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fd Flashcards

1
Q

Class B Uniform Shirt

A

Bravo Style Medium Blue Nomex IIIA

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2
Q

Class B Pants

A

(Traditional Pants) Navy Blue Nomex IIIA

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3
Q

Name Tag Location

A

One-half-inch above right breast pocket

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4
Q

Plymovent will shut down in automatic mode after__________

A

2 Min

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5
Q

Apparatus will not be run in the station for periods of time exceeding __________ or speeds exceeding _________

A

10 min / 1500 RPMs

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6
Q

Once you notify the DBC of repairs needed to the Air Compressor, what do they do?

A

contact the proper repair company and notify the Assistant Chief of the situation.

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7
Q

Who is responsible for making sure the air compressor is drained weekly, oil level checked monthly, and changed annually?

A

Station Captain

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8
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring the daily log book is properly recorded

A

Station Captain

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9
Q

Once you notify the DBC of repairs needed to the station generator, what do they do?

A

Notify the Assistant Chief of the situation. (They don’t contact a repair company in this case as opposed to the air compressor. Think less of an urgent health issue compared to plymovent)

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10
Q

Who will ensure that station generators operate properly.

A

Station Captain

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11
Q

Coal Twas Wealths accronym

A

Construction
Occupancy
Apparatus and Staffing
Life Hazard

Terrain
Water supply
Auxiliary Appliances
Street conditions

Weather
Exposure
Area
Location and Extent of Fire
Time
Height
Special Considerations

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12
Q

Petty Cash Amount

A

$20

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13
Q

Who shall be responsible for the accuracy of the PAB (Personnel accountability board)

A

Company Officer

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14
Q

What shall the DBC do when they assume command from the initial Incident Commander

A

A PAR shall take place

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15
Q

In addition to the fifteen (15) minute accounting of companies, Command shall immediately
account for all personnel when any of the following occurs:

A
  1. Building collapse (full or partial)
  2. Backdraft or explosion
  3. Order to evacuate a building
  4. Declaration of a personnel emergency or mayday
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16
Q

The team of personnel entering a Hazardous Atmosphere shall attempt to accomplish the following objectives:

A
  1. Determine the hazards that may affect response personnel, the public, and the environment.
  2. Obtain as much information about the problem as safely as possible and verify any existing information.
  3. Evaluate the need for prompt action to mitigate the incident.
  4. Collect information to determine the safety requirements for any personnel entering the area.
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17
Q

If the type of organic substance is known and the material is volatile or can become airborne….

A

air measurements for organic vapors should be made with appropriately calibrated survey meters.

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18
Q

When the presence or types of organic vapor/gases are unknown…

A

instruments such as photo-ionization detectors (PID) and flame ionization detectors (FID) should be used.

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19
Q

INORGANIC VAPORS AND GASES Hazmat Response

A

The number of direct reading instruments with the capability to detect and quantify non-specific vapors is extremely limited. Colormetric tubes are only practical if the substances present are known or can be narrowed down to a few

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20
Q

Normal background exposure-rate for gamma radiation is…

A

approximately 0.01 to 0.02 milliroentgon per hour (mR.hr) or 10 to 20 microroentgon per hour on sensitive gamma survey meters

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21
Q

At no time should work continue with a radiation exposure rate of…

A

1 mR/hr or above without the advice of a health physicist

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22
Q

Normal air contains about ____ oxygen by volume. At or below _______, supplied air
respirators are needed.

A

20.9%
19.5%

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23
Q

Oxygen deficient areas are also prime locations for taking additional ____________ measurements

A

organic vapor and combustible gas

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24
Q

Oxygen-enriched atmospheres at or above _____ increase the potential for fires

A

23.5%

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25
Q

CGIs do not give accurate readings…….

A

in air containing less than normal oxygen levels.

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26
Q

If readings approach or exceed 10% of the Lower Explosive Limit (LEL)….

A

extreme caution should be used while continuing the investigation.

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27
Q

If readings approach or exceed 25% of the LEL

A

Personnel should withdraw immediately!

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28
Q

If testing for an unknown hazardous atmosphere what level of protection shall be worn at a minimum?

A

Class B

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29
Q

Carbon monoxide IDLH (Air Monitoring for Hazardous Atmospheres)

A

1200 ppm

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30
Q

Use SCBA when CO levels are over what level

A

35 ppm

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31
Q

Use SCBA when Hydrogen Sulfide is over what level

A

10 ppm

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32
Q

The STEL for Hydrogen Sulfide is (H2S)

A

15 ppm

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33
Q

Whenever the Criteria for Use of SCBA has been fulfilled, what shall be performed?

A

Air monitoring

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34
Q

SCBA can be removed at what levels of the following?
CO/HCN/O2/VOC

A

CO < 35 ppm
HCN = Zero
O2 20.8 - 21%
VOC < 5ppm

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35
Q

To assist a distressed swimmer, all emergency vehicles will carry the following equipment:

A
  1. 1 Rescue buoy with 10 feet of rope and sling
  2. 75 feet of polypropylene rope
  3. 1 Bag of snorkel equipment
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36
Q

Various other fire equipment can be used to assist a distressed swimmer, such as:

A
  1. Pike poles
  2. Rescue ropes
  3. Ladders
  4. Exposure suit(s)
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37
Q

SIMPLE ASSISTs

A

Reaching
Extending
Wading
Throwing

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38
Q

At structures with separate Fire Department Connections (FDC) for sprinkler
and standpipe systems, the shall ______ be pumped first

A

standpipe

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39
Q

During sprinkler operations, pump the FDC according to the following unless the
system is posted with specific pressure restrictions:

A

The system shall be supplied at 165 psi
a. 150 psi for the system
b. 15 psi for the connection’s friction loss

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40
Q

When responding to a CO alarm what shall you do enroute?

A

Confirm FA has asked that the building be evacuated.

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41
Q

Do not allow individuals back into the building until such time as CO levels equal
ambient air background levels of

A

0-3 PPM

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42
Q

At a CO alarm, operate all potential sources of CO in the building for a period of…

A

10-15 minutes

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43
Q

CO Permissible Exposure limit

A

50 ppm

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44
Q

Time weighted average of CO (8 Hours)

A

35 ppm per hour ceiling limit

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45
Q

Vapor density of CO

A

.97

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46
Q

Priority messages can be declared by whom?

A

Any member

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47
Q

While driving, the firefighter is responsible for….

A

The efficient operation of the apparatus, as well as the safe transportation of all personnel and equipment to and from the incident.

