Federal Aviation Regulations

Question 1

May a pilot in the U.S. Military use a current U.S. Armed Forces medical examination to exercise the privileges of an FAA Commercial Pilot Certificate?

Answer 1

No, the medical examination may not be used to exercise the privileges of an FAA Commercial Pilot Certificate.

Question 2

A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting equipment is required for

Answer 2

Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas.

Question 3

What are the VFR cloud clearance and visibility requirements in the Class B airspace?

Answer 3

3 SM visibility and clear of clouds.

Question 4

Portable electronic devices which may cause interference with the navigation or communication system may not be operated on U.S.-registered civil aircraft being operated

Answer 4

under IFR.

Question 5

If an airplane category is listed as utility, it would mean that this airplane could be operated in which of the following maneuvers?

Answer 5

Limited acrobatics, including spins (if approved).

Question 6

Airplane A is overtaking airplane B. Which airplane has the right-of-way?

Answer 6

Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right. Each aircraft that is being overtaken has the right-of-way, and each pilot of an overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the right to pass well clear.

Question 7

When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is

Answer 7

200 knots.

Question 8

A pilot convicted of operating a motor vehicle while either intoxicated by, impaired by, or under the influence of alcohol or a drug is required to provide a…

Answer 8

written report to the FAA Security and Hazardous Materials Safety Office (AXE-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction.

Question 9

Which of the following are considered aircraft class ratings?

Answer 9

Single-engine land, multiengine land, single-engine sea, and multiengine sea.

Question 10

What flight time must be documented and recorded by a pilot exercising the privileges of a commercial certificate?

Answer 10

Flight time showing training and aeronautical experience to meet requirements for a certificate, rating, or flight review.

Question 11

Unless otherwise authorized, the pilot in command is required to hold a type rating when operating any

Answer 11

aircraft of more than 12,500 pounds maximum certificated takeoff weight.

Question 12

Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of any

Answer 12

local law enforcement officer.

Question 13

Prior to carrying passengers at night, the pilot in command must have accomplished the required takeoffs and landings in

Answer 13

the same category, class, and type of aircraft (if a type rating is required).

Question 14

To serve as second in command of an airplane that is certificated for more than one pilot crew-member, and operated under Part 91, a person must

Answer 14

within the last 12 months become familiar with the required information, and perform and log pilot time in the type of airplane for which privileges are requested.

Question 15

What flight time may a pilot log as second in command?

Answer 15

All flight time when qualified and occupying a crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot.

Question 16

A person with a Commercial Pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft for compensation or hire, if that person

Answer 16

is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR Part 61 and with the applicable parts that apply to the operation.

Question 17

Does a commercial pilot certificate have a specific expiration date?

Answer 17

No, it is issued without an expiration date.

Question 18

When is the pilot in command required to hold a category and class rating appropriate to the aircraft being flown?

Answer 18

On flights when carrying another person.

Question 19

A pilot convicted of operating an aircraft as a crewmember under the influence of alcohol, or using drugs that affect the person’s faculties, is grounds for a

Answer 19

denial of an application for an FAA certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR Part 61.

Question 20

To act as pilot in command of a tailwheel airplane, without prior experience, a pilot must…

Answer 20

receive and log flight training from an authorized instructor.

Question 21

To serve as pilot in command of an airplane that is certified for more than one pilot crewmember, and operated under Part 91, a person must…

Answer 21

complete a pilot-in-command proficiency check within the preceding 12 calendar months in an airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot.

Question 22

A person with a Commercial Pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft for compensation or hire, if that person…

Answer 22

is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR Part 61 and with the applicable parts that apply to the operation.

Question 23

To serve as pilot in command of an airplane that is certified for more than one pilot crewmember, and operated under Part 91, a person must

Answer 23

complete a pilot-in-command proficiency check within the preceding 12 calendar months in an airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot.

Question 24

When is the pilot in command required to hold a category and class rating appropriate to the aircraft being flown?

