Fecal and Urinary Elimination / Transferes/ Feeding Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the process of urination

A

urine collects until pressure stimulates special sensory nerves called stretch receptors. This transmits an impulse to the control center which in turn instructs the sphincter muscles to relax causing the urge to void. If the time or place is not appropriate, mictriration occurs which will remove the urge until the stretch increases.

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2
Q

Name some factors that influence urination and give and example of each

A

Developmental - lack of urinary control
Older age - kidney function has minimal decrease unless affected by disease which creates high risk for toxicity/ increase in bladder urinary urge/ nocturia - awakening at night with the urge
Psychosocial - privacy, position, sufficient times, site/sound of running wateer
fluid/foods - will influence frequency and colour
meds - diuretics
muscle tone/ activity level = important

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3
Q
  1. What characteristics of urine would a nurse assess? What can you tell about hydration from these characteristics?
A

• The quantity or urine produced within 24 hours (normal 1200ml – 1500ml).
o It is considered normal if the output is generally similar to fluid intake.
o If the output is less than 30ml/h this may indicate decreased blood flow to the kidneys and should be reported immediately.
o An increase of urine production may indicate an excessive fluid intake, a possible hormonal imbalance such as inadequate antidiuretic hormones, or an inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine.
• The colour and/or clarity of the urine (normal is straw, amber, transparent).
o If it is dark amber it is concentrated
o Cloudy urine can be caused by white blood cells, bacteria, pus, or contaminants (including prostatic fluid, sperm, vaginal drainage)
o Some foods/drugs can cause a change in colour
o Pink, bright red or rusty brown colours can be red blood cells in the urine or a hematuria.
o Menstrual blood can also discolour urine but should not be confused with a hematuria.
• The odour will assist will determining infection or glucose levels; a fetid odour is possible infection whereas a sweet odour reflects a high glucose level. Urine normally has a faint aromatic scent.
• Sterility is used to determine bacterial contamination. Urine in the bladder is sterile.
• PH levels in urine are normally 4.5-8.
o If the urine is less than 4.5 it is a possible indicator of alkalosis, urinary tract infection or a diet high in fruits and vegetables
o Urine with a PH of more than 8 is an indicator of starvation, acidosis, diarrhea or a diet high in protein foods or cranberries.
• Specific gravity is used to determine the concentration of urine. Normal is 1.010 to 1.024
o Less than 1.010 is diluted
o More than 1.024 is concentrated
• Glucose in urine indicated high blood glucose and may represent poorly controlled or undiagnosed diabetes.
• Ketone bodies are not normally found in urine. Their presence could indicate uncontrolled or undiagnosed diabetes, starvation, or an ingestion of excess acetylsalicylic acid.
• Blood should not be present in urine. Clients who have blood in the urine may have a UTI, kidney disease, or bleeding from the urinary tract

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4
Q
  1. Give a short description of 5 common bowel elimination problems
A

“constipation may be defined as fewer than three bowel movements per week and the passage of small, dry, hard stool that is difficult to eliminate.” (Kozier, 2014 p.1272)
“fecal impaction is a mass or collection of hardened feces in the folds of the rectum. Impaction occurs from prolonged retention and accumulation of fecal material. In sever impactions, the feces accumulate and extend well up into the sigmoid colon and beyond.” (Kozier, 2014 p 1273)
“diarrhea refers to the passage of three or more loose (mushy) or watery feces per day or more frequently than is usual for the person.” (Kozier, 2014 p.1274)
“bowel incontinence, also called fecal incontinence, refers to the loss of voluntary ability to control fecal and gaseous discharges through the anal sphincter.” (Kozier, 2014 p. 1275)
“flatulence is the presence of excessive flatus in the intestines and leads to stretching and inflation of the intestines.” (Kozier, 2014 p. 1275)

