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OS Exam II > Fellows Review > Flashcards

Fellows Review Flashcards

1
Q

Principles of osteopathic medicine

A

The body is a unit

The body is capable of self regulation

Structure and function are reciprocally interrelated

Rational treatment is based on understanding of first 3 principles

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2
Q

Year that AT Still’s children died and he started thinking about osteopathic medicine

A

1864

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3
Q

Day AT Still flung to the breeze the banner of osteopathy

A

June 22, 1874

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4
Q

Year first school of osteopathy opened

A

1892

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5
Q

Year KCU established

A

1916

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6
Q

Year of the Spanish flu outbreak

A

1917-1918

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7
Q

Year DO’s started being able to serve in the military

A

1957

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8
Q

Years of the California Referendum

A

1961-1974

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9
Q

Acute or chronic:

Pale, dry, achy

A

Chronic

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10
Q

Acute or chronic:

Blanching, hypertonic, sharp

A

Acute

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11
Q

5 principles of lymphatic diagnosis

A
  1. Indications and risk-to-benefit ratio
  2. Central myofascial pathways
  3. Fluid pumps
  4. Spinal involvement
  5. Peripheral/regional pathways
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12
Q

Which lymphatic duct drains the majority of the body

A

Thoracic duct

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13
Q

What does the right lymphatic duct drain

A

Right side of the head, neck, and thorax

Right upper limb

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14
Q

Transition zones of the spine and transverse restrictors

A

OA, C1, C2 (tentorium cerebelli)

C7, T1 (thoracic inlet)

T12, L1 (thoracolumbar diaphragm)

L5, Sacrum (pelvic diaphragm)

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15
Q

Principles of lymphatic treatment (4)

A
  1. Open pathways to remove restriction to flow (transverse myofascial restrictors, regional lymphatic drainage)
  2. Maximize diaphragmatic functions (abdominal and pelvic diaphragms)
  3. Increase pressure differentials or transmit motion (fluid pumps)
  4. Mobilize targeted tissue fluids (localized to specific SDs)
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16
Q

The thoracic inlet is always opened first. What would your next treatment area be for an HEENT problem?

A

Suboccipitals

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17
Q

The thoracic inlet is always opened first. What would your next treatment area be for a problem below the diaphragm?

A

Abdominal diaphragm

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18
Q

The thoracic inlet is always opened first. What would your next 2 treatment areas be for a lower extremity problem?

A

Abdominal diaphragm

Pelvic diaphragm

19
Q

Which of the following types of contraction is contraction of a muscle with approximation of origin and insertion?

A. Isometric contraction
B. Concentric isotonic contraction
C. Eccentric isotonic contraction
D. Isolytic contraction

A

B. Concentric isotonic contraction

20
Q

Which of the following types of contraction is considered non-physiologic?

A. Isometric contraction
B. Concentric isotonic contraction
C. Eccentric isotonic contraction
D. Isolytic contraction

A

D. Isolytic contraction

21
Q

Which of the following types of contraction is contraction of a muscle with no change in distance between the origin and insertion?

A. Isometric contraction
B. Concentric isotonic contraction
C. Eccentric isotonic contraction
D. Isolytic contraction

A

A. Isometric contraction

22
Q

Which of the following types of contraction is attempted concentric contraction with an external force causing separation of origin and insertion?

A. Isometric contraction
B. Concentric isotonic contraction
C. Eccentric isotonic contraction
D. Isolytic contraction

A

D. Isolytic contraction

23
Q

Which of the following types of contraction is contraction of a muscle with separation of origin and insertion?

A. Isometric contraction
B. Concentric isotonic contraction
C. Eccentric isotonic contraction
D. Isolytic contraction

A

C. Eccentric contraction

24
Q

What are 2 other names for articulatory technique?

A

Springing technique

Low velocity/high amplitude

25
Q

Steps for BLT

A
  1. Move toward position of ease (shifted neutral)
  2. Activating force: breath hold in position of ease
  3. Hold until air hunger
  4. Return to neutral
  5. Reassess
26
Q

Steps for FPR

A
  1. Neutralize sagittal plane
  2. Apply compression
  3. Place in position of ease
  4. Hold 3-5 seconds
  5. Return to normal
  6. Reassess
27
Q

Steps for Still Technique

A
  1. Place in position of ease
  2. Add compression
  3. Move through RB to AB
  4. Remove compression
  5. Return to neutral
  6. Reassess
28
Q

Which cervical vertebrae are typical vs. atypical?

A

Typical = 3-6

Atypical = atlas (c1), axis (c2), and C7

29
Q

Why is C7 considered atypical

A

Vertebra prominens = non-bifid, with small or absent foramen transversarium

30
Q

The atlas is bounded anteriorly on the dens by the ______ ______ and posteriorly by the __________ ________ ligament

A

Anterior arch

Transverse atlantal ligament

31
Q

When looking at imaging for the C spine and examining the different lines in the lateral view, which type of fractures are we concerned about because they are unstable?

A

Lamina fractures

32
Q

Major vs. minor motions at OA

A

Major = flexion, extension

Minor = sidebending, rotation

33
Q

Why do rotation and sidebending tend to occur in the same direction for C2-7?

A

Theoretically d/t uncinate processes

34
Q

MET Lumbar Type 1 (neutral) SD, Lateral recumbent, long lever technique

A

NUDR

Neutral dysfunction, ptp Up, patient force Down, Recumbent

35
Q

MET Lumbar Type 2 Flexed SD, Lateral recumbent, long lever technique

A

FDDR

Flexed dysfunction, ptp Down, pt force Down, lateral Recumbent

36
Q

MET Lumbar Type 2 Extended SD, Lateral Recumbent, long lever technique

A

SUUE

Modified Sims, ptp Up, pt force Up, Extension dysfunction

37
Q

T/F: in the lumbar spine, spinous processes are in the same plane as the transverse processes

38
Q

The most superior portion of the iliac crests corresponds with the spinous process of what vertebrae?

39
Q

Which nerve root corresponds to patellar reflex

40
Q

An L4 nerve root would be affected by disc herniation at which of the following?

A. L2-L3
B. L3-L4
C. L4-L5
D. L5-L6

41
Q

Which nerve root corresponds to the achilles reflex

42
Q

Which nerve roots correspond to the following:

Ankle dorsiflexion

Great toe dorsiflexion

Ankle plantarflexion

A

Ankle dorsiflexion = L4/5

Great toe dorsiflexion = L5

Ankle plantarflexion = S1

43
Q

Positive vs negative hip drop tests

A

Negative (normal) = hip on unsupported side drops 15 degrees

Positive = hip on unsupported side does NOT drop 15 degrees, indicating pathology on unsupported side

[ex: right iliac crest drops 10 degrees = positive R hip drop test –> problem with lumbar left sidebending]

44
Q

The straight leg raise test is used to test for sciatic nerve irritation by stretching the dura. How is the test performed and what are the possible results?

A

Patient supine. Physician extends knee, medially rotates and adducts pt’s hip, then flexes hip while maintaining knee extension.

Positive test = pain in the BACK of the leg

If pain is felt at <30-35 degrees or in opposite leg, may indicate disc protrusion or rupture radiculopathy

Dura stretch starts at 30 degrees, pain above this may indicate nerve root irritation, but greater than 70 degrees may be mechanical LBP

OS Exam II (10 decks)

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