest pain

A

Refer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Refer or treat: Duration of pain is more than 2 weeks

A

Refer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Headache danger signals: onset at what age?

A

After 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Headache danger signals: children under what age

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What pain assessment is simple and descriptive with a 1-10 numeric scale

A

Verbal analog scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What pain assessment has a 10 cm line?

A

Visual analog scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the range for mild pain?

A

1-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the range for moderate pain?

A

4-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the range for severe pain?

A

7-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are 4 pain assessment instruments?

A
  1. Pain diary
  2. Pain drawings
  3. Faces of pain
  4. McGill Pain Questionnaire
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What 3 things does the PEG assessment tool asses?

A
  1. Pain on average
  2. Enjoyment of life
  3. General activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What changes are uncommon with chronic pain?

A

Physiologic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What 3 pain assessments are used in the cognitively impaired?

A
  1. PAINAD
  2. Physiological indicators
  3. Facial/body clues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are 3 pain assessments used in children?

A
  1. Poker chip
  2. Faces of pain
  3. Physiologic indicators
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are 4 pain assessments used in geriatric patients?

A
  1. VAS
  2. Pain thermometer
  3. Pain diaries
  4. Drawings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the amount of protein needed for adults?

A

45 g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the amount of protein needed for children?

A

25 g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How much macronutrients should patients have in their diet?

A

25 kcal/kg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are micronutrients? 4

A
  1. Electrolytes
  2. Vitamins
  3. Trace
  4. Minerals
45
Q

How much water should a patient intake?

A

30 mL/kg or 1 mL/kcal

46
Q

What are 2 things that can cause malnutrition?

A
  1. Lack of food
  2. Insufficient utilization of nutrients due to acute or chronic disease/treatment
47
Q

Marasmus means a patient is deficit in what?

A

Energy

48
Q

Kwashiorkor means a patient is deficit in what?

A

Protein

49
Q

Excessive accumulation of body fat

A

Obesity

50
Q

How much body fat for males is considered excessive if they are less than 35?

A

> 22%

51
Q

How much body fat for males is considered excessive if they are greater than 35?

A

> 25%

52
Q

How much body fat for females is considered excessive if they are less than 35?

A

> 32%

53
Q

How much body fat for females is considered excessive if they are greater than 35?

A

> 35%

54
Q

What is the equation to lose 1 pound/week?

A

Subtract 500 kcal/day from energy requirements

55
Q

Energy expended at rest is called what?

A

Basal energy expenditure

56
Q

For healthy adults, how much kcal should you intake for weight loss?

A

25 kcal/kg

57
Q

For healthy adults, how much kcal sate needed for weight maintenance?

A

30 kcal/kg

58
Q

For healthy adults, how much kcal are needed for weight gain?

A

35 kcal/kg

59
Q

What is the equation for calculating BMI?

A

Wt (lbs) x 750/ height (inches)2

60
Q

What ratio for men is at risk for an apple shaped body?

A

> 0.9

61
Q

What ratio for women are at risk for apple-shaped body?

A

> 0.8

62
Q

Waist circumference for men with a apple shaped body

A

> 40 inches

63
Q

Waist circumference for women with apple shaped body

A

> 35 inches

64
Q

What measures provide an estimate of body fat stores?

A
  1. Triceps skinfold thickness
  2. Measurement of mid-upper arm circumference
65
Q

What are 2 measures of body frame size?

A
  1. Elbow breadth
  2. Wrist circumference
66
Q

What is becoming the gold standard for measuring body fat?

A

DEXA

67
Q

Estimates body fat by submersion in water

A

Hydrodensitometry

68
Q

What uses a safe-low level electrical current?

A

BIA

69
Q

What do BIA results correlate well with?

A

Hydrodensitometry

70
Q

True or false: Hydrodensitometry is very accurate, but time consuming

A

True

71
Q

What does BIA require?