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48
Q

Operators of department apparatus must contend with…

A

Emergency situations, adverse weather conditions, and other motorists who may or may not be able or willing to relinquish the right-of-way.

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49
Q

TYPES OF REGULATIONS for emergency response

A
  1. Motor vehicle and traffic laws enacted by RI State Government.
  2. Local City Ordinances
  3. Department policy specifying allowable procedures
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50
Q

Under Rhode Island General Law, the following privileges or “Specific Exemptions”
are allowed to emergency vehicles

A

a. Park or stand irrespective of the provision of any law.
b. Proceed past a red or stop signal or stop sign, but only after slowing down as may be necessary for safe operations.
c. Exceed the legal speed limits, provided the operator does not endanger life or
property.
d. Disregard regulations governing direction of movement or turning in specified
directions

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51
Q

There are three principles of emergency vehicle operation:

A

a. Emergency vehicle operators are subject to all traffic regulations unless a specific
exemption is made.
b. Exemptions are legal only when operating in the emergency mode.
c. Even with an exemption, operators can be held criminally or civilly liable if
involved in an accident.

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52
Q

In interpreting the law, should events occur requiring an analysis of an operator’s
actions by legal authorities, the actions will be judged from at least two aspects

A

a. Whether or not there was a true emergency
b. Due regard for the safety of others

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53
Q

Priority One Responses include, but not limited to:

A

Structure fires, explosions, overpressure ruptures of leaks, hazardous material
responses, water or ice incidents, and serious EMS responses (Heart, difficulty
breathing, stroke, road or industrial accidents, trauma, diabetes and similar incidents).

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54
Q

Priority Two Responses include, but not limited to:

A

Brush fires, rubbish fires, dumpster fires (not connected to a building), lock-in, minor EMS calls, downed power lines, box alarms and recorded telephone alarms.
Exception - first due company on box alarms and telephone recorded alarms will
respond Priority One.

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55
Q

Priority Three Responses include, but not limited to:

A

Searches, lockouts, water emergencies (pump out type), assist the police,
unauthorized burning (no danger), station relocations, wash downs, open hydrants, and CO detector alarms (no symptoms reported).

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56
Q

Priority One Transports include, but not limited to:

A

Unmanaged airway, uncontrolled hemorrhage, major trauma, conditions where out of hospital EMS interventions to stabilize the patient are unsuccessful and a real danger to life or limb remains.

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57
Q

Priority Two Transports include, but not limited to:

A

CPR in progress with all ACLS interventions in place, post respiratory or cardiac
arrest where patient has been stabilized, altered mental status, stabilized but
unresolved medical or trauma condition, STEMI, and non-major trauma.

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58
Q

Priority Three Transports include, but not limited to:

A

Stable patient transfers with physician approval, behavioral with no trauma or medical condition, and minor trauma.

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59
Q

True or False AR-AFFF can be mixed with different brand names of similar foam during the application process without adverse effects on the firefighting capability of the foam.

A

True

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60
Q

True or False: During application, AR-AFFF is also compatible with dry powder extinguishing agents.

A

True

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61
Q

Engine Company Foam Operations Proportioning for Hydrocarbons and Polar Solvents

A

3% / 3%

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62
Q

NFPA foam edition

A

NFPA 11 (Think close to NFPA 10, Fire Extinguishers)

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63
Q

Application rate of foam for Hydrocarbons

A

.1 gallon per minute (gpm) foam solution per square foot of fire with a minimum flow time of fifteen minutes.

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64
Q

Application rate of foam for Polar Solvents

A

.2 gpm foam solution per square foot of fire with a minimum flow time of fifteen minutes.

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65
Q

Nozzles presently used by this department are designed for low expansion ratio that corresponds to an expansion ratio of

A

8:1 and 10:1

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66
Q

TFT nozzles may also be used with AR-AFFF; however, it is recommended that
they be operated at a ______ degree fog pattern

A

10 to 15

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67
Q

Most eductors have fairly high friction loss; some have friction loss rates of _____ or more. This fact requires that a pressure required on the inlet side of the eductor is usually in the ______ psi range.

A

40%
180 to 200

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68
Q

If the company officer judges the foam to be too thin or watery…..

A

the engine pressure should be raised to the appropriate psi.

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69
Q

AR-AFFF should be stored…

A

in airtight original containers for long-term storage at a
temperature between 35 and 120 F degrees.

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70
Q

Engine company Foam Operations Nozzles

A

Fecon nozzle
TFT MX-Foam Jet Multi-Expansion Foam Aspirating Attachment

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71
Q

Shelf Life of AR-AFFF with proper storage (Engine Company Foam Operations)

A

15 Years

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72
Q

Chapter 1 Ops Manual

A

Department Mission

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73
Q

Chapter 2 Ops Manual

A

Administrative Policies

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74
Q

Chapter 3 Ops Manual

A

Records and Reports

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75
Q

Chapter 4 Ops Manual

A

Fire Prevention

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76
Q

Chapter 5 Ops Manual

A

Uniforms and Protective Colthing

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77
Q

Chapter 6 Ops Manual

A

Station Operations

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78
Q

Chapter 7 Ops Manual

A

Emergency Scene Operations

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79
Q

Chapter 8 Ops Manual

A

Apparatus and Equipment

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80
Q

Chapter 9 Ops Manual

A

Fire Prevention and Protective Ordinances

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81
Q

Chapter 10 Ops Manual

A

Marine and Dive

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82
Q

Chapter 11 Ops Manual

A

Ceremonies and Awards

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83
Q

Chapter 12 Ops Manual

A

Dispatch Policies

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84
Q

Author of Fire Ground Size Up Second Edition

A

Michael A. Terpak

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85
Q

If a member attempting to find egress locates a hose line, the member should identify the _____ coupling which will direct the member towards egress.

A

male

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86
Q

The Warwick Fire Department is part of a six-city regional response plan to mitigate flammable liquid emergencies. The cities of Warwick, _____ have been equipped with identical trailer systems.

A

East Providence, Providence, Woonsocket, Johnston, and Cumberland

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87
Q

The foam trailer carries…..

A

Two 330 gallon totes of Thunderstorm freeze-protected AR-AFFF
foam concentrate (660 gallons)

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88
Q

A minimum of ____ foam trailers will be dispatched on any response.

