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Manuals > FCOM > Flashcards

FCOM Flashcards

0
Q

When doing a bathroom break what altitude does the other pilot have to use oxygen?

A

Above FL250

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1
Q

What crew members are required on the dispatch release?

A

The PIC and SIC.

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2
Q

What is required for runway and taxiway use at night? How do you know what’s operable?

A

Runway edge lights. Taxiway edge lights, or reflective markers. Check the notams.

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3
Q

Can a pilot deviate from an RA? How?

A

Yes, not opposite to the path suggested by the RA.

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4
Q

What are the TCAS ranges supposed to be set at for takeoff cruise and landing?

A

Takeoff/climb: 6 miles
Cruise: 12 or greater
Landing: 6 miles

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5
Q

How do you handle high barometric pressure at airports without the capability to measure over 31.00” of HG?

A

Set 31.00” and restricted to VFR weather conditions.

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6
Q

For IFR operations with over 31.00” of HG what should be done for departure and approach?

A

Add 100’ and 1/4 mile per 1/10th of an inch above 31.00” of HG to each of the departure alternate, destination, and destination alternate minimums.

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7
Q

What actions should be taken in low barometric pressure situations? Below 28.00” of HG.

A

Aircraft unable to set actual altimeter setting are prohibited from flying.

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8
Q

How much separation is needed for wake turbulence?

A

Heavy jet: 6 miles
B757: 5 miles
Large aircraft: 4 miles

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9
Q

According to the manual how much oxygen must be available to the flight crew above 10,000’?

A

No less than 2 hours

Max altitude to 10,000’ in 10 minutes and 110 minutes thereafter.

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10
Q

What altitude must a crew member use oxygen when the other crew member is away from his station?

A

Above FL250

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11
Q

How much oxygen must be provided to passengers above 10,000’?

A

10 to 14, over 30 minutes, 10%

14 to15, 30%

Above 15,000’ every passenger

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12
Q

What is the distance for extended over water operations?

Is Trans States authorized to do these?

A

50nm from nearest shoreline

No

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13
Q

What equipment is required for RVSM?

A

2 altimeters
Transponder
Altitude alert system
Automatic altitude control system

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14
Q

What is the max error in the altimeter from field elevation?

A

75 ft

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15
Q

When does a captain had to file an incident report?

A

300’ deviation by pilot or auto-pilot

245’ error on altimeter

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16
Q

How far apart are RVSM and NON-RVSM aircraft?

A

2,000’

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17
Q

When does a captain have to send a report for an engine failure in flight? And to who?

A

10 days from return to base

To the FSDO

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18
Q

When are medicals renewed for captains and first officers and what class?

A

Captains 40 an over 6 months, under 40 12 months

FO’s 60 and over 6 months, under 60 12 months

First class

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19
Q

How many hours does either the captain or FO have to have?

A

75 hours including ioe

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20
Q

What is the two communication rule?

A

Assume subtle pilot incapacitation anytime a pilot does not respond to two verbal communications

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21
Q

When should the captain make takeoffs and landings?

A 
Below minimums
Less than 4,500'
Less than fair braking
Non grooved, wet or contaminated
Captains discretion
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22
Q

What is the transition altitude and transition layer?

A

17,500’

FL180

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23
Q

Are we allowed to do PRM approaches?

A

No

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24
Q

What aircraft are required to have the safety vests on board?

A

The us airways and the Trans states generic planes.

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25
Q

When must a captain declare an emergency for fuel?

A

30 minutes of fuel left.

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26
Q

How early may a flight be released?

A

5 minutes,

10 with approval from dispatch

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27
Q

How long of an “on gate” delay is the captain allowed to take?

A

10 minutes

20 with SOC approval

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28
Q

When is cleared as filed not acceptable?

A

When you he an amended dispatch release.

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29
Q

What headsets are required to be used?

By whom?

What altitude?

A

David Clark H 10-40/60

Everyone including ACM

Below 18,000’

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30
Q

If a checklist is interrupted what action is taken?

A

The checklist is reran from the beginning

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31
Q

When are circuit breakers allowed to be reset?

A

When an abnormal/emergency checklist specifically authorizes the reset. Or when the captain thinks it’s necessary for the safe completion of the flight.

32
Q

When must the flight crew monitor airinc?

A

Outside 60nm from destination and departure airports.

33
Q

When may the turn be made after takeoff?

A

1,000’ or published acceleration height whichever is higher.

Unless required by the “dp” but at no time below 50’

34
Q

When is the nav light supposed to be on?

A

Whenever the aircraft is powered up?

35
Q

When is the taxi light on?

A

When the aircraft is moving under it’s own power

36
Q

When are strobes and inspection lights supposed to be on?

A

When crossing runways. And from takeoff to landing.

37
Q

When is the rotating beacon supposed to be on?

A

Before engine start to after engine shutdown.

38
Q

When are landing light supposed to be on?

A

Takeoff and below 10,000’

39
Q

When are shoulder harnesses required?

A

Takeoff and landing. 3-4.1

40
Q

When must you declare min fuel?

A

When less than 30 minutes of fuel are on board. 3-4.4

41
Q

When will “ALTITUDE” be called out in flight?

A

Enroute +- 200’ 3-4.5

42
Q

When must the captain notify dispatch of a change in route or altitude?