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5
Q
  1. Give 5 examples of special diets and explain the need for these diets
A
  • [NPO] nothing by mouth: food and fluid are prohibited. This diet may be used prior to anesthesia to prevent aspiration of stomach contents. This should be used infrequently to minimize nutritional and dehydration risks. Alternate methods of feeding/hydration include parenteral feeding.
  • A clear fluid diet: the client is limited to water, tea, coffee, clear broths, ginger ale or other carbonated beverages, strained and clear juices and plain gelatin. It provides carbohydrates but no nutrition and is a short term diet option for someone with certain types of surgery, or infections of the gastrointestinal tract.
  • Full Fluid Diet: contains only liquids or foods that have been turned to liquid at body temperature. They are eaten by patients with gastrointestinal disturbances or those who cannot tolerate solids/semisolid foods.
  • Soft Fluid Diet: is easily chewed and digested. It is often ordered for clients who have difficulties chewing and/or swallowing. It is a low-fibre diet containing few uncooked foods. Variations include the pureed diet where water is added and the food is blended to a semisolid state.
  • [DAT] Diet as Tolerated: This is ordered when the patients appetite, ability and tolerance for certain foods is fluid or changing. This may be given postoperative where day one the client may tolerate a liquid diet only and progress over time to a solid food diet.
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6
Q

Before moving any client what does the nurse assess?

A

Before moving any client the nurse should assess:
• Documentation/outcomes of previous transferes
• Space for transfer
• Number of assistants needed
• Body size
• Ability to follow direction
• Tolerance/muscle strength/joint mobility
• Level of comfort
• Presence of orthostatic hypertension
• Equipment required, if any

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7
Q

What determines the number of people needed for a transfer?

A

The number of people required for a transfer is determined by the physiotherapist. A nurse can increase but never decrease the number of prescribed persons required.

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8
Q

What does the nurse assess when a client needs some assistance with walking?

A
When a client needs assistance walking the nurse must assess:
•	Orientation or mental state
•	Amount of assistance required 
o	Activity tolerance
o	Strength
o	Coordination & balance
•	Safety of environment
•	Signs of orthostatic hypertension
•	Need for additional devices
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9
Q

Name 3 assistive devices that clients can use for ambulation and explain each one. Give some examples of when and where these devices would be used.

A

• Canes: three types available…
i. Standard or straight leg cane
ii. Tripod or crab cane
iii. Quad cane with four feet
• Walkers:
i. standard walker: The patient must be able to pick It up to use it. Therefore requires partial strength in both hands and wrists; strong elbow extensors and strong shoulder depressors. The patient must also be able to bear partial weight on both legs.
ii. Four-wheeled and two-wheeled (roller walkers do not need to be picked up but are less stable and used by patients too weak or unstable to pick up and move the walker with each step.
• Crutches: are either temporary or permanent
the client’s weight is born by the muscles of the shoulder girdle and upper extremities. Exercises to strengthen the upper arms and hands are recommended.
i. Axillary crutch (underarms with hand bars)
ii. Forearm crutch (crutch extends only to forearms) – usually used for patients with weak extensor muscles of the arms

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10
Q

List the different types of urine specimens and how they are different from each other.

A

Clean voided - client able to do self-void in a cup
clean catch or midstream - used to determine UTI
timed - some exams require collection over a specified time frame
Indwelling catheter - used from a closed drainage system

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11
Q

Identify each urine test and describe what each means in relation to care

A

specific gravity - indicates concentration or amount of waste present (dehydration/excessive glucose)
Urinary PH - tests acidity or base - are kidney
responding correctly to imbalances
Glucose - glucose in urine - uncontrolled diabetes
Ketones - by-product of the breakdown of fatty acids - poorly controlled diabetes
Protein - are normally too large to pass the glomerular mebrane - indicates possible damage
Occult blood - when blood is not visible it is occult
Metabolic substances - evaluates renal function

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12
Q

factors affecting bowel elimination

A

privacy - important for most people
timing - encourage when urge is recognized
nutrition and fluids - type, consistency
exercise - regular exercise to promote regular
positioning - sitting, leaning forward

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13
Q

Constipation

A

constipation - movement of fecal matter through large intestine is slow = extra water absorbed leading to hard dry stools
Presentation fewer than 3 movements/week; hard dry lumpy stool; straining or pain during defecation; sensation of incomplete bowel evacuation; abdominal pain, cramps, distension; anorexia, nausea; passage of stool large enough to block toilet

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14
Q

Fecal Impaction

A

fecal impaction - mass or collection of hardened feces in the folds of the rectum caused by prolonged retention.
presentation; diarrhea or anal seepage; anorexia, nausea

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15
Q

Diarrhea

A

presentation: 3+ loose or watery stools/day or more frequently than normal; abdominal cramps; nausea
causes - medications, allergies, osmotic salts, disease

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16
Q

Bowel Incontenence

A

Loss of voluntary control of fecal/gaseous
presentation: partial - can’t control flatus or prevent minor soiling
major - control feces of normal consistences
possible crohn’s

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17
Q

Flatulence

A

excess gas leading to the stretching and inflation of intestines

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18
Q

Colostomy or ileostomy

A

artificial opening of the intestinal or urinary tract to bypass a blockage

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19
Q

what psychological implications might a person with either a colostomy or ileostomy face?