A

Two

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89
Q

Providence will be the 3rd foam trailer dispatched with their _____ gallon foam cache

A

2500

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90
Q

What will be dispatched from the WFD for all foam task force requests

A

2 Engines
1 DBC

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91
Q

Incidents where the Warwick Fire Department uses containment materials, every effort should be made to obtain ____________. This information,
including materials used and their amounts will be forwarded to the ____________ in order to charge the responsible party

A

-The names of the owner and insurance carrier
-Assistant Chief

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92
Q

Apparatus Dispatched for a Helicopter Landing

A

a. One Rescue Company
b. Two Engine Companies
c. District Battalion Chief
d. Police patrol car

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93
Q

Remain _______ feet from helicopter landing site

A

200

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93
Q

When the MEDEVAC is within range, the pilot may contact on scene apparatus on

A

WFD VHF frequency, channel 3 talk-around.

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93
Q

If needed, Fire alarm will notify MEDEVAC dispatch that on scene apparatus will be using…

A

VHF 154.310 PL 162.2.

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94
Q

(Helicopter Landings) The landing zone is to be kept clear of….

A

loose articles and hazardous debris

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94
Q

(Helicopter Landings) All bystanders are to be kept clear of…

A

the landing zone and rotor wash

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95
Q

Debris and shrapnel from a helicopter crash may continue for…

A

Several Hundred Feet

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96
Q

Transporting an impaired patient home is outside of the…..

A

State of RI EMS Protocols, Warwick Fire Department S.O.G.s and accepted standard of patient care.

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97
Q

This department does not respond to ___________ motor vehicle lock-outs

A

non-emergency

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98
Q

Engine 1 Color Code

A

Orange

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99
Q

Engine 2 Color Code

A

Red

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100
Q

Engine 3 Color Code

A

White

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101
Q

Engine 4 Color Code

A

Blue

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102
Q

Engine 5 Color Code

A

Green

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103
Q

Engine 6 Color Code

A

Yellow

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104
Q

Engine 8 Color Code

A

Black

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105
Q

Engine 9 Color Code

A

Brown

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106
Q

Engine 10 Color Code

A

Gray

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107
Q

Ladder 1 Color Code

A

Orange with Brown Stripe (E1 / E9)

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108
Q

Ladder 2 Color Code

A

Red with a Gray Stripe (E2 / E7)

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109
Q

Ladder 3 Color Code

A

White with a Black Stripe (White stripes are for rescues)

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110
Q

Rescue 1 Color Code

A

Orange with a white stripe

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111
Q

Rescue 2 Color Code

A

Red with a white stripe

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112
Q

Rescue 3 Color Code

A

Blue with a white Stripe

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113
Q

Rescue 4 Color Code

A

Green with a white stripe

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114
Q

Special Hazards 1 Color Code

A

Lime Green

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115
Q

All communications regarding inventory or related items will be forwarded to the…

A

District Battalion Chief

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116
Q

A printed copy of the Warwick Fire Department Inventory WFD will be kept on the apparatus. What is the designation of this form.

A

WFD 116

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117
Q

All apparatus will be inventoried…

A

annually during the month of January

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118
Q

Apparatus Inventory procedure

A

A. Start at the left front compartment and proceed around the truck counter-clockwise until all compartments are complete.
B. Proceed with all items on the outside of the truck starting at the right front and continuing clockwise.
C. Proceed to the top deck.
D. Conclude with the cab interior

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119
Q

Apparatus Acceptance Form Designation

A

WFD 117

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120
Q

The District Battalion Chief will make an effort to locate lost equipment during his rounds. If the equipment cannot be located, the email will be forwarded to _____________
with any appropriate comments.

A

headquarters

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121
Q

All emergency apparatus, with the exception of the __________________, must be guided while backing into quarters or moving in reverse during normal and emergency situations.

A

District Battalion Chief’s vehicles

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122
Q

When equipment is placed on the backstep, it must be…..

A

properly secured before transporting.

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123
Q

Regarding Apparatus Cellular Phones, who will be notified of needed repairs and who shall they contact…

A

The DBC
MIS

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124
Q

Battalion 1 Districts

A

1,5,9,10

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125
Q

Battalion 2 Districts

A

2,3,4,6,8

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126
Q

Who shall be responsible for checking for new emails?

A

Company officer responsible for Shift Accountability

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127
Q

Who can delete emails and after how long?

A

Senior Station Captain after 8 days.

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128
Q

Member shall check their personal WFD email…..

A

On a regular basis

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129
Q

Who has access to the training folder?

A

WFD Administration and Company Officers

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130
Q

Platoon files shall be kept in which WFD server Folder?

A

BC folder

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131
Q

All problem with computers shall be reported to whom?

A

DBC

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132
Q

When reporting a computer problem, personnel shall report the following information:

A
  1. Time and date of problem
  2. Item having problem
  3. Description of problem
  4. Actions taken
133
Q

The District Battalion Chief shall notify who for FD Manager problems?

A

Warwick MIS

134
Q

The District Battalion Chief shall notify who for Email problems?

A

Warwick MIS

135
Q

The District Battalion Chief shall notify who for Network problems?

A

Warwick MIS

136
Q

The District Battalion Chief shall notify who for Printer, general computer, and all other problems?

A

Warwick MIS

137
Q

The District Battalion Chief shall notify who for Image Trend Fire/EMS reporting system problems?

A

EMS Coordinator

138
Q

The District Battalion Chief shall notify who for Dispatch software and tablet problems?

A

FA Superintendent

139
Q

All ePCR reports must be completed…

A

prior to the completion of the shift

140
Q

Sideburns shall be

A

neatly trimmed, not exceed one and one-half inches (1 ½”) in width, and not extend beyond the bottom of the ear lobe.

141
Q

The following investigations require that Fire Prevention be contacted for response to an incident: FIRES

A

A. Any fatal fire.
B. Fires where civilians or firefighters are seriously injured.
C. Fires involving juveniles.
D. Kitchen fires where there is a substantial loss.
E. Fires within a rental unit or other situation where subrogation may be an issue.
F. Suspicious or incendiary fires regardless of the type or dollar loss.
G. Any fire that the District Battalion Chief deems appropriate

142
Q

The following investigations require that Fire Prevention be contacted for response to an incident: Burns

A

A. Second or third degree burn injuries to five (5) percent or more of the body area and where
the injury is caused by fire, not scalding hot water or steam.
B. Burns to the upper respiratory tract due to a fire or explosion.
C. Laryngeal edema due to inhalation of super-heated air.
D. Every case of a burn injury or wound as a result of a fire or explosion which is likely to or may result in death.
E. Scalding water burns do not require a response unless they were the result of a fire or explosion

143
Q

The following investigations require that Fire Prevention be contacted for response to an incident: Motor Vehicles and Marine Vessel Fires

A

A. Regardless of the amount of loss if it is determined that the vehicle / vessel has just been serviced.
B. The owner has fire insurance.
C. Determined to be stolen, since a fire loss report has to be submitted to the State Fire Marshal.
D. If arson is suspected or the fire is suspicious in nature.
E. Where the vehicle / vessel was totally destroyed.