Answer 24

On flights when carrying another person.

Question 25

Unless otherwise authorized, the pilot in command is required to hold a type rating when operating any…

Answer 25

aircraft of more than 12,500 pounds maximum certificated takeoff weight.

Question 26

To act as pilot in command of an airplane that is equipped with retractable landing gear, flaps, and controllable pitch propeller, a person is required to

Answer 26

receive and log ground and flight training in such an airplane, and obtain a logbook endorsement certifying proficiency.

Question 27

To act as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider, a pilot must have accomplished, within the preceding 24 months, at least

Answer 27

three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified tow pilot.

Question 28

A person with a Commercial Pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft for compensation or hire, if that person…

Answer 28

is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR Part 61 and with the applicable parts that apply to the operation.

Question 29

To serve as second in command of an airplane that is certificated for more than one pilot crew-member, and operated under Part 91, a person must…

Answer 29

within the last 12 months become familiar with the required information, and perform and log pilot time in the type of airplane for which privileges are requested.

Question 30

To act as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider, the tow pilot is required to have

Answer 30

a logbook endorsement from an authorized glider instructor certifying receipt of ground and flight training in gliders, and be proficient with techniques and procedures for safe towing of gliders.

Question 31

14 CFR Part 1 defines VNO as

Answer 31

maximum structural cruising speed.

Question 32

What is the primary purpose of a minimum equipment list (MEL) ?

Answer 32

list the equipment that can be inoperative and still not affect the airworthiness of an aircraft.

Question 33

A pilot in command (PIC) of a civil aircraft may not allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight

Answer 33

if it creates a hazard to persons and property.

Question 34

Required flight crewmembers’ seatbelts must be fastened

Answer 34

while the crewmembers are at their stations.

Question 35

Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which an aircraft may be flown in a satellite airport traffic pattern located within Class B airspace?

Answer 35

250 knots.

Question 36

Under what condition could an aircraft’s engine logbook show no previous operating history?

Answer 36

When the aircraft’s engine has been rebuilt by the manufacturer.

Question 37

The maximum indicated airspeed permitted when operating an aircraft within 4 NM of the primary airport in Class D airspace is

Answer 37

200 knots.

Question 38

What action must be taken when a pilot in command deviates from any rule in 14 CFR Part 91?

Answer 38

Upon the request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.

Question 39

When flying beneath the lateral limits of Class B airspace, the maximum indicated airspeed authorized is

Answer 39

200 knots.

Question 40

You are planning a trip and one of your passengers states that he prefers not to use his shoulder harness because it is uncomfortable. You should

Answer 40

explain that it is a mandatory requirement and that he must use the shoulder harness during takeoff and landing.

Question 41

When must an operational check on the aircraft VOR equipment be accomplished to operate under IFR? Within the preceding

Answer 41

30 days.

Question 42

A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine airplane approaching from the left. Which pilot should give way?

Answer 42

The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single-engine airplane is to its right. (i.e. Each pilot should alter course to the right if the airplanes are approaching each other head-on, not converging.)

Question 43

During a night operation, the pilot of aircraft #1 sees only the green light of aircraft #2. If the aircraft are converging, which pilot has the right-of-way? The pilot of aircraft

Answer 43

1; aircraft #1 is to the right of aircraft #2.

Question 44

What is Vs

Answer 44

stalling speed (no configuration specified) or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable

Question 45

Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must

Answer 45

be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, weather reports, fuel requirements, and alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed.

Question 46

How many days after an accident is a report required to be filed with the nearest NTSB field office?

Answer 46

10.

Question 47

Your transponder is inoperative. In order to enter Class B airspace, you must submit a request for a deviation from the

Answer 47

controlling ATC facility at least 1 hr. before the proposed flight.

Question 48

Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be found?

Answer 48

In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.

Question 49

A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting equipment is required for

Answer 49

Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas.