A

impaired body images, decreased sexual functions, dyadic adjustments (relationship)

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20
Q

What is the proper position for putting someone on a bed pan? How do you provide privacy?

A

cover w/ a bed linen to help maintain comfort and dignity
roll on side, place regular bedpan so that buttock rests on smooth round rim
roll onto back
place the bed in a semi-fowler position if permittable
cover with bed linen for privacy
do not leave on the bedpan for more than 15 minutes

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21
Q

When someone is incontinent why is it so important to cleanse the skin thoroughly?

A

to prevent perennial skin irritation and breakdown.

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22
Q

Clients should be taught that repeatedly ignoring the sensation of needing to defecate can result in which of the following?

a. Constipation
b. Diarrhea
c. Incontinence
d. Hemorrhoids

A

a. Constipation

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23
Q

Mr. Dejardin, a 45 year old woman who is clinically obese, presents to the emerg with complaints of right-sided back pain. In removing her bedpan you note white, pasty stool. What would be the MOST appropriate action?

a. Encouraging her to increase her fluid intake
b. Encouraging her to increase her fibre intake
c. Documenting findings and notifying the appropriate member ojf the HCT.
d. Obtaining a thorough dietary history for the past 72 hours

A

c - document and advise appropriate HCT member. due to obesity she is at risk for gallbladder disease. the white pasty stools suggest a bile duct obstruction. The right side pain is consistent with this.

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24
Q

John O’Reilly has been ordered a barium swallow before a loser GI computed Tomography (CT Scan). What action should the nurse take after the procedure?

a. Maintaining John’s NPO status until the barium is expelled
b. Assessing his abdomen for distension
c. Encouraging fluids and ambulation
d. Using special precautions with his bodily waste

A

c. fluids and ambulation to promote a bowel movement and the elimination of the barium

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25
Q

In assessing a new colostomy, the nurse notes that the stoma is pale and grey. Which is the most appropriate action?

a. REmoving the appliance and examining the skin beneath the adhesive
b. notify the surgeon
c. document and continue monitoring
d. Irrigating the colostomy

A

b. notify the surgeon. the colour suggests a decrease in circulation to the area. The reason for this must be determined immediately

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26
Q

John is 65 years old with chronic alcoholism. He is admitted with a peptic ulcer. on emptying his bedpan the nurse notes black and tarry stool. What is the MOST probable explanation?

a. side effect of iron supplements
b. experiencing upper GI bleed
c. side effect of taking ASA
d. ingestion of beets

A

b Upper GI bleed as a result of his peptic ulcer. the colour is the effect of digestive enzymes in the blood.

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27
Q

a young client with neutropenia (low number of neutrophils in the blood) was recently discharged. She calls complaining of foul-smelling diarrhea occurring 5-6 times/day. What instructions should she receive?

a. Increase fluid intake to 8 glasses/day to prevent dehydration
b. take an over-the-counter antidiarrheal med such as imodium
c. Eat a bland diet until the frequency decreases
d. Obtain a stool sample and make an appointment with her family physician

A

d obtain a stool sample. infections with neutopenia patients can be life threatening. the cause must be determined immediately

28
Q

Jane is going to the operating room for bowel surgery. She has been prescribed an enema the evening before the procedure. What would the nurse do before administering the enema?

a. Place the client in the left lateral position with the solution container at 25 cm above the rectum and re-position to the right lateral after 10 minutes
b. place the client in the right lateral position with the solution container 25 cm above the rectum and re-position to the dorsal recumbent position
c. Place the client in the left lateral position with the solution container 45 cm above the rectum and preposition to the right lateral after 15 minutes
d. place the client in the left lateral position with the solution container 45 cm above the rectum and preposition to the dorsal recumbent and right lateral positions.

A

d.This procedure requires a high-cleansing enema so 45 cm is the proper height. The positioning allows for the enema to follow the path of the large intestine.

29
Q

Ann is a 50 year old client admitted fromt he OR following an ileostomy. When the nurse assesses Ann’s ostomy, she notes that the adhesive backing has buckled. What is the nurses immediate concern.

a. skin breakdown
b. Infection
c. swelling
d. discomfort

A

a. skin breakdown.= effluent is high in digestive enzymes and can cause skin breakdown.