144
Q

All incident reports shall be completed by who and when?

A

by the responsible Company Officer before the end of
the next shift of which the incident occurred.

145
Q

Who will be held accountable for seeing that Company Officers complete incident reports?

A

Company Captains

146
Q

Upon receipt of a summons for jury duty, firefighters from MA and CT shall immediately do what?

A

notify the department by submitting a copy of the notice to the Chief of the Department.

147
Q

Any fees received during jury duty other than what may be required to be forwarded to the city?

A

other than meals or travel allowances

148
Q

Medical release form shall be submitted to?

A

the office of the Chief of Department

149
Q

The release form is to be filed by any member…

A

That has been out injured, injured light duty, or sick light duty in excess of two consecutive working days. WORKING DAYS

150
Q

Medications found with an expiration date within the next 90 days are to be reported to?

A

The Company Officer, who emails this list to the EMS Coordinator

151
Q

Following any motor vehicle accident….

A

Immediately contact Fire Alarm

152
Q

Who shall ensure that apparatus has a complete accident kit on board?

A

All Company Captains and staff vehicle operators

153
Q

WFD accident kit includes…

A

The accident kit shall include a copy of the vehicle
registration, a copy of the vehicle insurance card, a WFD Form 128, and a copy of the department motor vehicle accidents policy.

154
Q

Who can authorize a WFD vehicle that was in an accident to be moved?

A

DBC or the Police

155
Q

Who obtains the police report (CR) number in a WFD accident?

A

Company officer

156
Q

Who completes WFD form 128 after an accident?

A

The Driver

157
Q

DBC responsibilities after a WFD MVA is to Forward the WFD Form 128 and explanatory letters to the ___________ as soon as possible

A

-Assistant Chief

158
Q

Who shall the DBC notify of a WFD appartatus MVA?

A

Deputy Chief of Training & Safety
Assistant Chief
Chief of Department

159
Q

The driver and Company officer shall submit the Accident Explanation letters to who and when?

A

DBC
within 24 hours

160
Q

All policy changes to the Operations Manual will be reviewed and signed by…

A

the Chief of Department

161
Q

Errors that may appear in the current Operations Manual should be brought to the attention of…..

A

the Chief of Department or Assistant Chief for review.

162
Q

Who will keep the electronic version of the Operations Manual on the server up-to-date at all times?

A

Headquarters

163
Q

Who will review any unreasonable request for overtime before it is submitted to payroll?

A

Headquarters

164
Q

If school extends beyond the scheduled time, overtime shall be compensated for ____________

A

the next fifteen minutes.

165
Q

A. Small purchases of $20.00 or less can be made with prior approval from who?

A

the Chief of Department or Assistant Chief.

166
Q

Company Officers will bring purchase receipts to who?

A

to the Assistant Chief or the Chief of Department’s Administrative Coordinator.

166
Q

All roll call number request changes shall be submitted to who and what else?

A

-Chief of the Department
-Kept on file at headquarters

167
Q

Large Truck oxygen bottles shall not go below?

A

400 Psi

168
Q

Portable Oxygen Bottles shall not go below?

A

600 Psi

169
Q

Personal Escape Rope Bag contains _________ which are compliant to what?

A

50 feet of 7.5 mm fire escape rope
one sewn in snap hook
one yellow rope bag with spring clip
NFPA 1983 2012 edition

170
Q

Indications that your escape rope has lost strength include…..

A

Stiffness, glazing, and discoloration.

171
Q

Shelf Life of Personal Escape Rope

A

10 Years (no sunlight or hazardous materials)

172
Q

During all personal escape training evolutions, members must…

A

wear a class III harness with a separate belay line attached to the rear dorsal attachment

173
Q

Who shall ensure the directive to immediately fill SCBA cylinders is followed?

A

District Battalion Chief

174
Q

SCBA cylinder pressure shall be ______ according to what?

A

90% or 4050 psi
NFPA 1404

175
Q

All handlines shall be tested when?

A

April and September

176
Q

Lack of what shall be considered hose test failure?

A

Lack of color coding and identification marks

177
Q

Handlines shall be tested at what psi and for how long

A

250 psi for 5 minutes

178
Q

Company officer shall do what when hose fails a test?

A
  1. Any hose that fails testing will be removed from service as soon as possible and marked for repair
  2. Notify the DBC in charge of hose of the hose failure
  3. Notify the DBC on duty of the hose failure and if you are running with a short load.
179
Q

The following apparatus will be dispatched for a Technical Rescue

A
  1. Two Engine Companies – one of the two shall be Engine 8
  2. One Ladder Company
  3. Special Hazards 1
  4. Special Hazards 2
  5. One Rescue Company
  6. One District Battalion Chief
  7. Technical Rescue Truck
  8. Technical Rescue Trailer at the discretion of the District Battalion Chief
180
Q

Examples of Technical Rescue incidents include, but are not limited to

A
  1. Rope Rescue
  2. Confined Space Rescue
  3. Trench Rescue
  4. Building Collapse
181
Q

The initial response to a shore-based water emergency shall be as follows:

Who will be dispatched once the incident is confirmed?

A
  1. One Engine Company
  2. One Inflatable Boat
  3. One Rescue Company
  4. One District Battalion Chief
  5. One Ladder Company with two sets of dive equipment
  6. Two divers minimum
    a. If the two diver minimum has not been met on the initial dispatch, dispatch
    additional apparatus as needed to obtain the two divers.
  7. One more diver and equipment to bring the total to three divers and equipment on
    scene.
  8. Additional equipment and personnel at the discretion of the Incident Commander.
  9. Chiefs 1, 2, 3, and 4 will be notified.
182
Q

DISPATCH ASSIGNMENT FOR ROUTES 95, 37, 295, 4, & AIRPORT CONNECTOR (Extrication)

A
  1. One Engine Company in direction of travel based on the information provided
  2. One Rescue Company in direction of travel based on the information provided
  3. Special Hazards 1 in direction of travel based on the information provided
  4. One Engine Company the opposite direction of travel based on the information provided
  5. One Ladder Company in direction of travel based on the information provided
  6. One District Battalion Chief
183
Q

The following personnel and equipment will be dispatched for confirmed dive incidents outside the city:

A
  1. One Engine Company
  2. One Inflatable Boat
  3. The Dive Trailer
  4. Three divers and equipment
  5. One District Battalion Chief
184
Q

Standard Extrication Alarm assignments

A
  1. One Engine Company
  2. One Rescue Company
  3. One Ladder Company
  4. Special Hazards 1
  5. One District Battalion Chief
185
Q

The dispatch of Primary Staging Companies will consist of…

A

one Engine Company
one Ladder Company

186
Q

Whenever companies respond out of the city on mutual aid to a confirmed working fire will RIT companies be dispatched?