Question 50

A pilot performing a published instrument approach is not authorized to perform a procedure turn when

Answer 50

receiving a radar vector to a final approach course or fix.

Question 51

An ATC transponder is not to be used unless it has been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within the preceding

Answer 51

24 calendar months.

Question 52

Aircraft maintenance records must include the current status of the

Answer 52

life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.

Question 53

Portable electronic devices which may cause interference with the navigation or communication system may not be operated on a U.S.-registered civil aircraft being flown

Answer 53

in air carrier operations.

Question 54

Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration?

Answer 54

VS1. VS1 means the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed obtained in a specified configuration. This configuration is generally specified as gear and flaps retracted.

Question 55

An airplane is converging with a helicopter. Which aircraft has the right-of-way?

Answer 55

The aircraft on the right. Airplanes and helicopters are equally maneuverable and have equal rights-of-way.

Question 56

Which action is appropriate if an aircraft, operating under 14 CFR Part 91 and for which a master minimum equipment list has not been developed, is determined to have an inoperative instrument or piece of equipment that does not constitute a hazard to the aircraft? The item should be

Answer 56

deactivated and placarded “inoperative” but repairs can be deferred indefinitely.

Question 57

The pilot in command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled airspace, not in radar contact, shall report by radio as soon as possible when

Answer 57

passing each designated reporting point, to include time and altitude.

Question 58

When weather information indicates that abnormally high barometric pressure exists, or will be above ___ inches of mercury, flight operations will not be authorized contrary to the requirements published in NOTAMs.

Answer 58

31.00 When weather information indicates that barometric pressure on the route of flight exceeds 31.00 in. of mercury, no person may operate an aircraft or initiate a flight contrary to the requirements published in NOTAMs.

Question 59

What documentation is required when a pilot has performed preventive maintenance on an aircraft?

Answer 59

The pilot is to make an entry in the aircraft’s maintenance records.

Question 60

Operating regulations for U.S.-registered civil airplanes require that during movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings, a seat belt and shoulder harness (if installed) must be properly secured about each

Answer 60

person on board.

Question 61

Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights?

Answer 61

An electric landing light, if the flight is for hire.

Question 62

If not equipped with required position lights, an aircraft must terminate flight

Answer 62

at sunset.

Question 63

On a post flight inspection of your aircraft after an aborted takeoff due to an elevator malfunction, you find that the elevator control cable has broken. According to NTSB 830, you

Answer 63

must immediately notify the nearest NTSB office.

Question 64

Approved flotation gear, readily available to each occupant, is required on each airplane if it is being flown for hire over water,

Answer 64

beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.

Question 65

When is preflight action required, relative to alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed?

Answer 65

Any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.

Question 66

If an aircraft is not equipped with an electrical or anticollision light system, no person may operate that aircraft

Answer 66

after sunset to sunrise.

Question 67

Each required flight crewmember is required to keep his or her shoulder harness fastened

Answer 67

during takeoff and landing, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties.

Question 68

For an airport with an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must be at or above the following weather minimums.

Answer 68

Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 SM for nonprecision.

Question 69

The carriage of passengers for hire by a commercial pilot is not authorized in which type of airplane ?

Answer 69

not authorized in limited category aircraft.

Question 70

14 CFR Part 1 defines VF as

Answer 70

design flap speed

Question 71

An airplane is overtaking a helicopter. Which aircraft has the right-of-way?

Answer 71

Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right. Each aircraft that is being overtaken (the helicopter) has the right-of-way, and each pilot of an overtaking aircraft (the airplane) shall alter course to the right to pass well clear.

Question 72

Which is true concerning required 100 hr maintenance inspections?

Answer 72

An annual inspection may be substituted for a 100-hour inspection.

Question 73

VFR cruising altitudes are required to be maintained when flying

Answer 73

more than 3,000 feet AGL; based on magnetic course.