A

When a change of more than 100nm or more than 4000’ is made.
Or when 15 minutes or more has been added to the enroute portion. 3-4.8

43
Q

When does the fuel burn have to be recorded? Turned into SOC? Dispatch notified?

A

Flights 1 hour or more
10%
15%
3-4.8

44
Q

What must a pilot report inflight?

A

Time and altitude passing designated or specified reporting points.
Unforecast weather
Safety of flight issues

45
Q

When can a pilot leave DDA?

A

Normal descent can be made
Visibility greater than approach require
Visual reference 3-5.2.1

46
Q

When may a pilot accept a visual approach?

A

Airport or preceding aircraft insight
VMC
Clear of clouds

47
Q

When must and aircraft be parked into the wind?

A

20 knots wind must not be more than 90 degrees off the nose

40 knots as close to in to the wind as possible. 3-5.9

48
Q

What are you looking for in the logbook?

A 
Onboard
Line check
Airworthiness release complied with
VOR check
Discrepancies signed off p
49
Q

What must a captain check prior to accepting an aircraft?

A 
Log can 3 pages
DMI
MEL
NEF
line check 
Airworthiness release (first flight)
VOR check (first flight)
50
Q

How so you report a mechanical irregularity?

A 
Record discrepancy in the logbook 
Date
Discrepancy number
Log page
Call dispatch 4-1.4
51
Q

Once push from the gate how is an irregularity reported?

A 
Park
Log discrepancy
Call dispatch
Defer system
Return to gate if necessary 4-1.4
52
Q

After an aborted takeoff how long does the captain have to report it to FLTOPS?

A

72 hours 4-1.4

53
Q

What are the MC codes and what do they specify?

A

MC1 servicing and boarding
MC2 servicing no boarding
MC3 no servicing and no boarding
4-1.5

54
Q

What are the only remarks allowed in the log can?

A

Aborted takeoff and white bucket test

4-2.4

55
Q

What are the 2 ways to attain official takeoff performance?

A

ACARS or telecom with dispatch

56
Q

When the ceiling and visibility are above and below 1,000’ and 3 miles at what altitude can turns be made?

A

Below - 1,000’

Above - 400’

At no time below 50’

57
Q

What is the procedure for an engine failure in IMC below 1,000’? And above

A

Below- climb to 1,000’ and turn towards navaid and hold

Above- turn towards navaid and hold

58
Q

What is the procedure for an engine failure in vmc below 1,000’? And above?

A

Below- climb to 1,000’ visually and return to land

Above- return to land visually

59
Q

What is considered a wet runway?

A

Less than 1/8” of water on 100% of the runway

5-1.2.1

60
Q

What is considered a contaminated runway?

A

Contamination of 1/8” or more on 25% of the width of runway being used.

Less than 25% if the contaminant is located prior to the midpoint of the runway.

61
Q

What is compacted snow?

A

Snow that resist further compression

62
Q

What is a damp runway?

A

Not dry but also not shiny. Damp is considered dry for performance.

63
Q

What are the ACARS limit codes?

A 
F- Field
A- Aircraft Max Takeoff Weight
T- Tires
B- Brakes
O- Obstacle
D- Dry runway 
C- Climb
64
Q

How do you figure max takeoff weight?

A

Add fuel burn to the max landing weight.

65
Q

How do you figure out max fuel allowed for landing?

A

Subtract zero fuel weight from max landing weight.

5-1.4.4

66
Q

How are you supposed to cross the threshold?

A

50’ at Vref

67
Q

What are the runway surface and braking action abbreviations?

A 
CS- compacted snow
DS- dry snow
WS- wet snow
SL- slush
Ice- ice
FAIR- fair
POOR- poor
5-1.4.4
68
Q

When are you allowed to execute an approach with the visibility below minimums?

A

When the RVR is above minimums.

If the RVR is below minimums and the visibility is above minimums the approach may not be executed.

69
Q

When must a pilot report be made?

A

Safety of flight concerns
Unforecasted weather
Moderate or greater icing, freezing rain or drizzle.

70
Q

When is takeoff not authorized? Icing and freezing rain?

A

Severe icing known or forecast
Moderate or heavy freezing rain
Snow frost or ice on the aircraft

71
Q

what are the maximum contamination depths allowed?

A

Dry snow 2”
Wet snow 1/2”
Slush or standing water 1/2”
7-1.3.2

72
Q

What braking action report are we not allowed to operate on?

A

NIL

73
Q

How far should thunderstorms be avoided?

A

20 miles and thousands of feet over top.

7-1.3.8.2

74
Q

What temperature range is the most severe icing found?

A

0c to -15c

75
Q

What phase of flight may not be accomplished during a microbursts alert?

A

Takeoff or the final approach segment

7-1.3.9.1

76
Q

How long do microburst advisories and Windshear alerts stay on the ATIS? Are takeoffs and landings allowed?

A

20 minutes and yes

7-1.3.9.2

77
Q

Describe a microburst.

A 
Less than 1 mile in diameter
Up to 6,000fpm
1,000' to 3,000' above the ground 
45kt change from head to tail = 90kts
Last less than 15 minutes
78
Q

When is radar required?

A

Thunderstorms are forecast in IFR or night VFR conditions.

7-1.4

Manuals (5 decks)

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