A

Only at the discretion of the District Battalion Chief

187
Q

Fire Alarm dispatchers may use discretion in limiting dispatch to one direction of travel when? (Alarms on the highway)

A

Information is available from a reliable source that confirms the location and it is obvious from that information that apparatus responding in the opposite direction could not reach the incident. Reliable sources include:
1. On-scene police officers.
2. Other fire department apparatus personnel that can visibly confirm the location.

188
Q

Dispatched apparatus for Vehicle Fires on the Highway
Large Fire?

A

One Engine in the direction and one the opposite way
For large commercial vehicles and trailer trucks, add Special Hazards 1, one Ladder Company, and one District Battalion Chief.

189
Q

Brush fire on the highway dispatched apparatus

A

Engine in the direction of travel

190
Q

All members of the department should train annually as surface tenders (tenders) with the dive team in the following areas:

A
  1. Line and hand signals
  2. Search patterns
191
Q

TENDER TO DIVER signals

A
  1. Two pulls - Execute turn now.
  2. Three pulls - Come to the surface.
  3. Four pulls -Hazard in the area. Stop search and remain on the bottom until signaled to
    surface.
192
Q

DIVER TO TENDER signals

A
  1. Two pulls - Give more line.
  2. Three pulls - Found the objective.
  3. Four or more pulls - In trouble, send in back-up diver immediately
193
Q

If the Marine Unit encounters a disabled boat’s operator with an uncooperative attitude, or displaying a complete disregard for safety, and/or places department personnel in danger, the following agencies will be called for assistance:

A
  1. Coast Guard
  2. D.E.M
  3. Warwick Police/Harbor Master
193
Q

Company Officers will ensure a ____________ is available on the Marine Unit

A

cell phone

194
Q

Personnel are not required to be wearing an approved PFD under the following conditions:

A
  1. Dive Team Member with a wet or dry suit fully donned and secure.
  2. Water Rescue Exposure suit fully donned and secure.
  3. Firefighting operations underway where an SCBA is required thus preventing
    proper wearing of a PFD.
  4. Vessel is on Anchor and not underway.
  5. Vessel is secure at a dock.
195
Q

When the two SCBAs are connected with the EBSS and the SCBA requiring support has activated its Vibralert……

A

the Vibralert on the SCBA of the firefighter giving support will also be activated

196
Q

Anytime an SCBA has been subjected to accidental total submersion…

A

it should be removed from service, rinsed with clean water as soon as possible, and tagged for inspection

197
Q

Symptoms of SCBA pressure reducer failure

A

secondary pressure reducer will activate and vibralert will activate and red HUD light will flash.

198
Q

Regulator failure steps
failed open / failed closed

A

In the event of regulator failure the firefighter should first verify air cylinder is completely open.
2. Depress the orange CBRN disk located in the center of the regulator to activate regulator.
3. If the above steps do not correct the problem the breathing regulator has fail closed.
Open the purge valve to provide an acceptable flow.
4. If the system fails open, (free-flow) open the purge valve and close the cylinder valve by pushing in and rotating to regulate the flow of air to satisfy the requirements of the user.

199
Q

SCBA ANSI

A

ANSI Z88.5 (reminds me of Z28)

200
Q

SCBA face piece donning procedure for straps

A

Tighten the neck straps first then the temple straps followed by the top strap.
Stroke the harness down the back of the head using one or both hands, retighten straps.

201
Q

Two methods of donning the SCBA

A

Over the Head Method
Seat Mounted Method

202
Q

The lower section of the WFD Hose Repair Form

A

will be filled out completely, removed from the card, and will be retained by the Company Captain until repair of the hose is completed.

203
Q

The middle section of the WFD Hose Repair Form

A

Will be filled out completely and attached to the damaged hose near a coupling

204
Q

The top section of the WFD Hose Repair Form

A

Will be completed by those responsible for repairing the hose and returned with the hose to the company with the top section of the WFD Hose Repair Form attached to the hose

205
Q

How to test one length of hose?

A

To conduct this test, two lengths of hose will be used with the length being tested placed the furthest away from the pump.

206
Q

4 inch Hose Construction

A

The lining and cover consists of a synthetic nitrile rubber
compound to prevent the possibility of delaminating. The reinforcement consists of a synthetic, high tensile yarn.

207
Q

4 inch Hose Couplings

A

Stortz lightweight, quarter turn, quick connecting type.
a. Coupling inset screws have 40 ft. pounds of pressure when tight.
b. Stortz couplings have no sex. They connect in any direction.

207
Q

4 inch Hose Cold Resistance

A

Has a capability of use in temperatures as low as -36 degrees F.

208
Q

4 inch Hose Heat Resistance

A

When subjected to a static pressure of 100 psi, the hose is capable
of withstanding a surface temperature of 1200 degrees F for a minimum of two minutes without bursting.

209
Q

4 inch Hose Weight

A

A one hundred-foot length of four-inch hose with couplings weighs 85 pounds.

210
Q

4 inch Hose Coil Diameter

A

A one hundred-foot length of four-inch hose has a coil size of 25 inches

211
Q

4 inch Hose Water Capacity

A

A one hundred-foot length will hold about 65 gallons of water.

212
Q

4 inch Hose Pressure

A

a. Short Length Burst – 700 psi
b. Acceptance – 400 psi
c. Service Test – 200 psi

213
Q

4 inch Hose Color

A

Lime yellow for improved visibility during the nighttime operations

214
Q

4 inch Hose Carrying Capacity

A

A one hundred-foot length of four-inch hose full of water carries
about 520 lbs. of water.

215
Q

Three-inch hose has ______ larger cross sectional area than two and one-half inch hose

A

44%

216
Q

Four-inch hose has ______ larger cross sectional area than two and one-half inch hose.

A

156%

217
Q

The hydrassist valve is a four-port valve with three operating positions. These three operating positions are controlled by a handle located on top of the hydrassist valve. The three positions are as follows:

A

i. Normal operation - Handle pointing away from the hydrant, “to fire”/ inline.
ii. Hydrant Tie-In – Move handle to the discharge side / red color
iii. Emergency shut down – Move handle to the suction side / white color.