30
Q

a patient is prescribed morphine for pain associated with bladder cancer. What health teaching must be reinforced on discharge?

a. Morphine is addictive and should only be used when absolutely necessary
b. fluid and fibre intake should be increased when taking morphine
c. fluid and fibre intake should be decreased when taking morphine
d. Activity level should be reduced because of the sedation properties of morphine

A

b. fluid and fibre intake should be increased as morphine can cause constipation. implement preventative measures.

31
Q

Mr. Smith returns from the operating room with a three-way indwelling catheter following a prostatectomy. He suddenly complains of severe lower abdominal pain. What is the nurse’s BEST first action?

a. assess the client for surgical pain and administer the prescribed analgesic
b. assess the patency of the catheter drainage system
c. palpate mr. smiths bladder in the suprapubic region
d. notify the surgeon of the client’s pain.

A

b. assess the patency of the catheter drainage system. It is likely a blood clot has occluded the catheter.

32
Q

Following the irrigation of an indwelling catheter, it is critical for the nurse to do which of the following?

a. ensure the drainage tubing is not kinked
b. document findings on the chart
c. send a urine specimen
d. determine urine output

A

d. determine urine output to ensure that irrigation fluid is not being retained. input minus output = retention

33
Q

Mrs. Chiu, 80 yr old, is admitted to the hospital w. urinary retention. After inserting an indwelling catheter, the nurse notes a pungent odour and heavily sedimented urine with specks of blood. What is the nurses’s MOST appropriate action?

a. Obtain a specimen for culture and sensitivity and send to the lab
b. Notify the appropriate member of the HCT
c. Teach Mrs. Chiu the importance of adequate fluid intake
d. Document the results and monitor vital signs

A

a. Otain a specimen for culture and sensitivity. Highly suspect a UTI as the cause. isolate the organism responsible by doing a culture.

34
Q

Dupree is dischared to his son’s home after a cerebrovascular accident. He is incontinent of urine and feces and requires assistance with mobilization. His son is a busy exec and has hired a PSW to stay with his father during the day. What is an appropriate nursing diagnosis that may negatively affect the son’s ability to care for his father?

a. deficient knowledge related to incontinence
b. social isolation related to his father’s incontinence
c. risk for infection
d. risk for caregiver role strain

A

d. dupree has many care needs that are difficult for family members to deal with. Son will need in depth health teaching. The results of the strain can see the client being placed in an institution with the caregiver suffering personal health consequences. No mention of help during the night.

35
Q

Dhara was admitted to the ward following an all-terrain vehicle accident 2 weeeks ago in which he suffered a moderate brain injury. Which of the following methods would be MOST appropriate for maintaining Sunjay’s continence

a. bladder training
b. prompted voiding
c. Habit training
d. Pelvic floor muscle exercises

A

b. prompted voiding. the head injury may cause dhara to forget to attend to his toileting needs and require reminders.

36
Q

Brown is 65 years old, underwent abdominal surgery 5 days ago. He is eating and drinking well so his IV has been discontinued and his IV analgesic switched to oral morphine. His indwelling catheter was discontinued 24 hrs ago. Brown has been incontinent of large amounts of urine since the beginning of the shift. The MOST appropriate action would be which of the following?

a. REquest a prescription to replace the indwelling catheter so as to prevent skin breakdown
b. apply an incontinence brief and provide frequent pericare
c. Palpate his bladder in the suprapubic region
d. request a prescription for insertion of a straight urinary catheter

A

c. Palpate his bladder. the recent surgery and use of morphine has most likely caused urinary retention with overflow. A distended bladder would strengthen the nursing diagnosis of urinary retention.

37
Q

Which of the following behaviours indicates that the client on a bladder training program has met the expected outcomes?

a. voids each time there is an urge
b. practices slow, deep breathing until the urge decreases
c. uses incontinence briefs, just in case
d. drinks citrus juices and carbonated beverages

A

b. it is important that a client inhibit the urge to void when a premature urge is experienced.

38
Q

Melanie, 32 years old, underwent surgery for an ileal conduit 4 days ago. She is currently refusing to participate in the care of her device. What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis?

a. deficient knowledge
b. Social isolation
c. Low self-esteem
d. Disturbed body image

A

d. the ileal conduit is new and disturbing to many clients. refusing to participate in one’s own care is often a symptom of disturbed body image

39
Q

June, 45 yrs old, has her left leg in traction. She complains of the inablility to void on the bedpan. What actions can the nurse take that may help the client to void?

a. closing the bedside curtain
b. running warm water over the bedpan before positioning it
c. running water in the sink
d. placing the bed in high-fowler’s posiiton

A

c. running water can stimulate the voiding reflex and providing privacy covering the sound.

