Federal Regulation of Medications - Dispensing Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What does the Durham-Humphrey Amendment do?

A

Legally establishes refills and oral prescriptions. Establishes criteria for distinguishing Rx vs. OTC drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Does the Durham-Humphrey Amendment include electronic prescriptions?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the legal concern with oral prescriptions from Durham-Humphrey?

A

Responsibility of the pharmacist to get the prescription correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does the Durham-Humphrey Amendment 2 do?

A

Specifies the MINIMUM information that a dispense prescription label must contain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the components that are the MINIMUM on every dispensed prescription label?

A
  1. Name/Address of DISPENSER
  2. Serial number and DATE of prescription filling
  3. Name of PRESCRIBER
  4. Name of PATIENT
  5. DIRECTIONS for use and cautionary statements
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where do number of refills and name of drug fall under for requirements on a label?

A

STATE laws that require ADDITIONAL information compared to Durham-Humphrey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where does the regulation fall under for expiration or beyond use dating on dispensed Rxs?

A

STATE laws, guided by USP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a consideration for prescription refill related to Durham-Humphrey?

A

Authorization of refill comes from TRANSMITTAL authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Who has prescriptive authority based on Durham-Humphrey?

A

Federal law leaves it up to the STATES to determine who may prescribe independently or through collaborative practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

As a pharmacist what you need to know about a prescriber?

A

A scope of their practice and if the medications they are prescribing makes sense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Does Durham-Humphrey dispensing standards apply to prescribers?

A

FDA believes NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the three ways in which the transition of Prescription Drugs switch to OTC?

A
  1. Supplemental NDA
  2. Other Party Manufacturer
  3. FDA adds or amends OTC drug monograph
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a Citizen Petition?

A

A product-specific switch from Rx to OTC done by another manufacturer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When the FDA adds/amend OTC drug monographs, what happens to the Rx to OTC?

A

It affects all products in the class

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the Nonprescription Under Conditions of Safe Use?

A

Refers to creating a class of drugs that can only be sold from the pharmacy department

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a Conscientious Objection?

A

Refers to whether a pharmacist has a right to refuse to dispense prescriptions when a moral or religious objection exists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Courts have held that a pharmacist CANNOT obstruct a patient’s legal right to receive medications but?

A

But the STATE regulations requires pharmacists to dispense violate first amendment rights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Is off-label prescribing and dispensing legal under the FDCA?

A

YES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What do courts require for off label use?

A

Evidence OF the standard the care, not the actual standard of care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Pharmacy compounding is allowed in what situations?

A

PATIENT SPECIFIC needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the FDA 1992 Compliance Policy Guide CPG?

A

Published over concern that some pharmacies were crossing the line from compounding to manufacturing and compounding improperly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the FDAMA 503A 1997?

A

Canceled the CPG
Defined compounding and delineated nine conditions that might cross the line from compounding to manufacturing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What was the big act of the FDAMA 503A 1997?

A

Stripped FDA of authority to consider compounded drugs as new drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the NINE Conditions of the FDAMA 503A 1997?

A
  1. Individual patient by prescription
  2. Limited quantities ‘pre-made’ in anticipation of Rx
  3. Cannot copy commercially available product
  4. Compounded in compliance with USP standards for compounding
  5. Compounded with bulk ingredients manufactured by entity registered with FDA
  6. All ingredients comply with USP Standards
  7. No drugs from DFA List of withdrawn/removed agents due to safety/efficacy concerns
  8. No FDA regulated products with difficulty compounding
  9. Not more than 5% of total sales unless a memorandum of understanding MOU between state and FDA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the FDA 2002 Compliance Policy Guide CPG?

A

FDA said the Nine Conditions were not valid due to the advertising law being unconstitutional, but reinstitute most of the requirements back in the 2002 CPG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What was the key change in the FDA 2002 CPG?

A

Re-established FDA position that pharmacy-compounded drugs are NEW drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the Compounding Quality Act of 2013?

A

Part of the Drug Quality and Security Act, reinstated 503A without the unconstitutional provisions, stripped FDA of new drug authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What was the big change of the Compounding Quality Act of 2013?

A

Added 503B, compounders of sterile products voluntarily register with FDA as OUTSOURCING facilities

29
Q

What is the CGMP Compliance that is REQUIRED?

A

All compounded products regulated under 503B, cannot have separate area functioning as a 503A Pharmacy

30
Q

When is Repackaging allowed based on FDACPG 2017?

A

Drug shortages, direct supervision of a pharmacist, patient specific dispensing

31
Q

What are Copies based on the FDA CPG 2018?