218
Q

Stortz Adapters - The following adapters will be available for use…

A

a. 4” Stortz to 2-1/2” straight male
b. 4” Stortz to 2-1/2” straight female
c. 4” Stortz 30-degree elbow to 2-1/2” female
d. 4” Stortz blind cap

219
Q

Hydrant Bag - Will contain the following:

A

a. (1) hydrant wrench
b. (1) 2-1/2” hydrant gate with 2-1/2” female to 4” Stortz adapter (Emergency hookup)
c. (2) 4” spanner wrenches
d. (2) standard spanner wrenches
e. (1) rubber mallet

220
Q

The Manually Controlled Piston Intake Relief Valve (PIRV) is a manual external relief valve that is to be set at ___ psi

A

125

221
Q

The Electronically Controlled Master Intake Relief Valve (MIRV) is an internal automatic relief valve that is set at ___ psi.

A

125

222
Q

All hydrants and valves are to be opened and closed _______.

A

slowly

223
Q

Charge L.D.H. ___________

A

very slowly

224
Q

Compound gauges on Engines supplied with L.D.H will not pump below____ psi unless _____________

A

10
ordered to do so by a Chief Officer

225
Q

Accident potential is increased when pumping at pressures higher than _____ psi.

A

180

226
Q

All Engines with two stage pumps supplying L.D.H. will pump in __________ position

A

volume

227
Q

L.D.H. will be laid at approximately __ mph

A

10

228
Q

Hydrant 2-1/2” ports….

A

Will not be gated unless needed for Emergency Hook-up Procedure.

229
Q

The Engine shall be positioned as close to the hydrant as necessary, approximately _______ feet from hydrant and tied into pump panel side of the Engine

A

10 to 20

230
Q

All hydrant steamer port caps that cannot be removed will be reported to ________ as soon as possible. They will inform who?

A

Fire Alarm
The Water Department

231
Q

NFPA LDH editions

A

1961
1962
1231

232
Q

A bag of hose contains three (3) 100’ sections with a total weight of approximately?

A

37 lbs

233
Q

Forestry hose burst, working, and nozzle pressures

A

700
300
50

234
Q

Forestry hose friction loss

A

2lbs per 100 feet or 6 lbs. per bag

235
Q

Hose ID number will be where?

A

Located three (3) feet from both couplings.

236
Q

All hose with the exception of, __________ will have both couplings painted with the company color.

A

booster line hose

237
Q

Stencil size for hose IDs

A

1 1/2 - 2 inches
1 3/4 - 2 inches
2 1/2 - 3 inches
4 - 4 inches

238
Q

Who is in charge of all fire details?

A

District Battalion Chiefs

239
Q

WFD Fire Prevention Detail form Designation

A

WFD From 450

240
Q

The State Fire Safety Code states that ____ uniformed firefighter shall be detailed to all Places of Assembly

A

one

241
Q

When should form 450 be returned and to where?

A

Headquarters
As soon as possible

242
Q

Detail radios shall be returned when?

A

before 0900 the next day

243
Q

During a fire detail, No inappropriate commentary to?

A

venue staff, patrons or general public

244
Q

During a fire detail, What shall you periodically do?

A

Periodically check posted occupancy count

245
Q

What is prohibited during a fire detail?

A

Loitering, standing in aisles, or obstructing exits shall be prohibited.
Use of cell phone for personal reasons
No standing/sitting for an extended period of time.

246
Q

No LPG tanks are permitted within _______ feet of any tent and shall be properly secured in place.

A

fifteen (15)

247
Q

At least ___________ shall be provided at a Tent.

A

one (1) fire extinguisher with appropriate signage

248
Q

No fireworks display shall be allowed if the wind velocity reaches more than ___ mph. If assistance is needed in this determination ____________ .

A

20
call the local weather bureau

248
Q

Firework discharge clearances

A

250 from any permanent building
50 from any tree or overhead line

249
Q

Prior to the start of the detail, perimeter lines shall be set up and approved by who?

A

members of the Bureau of Fire Prevention

250
Q

All observers must first do what?

A

Complete Department Ride along Application
Be approved by the appropriate division head.
Signed Waiver of Rights and Release Liability

251
Q

Observers will receive what to identify them?

A

An informational packet

252
Q

Observers will be approved for how long?

A

3 Months

253
Q

Any member who suffers an “on the job” injury is required to report the injury to?

A

The DBC via the Chain of Command

254
Q

On the job injury shall be consistent with what article of the contract

A

Article IX

255
Q

The DBC will notify who of an OJI?

A

Deputy Chief of Training and Safety
Assistant Chief
Chief of the Department
Chief’s Administrative Coordinator

256
Q

The medical documentation for IOD status shall include, but not be limited to, the following information: (To the office of the Chief of Department)

A
  1. The nature of the injury.
  2. A statement from the physician that the injury is job related.
  3. Prognosis and date of expected return to duty.
  4. A completed NFIRS casualty report
  5. A signed Warwick Fire Department Authorization for Medical and/or Hospital Information Form for medical records relating to the injury.
257
Q

It is the responsibility of the __________ to ensure the health and well-being of its members and provide opportunities to treat medical problems of its members so members can perform all the essential job functions expected of a department member.

A

department administration

258
Q

A refusal by the member to attend any examination ordered by the Chief of Department or Assistant Chief may result in ________

A

serious disciplinary actions.

259
Q

Sick leave will be monitored by the ________________

A

Chain of Command

260
Q

All department social media sites or pages shall be approved by

A

Chief of Department or his designee

261
Q

Substitutions are consistent with what sections of the contract?

A

Article I, Section 3 Management Rights
Article IV, Section. 2 Substitutions,

262
Q

The number of substitutions received by a member will be monitored?

A

the chain of command

263
Q

The shift sheet shall be completed by when?

A

1900 hours of the first night of the tour prior

264
Q

A change of shift can be submitted at any time but will not be honored by the District Battalion Chief until when?

A

two tours prior

265
Q

A member working a short-term standby by shall do what?

A

Notify the DBC
Have the same qualifications

266
Q

Part of the secondary search shall be what?

A

Accounting of all members

267
Q

Consider these when operating in the marginal mode.