40
Q

Elizabeth Newman underwent brain surgery for removal of a tumour 2 days ago. Her urine output for the last 8 hours is 1200 mL (intake 600 mL). What is the accurate description for her output?

a. Polyuria
b. Dysuria
c. Diuresis
d. Enuresis

A

a. Polyuria is the production of abnormally large amounts of urine by the kidneys. Her recent brain surgery may have caused her to develop diabetes insipidus.

41
Q

What are some of the measures a nurse can take to promote a pleasant meal environment for a client?

A

presentation, music, table looks nice, lighting, sit with them and chat.

42
Q

People need all of their senses to enjoy eating. What can the nurse do to make this possible?

A

A lot is psychological. suggest that the food smells good, encourage them, tell them it tastes good.

43
Q

What is the most important aspect of safety for feeding a client with dysphagia?

A

chocking hazzard

44
Q

Name several strategies for feeding a client with dysphagia

A
small bites
small utensils
make sure food is modified
sit upright
chin down
concentrate on eating
feed on the stronger side of the mouth
temperature
g-tubes if all else fails
45
Q

describe the clock method for people with low vision

A

pretend the plate is a clock.arrange the food on the plate, drinks, utensils correlating to times on the clock

46
Q

Give some examples of special diets and explain the need for these diets

A

NPO - nothing by mouth - usually before a proceedure
CLD - clear liquid diet - short term or after a proceedure
FFD - full fluid diet - can’t tolerate solids
Prescribed - low sodium, cholesterol etc
Regular - no specific requirements

47
Q

A 36 yr old male reports eating the following each day, on average: 2 servings of milk/alternates, 2 servings of fruit, 2 servings of veg, 3 servings of meat/alternatives, 8 servings of grain products. When following the recommendations of Eating Well with Canada’s food guide, the nurse would counsel the client to do which of the following?

a. maintain
b. increase the number of mild and alternative
c. increase the number of fruit/veg
d. decrease the number of grain

A

c. increase fruit/veg as he should be consumming between 7-10/day

48
Q

Which of the following are allowed on a full liquid diet?

a. chocolate pudding, tomato juice, hard candy, cream of wheat cereal, and fruit smoothies
b. Scrambled eggs, tomato juice, mashed potatoes, cream of wheat cereal and oatmeal
c. Scrambled eggs, tomato juice, mashed potatoes, cream of wheat, and oatmeal
d. Tomato juice, cream of wheat, oatmeal and fruit smoothies

A

a. only items that turn to liquid at body temperature are permitted. Oatmeal is solid.

49
Q

Which of the following is the BEST indication of proper placement of a nasogastric tube in the stomach?

a. the client is able to speak and is not coughing
b. A radiograph confirms placement in the stomach
c. the PH of the aspirate is less than 5
d. A whooshing noise is heard with a stethoscope when air is injected into the tube

A

b. the best way to determine proper placement is by radiography. In cases when radiography is not an option, then c and d can be used however are not fool proof

50
Q

What is the proper technique for gravity tube feeding?

a. hanging the feeding bage 30 cm higher than the insertion point
b. administering the next feeding only if there is less than 25 mL of residual volume from the previous feeding
c. placing the client in the left lateral position while the feeding is being admin
d. admining the feeding directly after removing it from the fridge to prevent spoilage

A

a. for proper flow the feeding container hangs 30 cm above insertion.

51
Q

a 55 yr old female is about 9 kg more than her desired weight. She has been on a low-calorie diet with no improvement. Which of the following statements reflects a healthy approach to the desired weight loss?

a. I need to engage in 150 minutes of aerobic physical activity a week
b. I need to switch to a low-carb, low-fat diet
c. I need to keep a list of my forbidden foods on hand and write down what I eat
d. I need to buy more organic foods and fewer processed foods

A

a. physical activity should be 150 minutes per week for adults in bouts of 10 minutes or more.