A

Adequate hydration and a wait time of 3 hours after eating or exercise

72
Q

What calculates BMR by using an indirect calorimeter?

A

Body-Gem

73
Q

What 3 things does red blood cell indices include?

A
  1. Mean cell volume (MCV)
  2. Mean cell hemoglobin (MCH)
  3. Mean cell hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)
74
Q

What is the MCV count to be considered macrocytic?

A

> 100

75
Q

What is the MCV count to be considered normocytic?

A

81-99

76
Q

What is the MCV count to be considered microcytic?

A

< or = 80

77
Q

What is the normal level for mean cell hemoglobin (MCH)?

A

27-33

78
Q

What is the normal mean cell hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)?

A

31-35

79
Q

MCH + MCHC can have a false elevation in what disease state?

A

Hyperlipidemia

80
Q

What is the normal level for reticulocytes?

A

0.5%-2.5%

81
Q

What is the normal level for RDW?

A

11-16%

82
Q

RDW is _____ in iron deficiency/mixed anemia

A

Increased

83
Q

Macrocyctic anemia can be caused by what 3 things?

A
  1. Vitamin B12 deficiency
  2. Folic acid deficiency
  3. Drug-induced
84
Q

What disease state could cause vitamin b12 deficiency?

A

IBD

85
Q

What 2 things are increased with vitamin b12 deficiency?

A
  1. MCV
  2. MCH
86
Q

What are two tests used for vitamin b12 deficiency?

A
  1. Schilling test
  2. Intrinsic factor antibody/parietal cell antibody
87
Q

What are 2 folic acid antagonists?

A
  1. Methotrexate
  2. Bactrim
88
Q

What 2 things are increased in a folic acid deficiency?

A
  1. MCV
  2. MCH
89
Q

What is the treatment for folic acid deficiency?

A

Folic acid 1mg/day

90
Q

What is the primary cause of microcytic anemia?

A

Iron deficiency anemia

91
Q

Hereditary disorder of a defective hemoglobinization of RBC

A

Thalassemia

92
Q

How would you treat iron deficiency anemia?

A

Ferrous sulfate 325 mg BID

93
Q

What is the first thing to change in iron deficiency anemia?

A

Serum ferritin

94
Q

What 2 things are increased in iron deficiency anemia?

A
  1. TIBC
  2. RDW
95
Q

What 2 things are decreased in iron deficiency?

A
  1. Serum iron
  2. Transferrin saturation
96
Q

What are 3 causes of normochromic anemia?

A
  1. Acute blood loss
  2. Hemolytic anemia
  3. Anemia of chronic diseases
97
Q

What disease states can cause hemolytic anemia?

A
  1. RA
  2. SLE (lupus)
  3. AIDS
98
Q

What is the treatment for anemia of chronic diseases?

A
  1. Transfusions
  2. Erythropoietin
99
Q

What is the ANC range for neutrophilia?

A

> 12,000

100
Q

What is the ANC range for neutropenia?

A

< 1500 cells

101
Q

What is the ANC range for severe neutropenia?

A

< 500

102
Q

What cells are increased in parasitic infections and hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Eosinophils

103
Q

What types of cells are increased in hypersensitivity reactions, inflammation, and leukemia?

A

Basophils

104
Q

What cells are increased in TB, protozoal/rickettsial; leukemia?

A

Monocytes

105
Q

What is the range of lymphocytes for lymphocytosis?

A

> 4000

106
Q

What is the range of lymphocytes for lymphopenia?

A

< 1000

107
Q

What 7 things could cause lymphocytosis?

A
  1. Mononucleosis
  2. Viral infections
  3. TB
  4. Pertussis
  5. Lymphoma
  6. Syphilis
  7. CLL
108
Q

What 4 things can cause lymphopenia?

A
  1. HIV
  2. radiation exposure
  3. Hodgkin’s disease
  4. Malnutrition
109
Q

If H/H is low, what does the patient have?

A

Anemia