Question 74

The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight increases to 5 statute miles beginning at an altitude of

Answer 74

10,000 feet MSL if above 1,200 feet AGL.

Question 75

For an airport without an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must have at least a

Answer 75

ceiling and visibility that allows for a descent, approach, and landing under basic VFR.

Question 76

Which is true with respect to operating limitations of a “primary” category airplane?

Answer 76

No person may operate a “primary” category airplane carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire.

Question 77

The maximum cumulative time that an emergency locator transmitter may be operated before the rechargeable battery must be recharged is

Answer 77

60 minutes.

Question 78

If clouds form as a result of very stable, moist air being forced to ascend a mountain slope, the clouds will be

Answer 78

stratus type with little vertical development and little or no turbulence.

Question 79

Which is true regarding the development of convective circulation?

Answer 79

Cool air must sink to force the warm air upward.

Question 80

What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the temperature at 2,000 feet MSL is 10°C and the dew point is 1°C?

Answer 80

6,000 feet MSL.

Question 81

Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights?

Answer 81

An electric landing light, if the flight is for hire.

Question 82

Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are

Answer 82

not authorized, except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.

Question 83

Each required flight crewmember is required to keep his or her shoulder harness fastened

Answer 83

during takeoff and landing, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties.

Question 84

Which is required to operate an aircraft towing an advertising banner?

Answer 84

A certificate of waiver issued by the Administrator of FAA.

Question 85

What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a “serious injury”?

Answer 85

48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury.

Question 86

How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?

Answer 86

As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.

Question 87

Which data must be recorded in the aircraft logbook or other record by a pilot making a VOR operational check for IFR operations?

Answer 87

Date of check, place of operational check, bearing error, and signature. (VOR name Not Required)

Question 88

No person may operate a large civil aircraft of U.S.-registry which is subject to a lease, unless the lessee has mailed a copy of the lease to the FAA Aircraft Registration Branch, Oklahoma City, OK, within how many hours of its execution?

Answer 88

24

Question 89

Pilots who change their permanent mailing address and fail to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of this change, are entitled to exercise the privileges of their pilot certificate for a period of

Answer 89

30 days

Question 90

Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration?

Answer 90

VS1.

Question 91

Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is

Answer 91

200 knots.

Question 92

When is the pilot in command required to hold a category and class rating appropriate to the aircraft being flown?

Answer 92

On flights when carrying another person.

Question 93

As a commercial pilot, you decide to start a small business flying non-stop tours to look at Christmas lights during the holiday season. What authorizations, if any, are required to conduct Christmas light tours?

Answer 93

You must apply for and receive a Letter of Authorization from a Flight Standards office.

Question 94

How many days after an accident is a report required to be filed with the nearest NTSB field office?

Answer 94

10 days

Question 95

Pilots are not authorized to land an aircraft from an instrument approach unless the

Answer 95

flight visibility is at, or exceeds, the visibility prescribed in the approach procedure being used.

Question 96

The carriage of passengers for hire by a commercial pilot is

Answer 96

not authorized in limited category aircraft.

Question 97

14 CFR Part 1 defines VLE as

Answer 97

maximum landing gear extended speed.

Question 98

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is

Answer 98

2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.

Question 99

Notification to the NTSB is required when there has been substantial damage

Answer 99

which adversely affects structural strength or flight characteristics.

Question 100

Aircraft maintenance records must include the current status of the

Answer 100

life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.

Question 101

The maximum cumulative time that an emergency locator transmitter may be operated before the rechargeable battery must be recharged is

Answer 101

60 minutes.

Question 102

A new maintenance record being used for an aircraft engine rebuilt by the manufacturer must include previous

Answer 102

changes as required by Airworthiness Directives.

Question 103

No person may operate a large civil aircraft of U.S.-registry which is subject to a lease, unless the lessee has mailed a copy of the lease to the FAA Aircraft Registration Branch, Oklahoma City, OK, within how many hours of its execution?

Answer 103

24