A

Fire Intensity
Condition and construction of the Building

268
Q

If fire flow exceeds what number, then a 2 1/2 will be used

A

300 GPM

269
Q

The primary duties of the first due Ladder Company / Special Hazards shall include

A

Primary Search and Ventilation

270
Q

Secondary duties will include

A

Ground ladder placement and forcible entry

271
Q

Once the fire is controlled, the Ladder Company / Special Hazards should help to

A

illuminate the area
Salvage and Overhaul

272
Q

At alarms of Fire in Commercial Buildings, what are of the utmost importance?

A

Incident Command
Accountability
Scene Safety

273
Q

Upon verification of a working fire (exception: small or easily controllable fire) the first arriving Engine Company should consider…

A

Ordering a second alarm assignment

274
Q

Alarms of Fire Commercial, The Incident Commander shall immediately ascertain information relevant to the
building/occupancy from qualified personnel familiar with:

A
  1. Building layout
  2. Possible victim locations
  3. Mechanical equipment location
  4. Hazardous processes on site (chemical, mechanical, electrical or processes with
    special shut-down procedures)
  5. Areas that involve delicate and/or expensive equipment/processes
275
Q

Smaller lines can be used in commercial buildings at the discretion of whom?

A

A chief officer

275
Q

Building features that facilitate early collapse:

A
  1. Parapet walls
  2. Large, open unsupported areas
  3. Large signs or marquees
  4. Cantilevered canopies
  5. Lightweight wood truss, bar joist or bowstring truss roofs (fail in less than ten minutes with direct flame contact)
  6. Unprotected metal beams/columns
  7. Rapidly elevating temperatures at ceiling level in open, high ceiling structures.
276
Q

A high-rise structure may be defined as any of the following:

A
  1. Beyond the reach of fire department aerial equipment.
  2. Requires unreasonable evacuation time.
  3. Poses a potential for significant ventilation problems such as stack effect or reverse stack effect and possible stratification.
  4. Where fire on upper floors must be fought from inside the building with great dependency on internal fire protection systems.
  5. Only a few floors high if it is set back from the street inaccessible by ladder trucks, has an extremely large internal area, blocked by other buildings, courtyards, or other obstructions.
277
Q

In high rise fires, after establishing a water supply the third due engine company will typically be assigned to do what?

A

Check for extension on the floor above the Fire

278
Q

HVAC should be shut down by the Incident Commander (if this did not occur automatically when the alarm activated) at all serious high-rise fires unless:

A

a. The specific operational details of the HVAC system are known. b. The effect of the operation of the HVAC system on the fire can be determined.
c. The exact location and extent of the fire is known.

279
Q

Command and Staging shall be located ___ floors below confirmed fire floor. If space is a problem, staging shall be located ____ floor below Command.

A

Two
One

280
Q

If the location of the fire is unknown, take the elevator to what floor?
If the location is known?

A

Two
One

281
Q

Freight or service elevators shall not be used until

A

The service elevator lobbies have been checked to ensure that service elevator lobbies are not involved in the fire

282
Q

A written Incident Action Plan (IAP) is required when?

A

At all incidents where the manpower equals or exceeds the equivalent of a second alarm dispatch or extends to multiple operational periods

283
Q

A management tool to provide continuity of command
from the arrival of the first company throughout the termination of the incident. The intent is to standardize the command structure so all personnel will know what to expect from other personnel and to clearly establish who is in command of an incident throughout the duration of the incident. The Warwick Incident Command System will enable the person in charge (Incident Commander) to effectively control the resources and reduce the negative impact of any emergency.

A

Incident Command System (ICS)

284
Q

An individual responsible for the collection, evaluation, and use of
information regarding the development of the incident. The Planning Section gathers information to understand the current situation and to develop alternative strategies for control of the incident. The planning section chief facilitates all briefings and meetings.

A

Planning Section (PS)

285
Q

An officer responsible for the development and implementation of tactics necessary to carry out the Incident Commander’s strategic plan. The Operations Section Chief supervises the tactical operations of the incident.

A

Operations Section (OS)

286
Q

An officer responsible for providing and coordinating all support for an emergency incident from Department resources and outside agencies.

A

Logistics Section (LS)

287
Q

A clear area (street, parking lot, etc.) at least one block away from the incident where apparatus, and manpower that is not as yet committed may be assembled to await instructions from the Incident Commander. In no case should apparatus drive through the incident location to get to the Staging Area. Staging will now fall under the direction of the Operations Section
Chief.

A

Staging

288
Q

Can be either geographic (divisions) or functional (groups or units) in nature.

A

Branches

289
Q

Areas of responsibility at an incident that are assigned based on geographic location. Example: roof division, Side Charlie.

A

Divisions

290
Q

Areas of responsibility, which are based on the nature of the task. These are incident wide responsibility.
Example: search, venting, extrication

A

Functional Groups or Units

291
Q

The Warwick Incident Command System is divided into eight Key functional positions, which may be further subdivided:

A
  1. COMMAND
  2. SAFETY
  3. LIAISON
  4. PUBLIC INFORMATION
  5. OPERATIONS
  6. LOGISTICS
  7. PLANNING
  8. FINANCE/ADMINISTRATION
292
Q

A commitment of resources equal to a second alarm assignment have been committed.
When such an incident occurs, the Incident Commander
should consider the following functions for delegation:

A

SAFETY, OPERATIONS, AND LOGISTICS.

293
Q

After a second alarm is struck. the following notifications shall take place.

The DBC on scene is responsible for assuring the following notifications have been made.

A

Chief of Department will respond
Assistant Chiefs will respond
Deputy Chief will respond
EMS Coordinator discretion of Incident Commander
Superintendent of FA discretion of Incident Commander

294
Q

Command of an incident to a senior officer, when that senior officer feels that this is necessary. The changing of
Command will be face to face whenever possible, with the following information transferred to the assuming officer. This must be done before an assumption of command is to take place!

A
  1. A briefing of actions taken to this point; situation status
  2. Incident objectives and priorities based on the IAP
  3. Current organization (ICS)
  4. Resource Assignments (What companies have been committed and their locations)
  5. Resources ordered and en route
  6. Incident facilities/communications plan
  7. Is the situation stable or deteriorating?
  8. Introduction of command and general staff members
295
Q

The Operations Section is generally divided into four (4) areas of control:

A

A. SUPPRESSION
B. EMS
C. STAGING
D. FIRE PREVENTION/INVESTIGATION

296
Q

The IC develops _______
The Operation Sector develops ________

A

Strategy
Tactics

297
Q

Logistical support may be divided into two (2) classifications.

A

A. SUPPORT BRANCH
B. SERVICE BRANCH

298
Q

4 units under the Finance/ Administration Sector

A

Time, Procurement, Compensation/claims, Cost Units

299
Q

The Elevator Key may be marked with what?