52
Q

A resident of a long-term care facility has mild dysphagia from a recent cerebrovasular accident. The nurse plans the client’s meals based on which of the following?

a. the need to have at least one serving of thickened mild and alternates per meal
b. the need to eliminate the beer occationally ingested on weekends
c. The results of a complete swallowing assessment
d. The need to increase calories from lipids to 40%

A

c. people with dysphagia are at risk for nutritional problems, in addition , aspiration of foods can also occur, The type of liquid food and the nature of solid food that the client can safely ingest is determined by and individualized swallowing assessment.

53
Q

Two months ago a client weighed 88.4 kg. The client now weighs 82.5 kg. Calculate the client’s percentage of weight loss and determine its significance.

a. 6.7%, not significant
b. 6.7% significant
c. 13.4% severe
d. 3.3% not significant

A

a. 6.7 - not significant

[(88.4-82.5)/88.4] x 100 = 6.7%
allowable loss within 1 month is 5% or not significant
if the loss continues at the rate it is going it will reach 10% at 3 months which is considered severe. A more detailed nutritional evaluation should be performed.

54
Q

a 52 yr old male has a waist circumference of 106 cm. He is 180 cm tall and weighs 98 kg. What is the individuals risk status with respect to the development of cardiovascular disease, type 2 diabetes, and hypertension given his BMI and waist circumference.?

a. no increased risk
b. high risk
c. very high
d. extremely high risk

A

c. very high

BMI (kg/m squared) of 30.2: (98/1.80 squared). This puts him in the Obesity class 1 category. coupled with a circumference of more than 102cm his is at very high risk.

55
Q

A 4 month old infant should consume which of the following each day?

a. breast milk only, or formula in certain circumstances
b. Breast milk at night an dcow’s milk in a bottle at daycare
c. Iron-fortified cereal four times/day with breast milk between meals if hungry
d. Iron fortified cereal makes up bulk of calories and breast milk if the mother feels like it.

A

a. Canadian Pediatric Society, the Dieticians of Canada and Health Canada recommend that breast milk be the only form of food for the first 6 months except in cases of HIV or medication. If the mum cant or does not want to the baby can be fed on iron-fortified formula until 9-12 mths of age.

56
Q

Hansen, 38 yr old, sent home with a gastric feeding tube. Her husband will be administering bolus feeding every 6 hours. What is the most important consideration the nurse should teach Mr. Hansen when administering gastric feedings?

a. Flushing the tube with water before and after feedings
b. ensuring that Mrs. Hanssan is supine with the head of her bed raised
c. Plasing Mrs. Hassan in a side-lying position
d. Administering Mrs. Hassan’s feedings rapidly

A

b. people receiving tube feedings should be seated with the head of the bed raised a minimum of 45 degrees to decrease the risk of aspiration

57
Q

Name various transfers that a nurse might use for a client.

A

1 person transfer
2 person transfer
mechanical transfer
slider board

58
Q

the main reason that proper mechanics are essential when transferring are

A

the safety of the nurse and patient

59
Q

What are the general guidelines that should be followed in any transfer procedure?

A

check policies an orders
review documentation of previous transfers
determine number of nurses/assistants required
check space for transfer
plan what to do and how to do it
obtain equipment prior to transfer
remove obstacles
explain transfer to client & those assisting
place equipment to allow client to move toward stronger side
support or hold client rather than equipment
explain what client should do at each step
document everything including tolerance

60
Q

Before moving a client what does the nurse assess?

A
body size
ability to follow direction
tolerance/muscle strength/joint mobility
level of comfort
patient with orthostatic hypertension
61
Q

when do you use a mechanical lift?

A

when the person can not weight bear

62
Q

When using a mechanical lift, name some of the important points to remember to keep the client as safe as possible

A

follow policies
never work alone
be familiar with each lift
make sure it is in proper working order and all components in good repair

63
Q

What does the nurse need to assess when a client needs some assistance with walking?

A
amount of assistance required
signs of orthostatic hypertension
orientation (mental state)
activity tolerence, strength, coordination & balance
policies,
additional devices
64
Q

If a client becomes dizzy and starts to faint what does the nurse do?

A

assume a wide base of support with one foot in front of the other
extend one leg
let the client slide down the extended leg and gently lower to the floor
protect head
take precautionary measures before ambulating client

65
Q

Some special precautions for assisting clients suffering hemiparesis to ambulate

A

stand or assist on the affected side
one arm around the waist
one arm in axilla
clients unaffected arm is free to assist

66
Q

before taking a client for a walk, the nurse checks the environment for safety. What should this include?

A

obstacle free

dry floor