A

Cannot compound regular or inordinate amounts of commercially available products

32
Q

What is considered a copy?

A

Same active, route, form/strength (10%), and excipients

33
Q

What is the monthly limit for copies?

A

4 or fewer

34
Q

What are the exceptions to copies?

A

Patient specific modification, shortages, and discontinued products

35
Q

What is the concern with hospitals in FDA CPG 2016?

A

503A says there is no distinction between retail or hospital pharmacy

36
Q

What is the exception for hospitals for compounding without patient specific orders?

A
  1. Distribution to hospital entities within 1 mile
  2. Administer pursuant to prescription/order
  3. Product meets all 503/FDCA requirements
37
Q

What is an MOU?

A

Memorandum of Understanding

38
Q

What requires an MOU between states and FDA to allow a compounding pharmacy to distribute more than 5% of total prescriptions?

A

503A

39
Q

Are states required to in inspect and report distribution if what?

A

More than 30% of all compounded drugs by the entire state are crossing state lines, interstate

40
Q

What is Anticipatory Compounding?

A

(30 day supply) x (Highest valid Rx supply received in 30 days during past year) = max amount you can have

41
Q

When did USP 800 become effective?

A

12/01/2019

42
Q

What is USP 800 entail?

A

To protect healthcare worker environments and patients from exposure

43
Q

What are the entities handing hazardous drugs that must be maintained in USP 800?

A
  1. List of drugs
  2. Proper facility and engineering controls
  3. Competent personnel
  4. Safe work practices
  5. Proper use of PPE
  6. Policies for waste segregation and disposal
44
Q

Orange Book and Generic Substitution is what?

A

State law permitting pharmacists to substitute GENERICALLY in some manner, state laws DIFFER

45
Q

If substituting for a generic the label must what?

A

Accurately differentiate generic product from brand

46
Q

If you label a generic as a brand is that misbranding?

A

YES

47
Q

What is the role of the Orange Book?

A

Evaluates pharmaceutically equivalent products on the basis of bioequivalence

48
Q

What is Pharmaceutical Equivalence?

A

Products contain same active ingredients and are identical in strength and dosage form

49
Q

What type of rating system does the Orange Book use?

A

2 Letter aka A and B

50
Q

What does A mean in the rating system?

A

A: considered therapeutically equivalent to reference drug products

51
Q

What does B mean in the rating system?

A

B: NOT considered therapeutically equivalent for any number of reasons

52
Q

What does AA Mean?

A

Available in conventional dosage forms and no bioequivalence problems

53
Q

What does AB Mean?

A

Identifies by FDA as having actual or potential bioequivalence problems, but which have been resolved by adequate scientific evidence

54
Q

Beyond AA and AB, what does the second letter denote?

A

Dosage Form

55
Q

What does AN Mean?

A

Bioequivalent solutions/powders for aerosolization

56
Q

If the first letter of rating is B what does that mean?

A

Take a second look

57
Q

If there are multiple drugs that are not bioequivalent how is that rated?

A

3 letter, AB1, AB2, etc

58
Q

What is a Biosimilar Product?

A

Biosimilarity means products are highly similar to the reference product with no clinically meaningful differences in safety, purity, and potency

59
Q

What is the Purple Book?

A

FDA book noting biosimilars with B and interchangeable with I

60
Q

What does Interchangeable in the purple book mean?

A

I = products can be substituted for a prescribed product as long as the prescriber did not specify

61
Q

What does Biosimilar in the purple book mean?

A

B = not interchangeable, cannot be substituted

62
Q

What is the Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987?

A
  1. Requires state licensing of wholesalers
  2. Bans reimportation of Rx drugs except by manufacturer
  3. Bans sales, trade, or purchase of Rx drug samples
  4. Mandates requirements for Rx drug samples
  5. Prohibits resale of Rx drug purchased by hospitals or healthcare facilities
63
Q

What is the definition of a drug sample?

A

Unit of drug not intended to be sold and intended to promote the sale of the drug

64
Q

Can pharmacies receive drug samples?

A

ONLY if it is request by the prescriber and receipt must include specific details

65
Q

What is the Pedigree Requirement?

A

In 1999, the FDA wants to start a pedigree requirement to track irreparable harm to victims and violate equal protection clause

66
Q

When is the Pedigree Requirement suppose to take place?

A

DSCSA of 2012 requires system to be in place by 2023

67
Q

What is the Point Prevention Packaging Act PPPA?

A

Intent of act to protect children from accidental poisoning due to HOUSEHOLD substances

68
Q

What does the PPPA act refer to for pharmacy?

A

Child resistant containers