A

“E” or “WD01”

300
Q

The machine room may be located at:

A
  1. The top of the shaft.
  2. Adjacent to the shaft on lowest floor.
  3. In a separate structure on the roof.
  4. The bottom of the shaft adjacent to the elevator.
  5. Two levels above the highest floor serviced by the elevator.
300
Q

There are 3 types of ML valves:

A

T shaped, wheel type, or spring-loaded push type.

301
Q

Attempt to open the hoistway door with the proper elevator key.

A
  1. The type of key will determine the method of operation. A straight stick key
    (i.e.Cresent moon) requires a straight insertion and a gentle upward motion to release the mechanism.
  2. A drop key requires either a clockwise or counter-clockwise rotation.
  3. The insertion of a flatdrop key should be on a horizontal plane to ensure the key passes through both sides of the hoistway door.
301
Q

The spotter should call an “all stop” ______ inches from the landing to ensure time for the
elevator to stop.

A

6 to 8

302
Q

Cable elevators can be located in occupancies regardless of height. The machine room can be located…

A

Directly above the last floor stop, in a separate structure on the roof or in the basement.

303
Q

Mutual Aid Task Force is made up of the following

A

2 Engines
1 Ladder
1 Rescue
1 DBC

304
Q

If the opening through the normal Elevator entranceway has less than ______ of clearance, remove occupant(s) via the top escape hatch.

A

3 Feet

305
Q

Mutual Aid Response to Confirmed and Unconfirmed Fires

A

Confirmed = 1 Task Force and RIT Team at the discretion of the DBC
Unconfirmed = 1 Task Force

305
Q

Investigation of any building that has a gas release will be limited to…

A

one officer
one firefighter

306
Q

RIT Officer - Responsible for carrying

A

the thermal imaging camera (TIC) and RIT Tag Line consisting of 220 feet of Kevlar rope

307
Q

There may be incidents where proactive actions of the RIT are necessary in order to facilitate or prevent deployment of the RIT. Such actions may include, but are not limited to

A
  1. Laddering a building for secondary egress.
  2. Forcing entry for secondary egress.
  3. Removing hazards that could lead to a Mayday.
  4. Any other actions that could help prevent a Mayday
308
Q

Upon deployment of a RIT, the following benchmarks shall be transmitted to RIT OPS

A
  1. RIT entry point - Shall be transmitted when the RIT enters the hazard area.
  2. Distressed member located - Shall be transmitted when the RIT has made physical
    contact with the distressed member.
  3. Air supply secured - Shall be transmitted when the distressed member’s air supply
    has been transferred and secured to the RIT air-pak.
  4. Removing member - Shall be transmitted when actual removal process has begun.
  5. Planned Exit Point - Shall transmit planned exit point.
  6. Location change - Shall transmit upon changing levels.
  7. Member removed - Shall be transmitted when the member has been removed from
    the hazard area.
  8. RIT out of hazard area with PAR - Shall only be transmitted when the RIT is out of
    the hazard area, and all members are accounted for.
308
Q

Upon deployment of a RIT…..

A

an additional RIT must be established. The Incident Commander shall request an additional alarm

309
Q

The Rehab Officer shall secure all necessary resources required to adequately staff and supply the Rehab Sector. The supplies should include the items listed below:

A

a. Fluids - water shall be the primary fluid used in the Rehab Sector. Other
appropriate fluids such as non-carbonated beverages or oral electrolyte solutions may be used.
b. Food - soup, broth, or stew
c. Medical - blood pressure cuffs, stethoscopes, oxygen administration devices, cardiac monitors, intravenous solutions and thermometers.
d. Other - awnings, fans, tarps, salvage covers, smoke ejectors, heaters, blankets, towels, traffic cones, and fire line tape to identify the entrance and exit of the Rehab Sector

309
Q

During heat stress, the member should consume at least of water per hour.

A

one quart

310
Q

The department shall provide food at the scene of an extended incident when units are engaged for ____ or more hours.

A

three

311
Q

Members should rehydrate with at least ____ of fluid while SCBA cylinders are being changed.

A

8 oz

312
Q

Rest shall not be less than ______ and may exceed an hour as determined by the Rehab Officer.

A

10 minutes

313
Q

Members whose body temperatures are below ______ degrees F oral, shall be cleared to resume active firefighting duties when rested, rehydrated, and feel they are ready to return, provided their vital signs are otherwise normal.

A

100.6

314
Q

Members whose body temperatures are between ____________ degrees F oral shall be treated for overheating and not allowed to resume firefighting duties until their temperatures return below 100.6 degrees F oral and all vital signs are normal.

A

100.6 and 104

315
Q

Members whose body temperatures are over ____ degrees F oral shall be cardiac monitored, treated per Pre-Hospital Protocols and transported as necessary. They shall be presumed to have heat stroke

A

104

316
Q

Each member’s heart rate should be monitored for ___ seconds as early as possible in the rest period.
a. If the rate exceeds ____ beats per minute an oral temperature should be taken and the member monitored for heat stress.
b. If the rate is less than ____ beats per minute the chance of heat stress is negligible

A

30
110
100

317
Q

Vital signs shall be taken on any member with a temperature over ____ degrees F oral or who shows other signs of heat stress.

A

100.6

318
Q

Additionally, a confined space is further defined as having one or more of the following characteristics:

A
  1. The area contains or has a potential to contain a hazardous atmosphere, including an oxygen-deficient atmosphere.
  2. The area contains a material with a potential to engulf a member.
  3. The area has an internal configuration such that a member could be trapped by inwardly converging walls or a floor that slopes downward and tapers to a small cross section.
  4. The area contains any other recognized serious hazard.
319
Q

Pertaining to SCBA Use, No practice either written or implied shall conflict with NFPA ____ or NFPA ____

A

1500
1404

319
Q

Standpipe systems are primarily found in high-rise buildings; however, they can also be found where?

A

in large area buildings, bridges, tunnels, and parking garages.

320
Q

The Incident Commander may assign an ______________ any time a standpipe attack is in operation.

A

interior Sector Commander

321
Q

House Lines from Class 2 Standpipes are typically no more than how many feet?

A

130 Feet

322
Q

Warwick Fire Department standpipe packs shall be equipped as follows:

A
  1. 150 ‘ of 1½” or 2 ½” hose with solid bore nozzle
  2. One 2½” gated wye
  3. One spanner wrench
  4. One pair 6” vise grips
  5. One 6’ x 2½” leader line

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