FARs

Question 1

91.167 fuel requirements for IFR

Answer 1

IFR flight helicopter to destination and then alternate and then after for 30 minutes minimum

Question 2

91.169 IFR planning minimums

Answer 2

At time of arrival and for 1 hour after the ceiling WILL be 400 feet or higher than lowest approach minima
OR 1000 feet above field elevation
And at least 2 SM visibility

Alternate
200 foot ceiling greater than applicable approach to be flown
And 1 mile Vis
But never less visibility than the approach.

Question 3

Conventional approach (NON copter) visibility heights and speeds

Answer 3

Visibility: 1/2 CAT A minima or 1200 RVR but never less than 1/4 mile. Unless annotated as VISIBILITY REDUCTION BY HELICOPTER NA

MDA /DA: as published for CAT A minima

Speed: enroute to final approach segment speeds up to any of the published Categories
Final appr segment must be slowed to 90 or less before MAP to apply the reduced (1/2 Vis) reduction for helicopters

Question 4

GPS Copter procedure approach

Answer 4

Visibility and MDA/DA : as published

Speed: 90 kts on published track except 70 kts on final up to 7.5 degrees approaches and the. 55 kts 7.5-9 degrees angle

Question 5

Instrument currency requirements

Answer 5

May not act as PIC in IFR if in preceding 6 calendar months he or she has not:
Performed and logged under actual or simulated conditions either in a simulator or appropriate category aircraft

6 instrument approaches
Holding procedure
Intercept and track courses with Nav systems

If expired an IPC must be done.

Question 6

91.121 altimeter setting

Answer 6

Must have altimeter setting when below 18,000 feet from a station within 100 miles along your route

Question 7

91.157

Special VFR weather minimums

Answer 7

Allows helicopters to operate SVFR even below 1mile visibility like fixed wing.
Allows helicopter operate at night SVFR while other aircraft cannot

Question 8

Part 91 IFR flight with inop equipment

Answer 8

A pilot may defer certain items without an MEL if those items are not required by the type certificate, CFRs, or any ADss AND the flight can be performed safely without them.

If item is disabled or removed a logbook entry MUST be made

Question 9

Helicopter VFR minimums (same as fixed wing with 2 exceptions)

Answer 9

Class A   N/A
Class C, D, E 
500 below
1000 above
2000 horizontal 
3 SM Vis 
(Except class E above 10K 1000,1000,1mile horizontally and 5 SM Vis)
Class B clear of clouds 
3 SM Vis 

Class G. Day or night. Clear of clouds

SVFR for BCDE surface area
Clear of clouds day or night that’s it. No Vis limit

Question 10

Required reports to ATC

Answer 10

Time and altitude entering holding or reaching a fix cleared to
When leaving assigned holding fix or point

Change in filed airspeed 5 percent or 10 knots(at cruising speed)

When vacating previously assigned altitude

When unable to climb/descend at least 500 fpm

When executing the missed

Question 11

Minimum safe altitudes

Answer 11

91.119
Helicopters may be operated at less than prescribed( congested areas 1000 feet above highest obstacles and 2000 feet horizontal………or 500 feet above obstacles in “other than congested” areas

Helicopters “if operations is conducted without hazard to persons or property on the surface “

Question 12

Typical dimensions of airspace

Answer 12

Class A above 18K
Class B upwards to 10,000 feet can extend many miles laterally
Class C usually 4000 above airport 5 and 10nm radius
Class D usually 2500 above airport and average 4.3 nm radius
Class G 700 or 1200 if not depicted its 1200
Class E 1200 to 18000 (there are exceptions)

Question 13

Class E VFR minimums

Answer 13

VFR weather minimums above 10 thousand feet
1000 above 1000 below 1 mile horizontal 
And 5 miles Vis. 
Below 10,000
500 below 1000 above 2000 horizontal 
And 3 mile vis

Question 14

Needed to continue approach past DH/DH/MDA?

Answer 14

CVR
1 C ontinuous position to land on intended runway
2 V isibility
3 R unway environment in sight (10 things) paint Pavement lights

Question 15

10 items needed to continue approach

Answer 15

1,2,3 Threshold, Threshold markings, Threshold lights.
4,5, Touchdown zone, TD zone markings, TD zone lights
6,7 Runway, Runway markings, Runway Lights
8 REIL (runway end identifier lights) green row in front of runway.
9 VASI (visual approach slope indicator)

Tenth item only one On approach side of threshold
10 Approach lights system (ALSF-2)

Must have ONE of the first 9 to descend and land
Or at least the ALSF lights to continue to 100 above TDZE

Question 16

Aircraft airworthiness

Answer 16

Annual inspection 
ADs complied with
Transponder checked with 24months
ELT checked within 12 months
VOR checked within 30 days
Altimeter and pitot static checked within 24 months 

Weight balance TYPICALLY every 36months (part 135) but there are exceptions

Question 17

Required equipment DAY VFR

Answer 17

….ATOMS FAA
and an ELT

Airspeed indicator 
Tachometer
Oil temp and pressure gauge
Mag Compass 
Safety belts

Fuel gauge
Altimeter
Anti collision light

& an ELT

Question 18

Required items Night VFR

Answer 18

......FLAPS .........
Fuses (only if accessible to pilot and NA to ckt bkr aircraft. 
Landing light(if for hire)
Anti collision light
Position lights 
Source of electricity (generator)

And all day items.

Question 19

IFR required equipment

Answer 19

........"DATACARD"...........
Directional gyro
Attitude indicator 
Turn coordinator 
Altimeter 
Clock with seconds 
Alternator/generator 
Radios 2 way
DME or GPS above FL240

Question 20

VOR checks

Answer 20

Must be verified accurate with last 30 days
gnd test point + - 4 degrees
If doing dual VOR test tolerance is 4 degrees
All airborne tests tolerances 6 degrees

(record) ....PEDS.....
place
error
date
signature

Question 21

Clearance copy format

Answer 21

.........CRAFT........
Clearance limit
Route
Altitude 
Frequency 
Transponder code

Question 22

Takeoff minimums

Answer 22

Not required for part 91
other than attain V mini before going IMC
Not a good idea tho. Use at least ILS or LPV minimums so you could return to land in emergency

Question 23

SID
ODP
STAR

Answer 23

Standard instrument departure
Obstacle departure procedure
Standard arrival procedure

Question 24

what required items warrant reporting to ATC

Answer 24

.....MATHCLUS......
Missed approach
Altitude change
TAS change of 10 kts or 5%
holds (time and altitude reaching fix and time leaving hold fix
Climb (unable to climb at least 500 fpm)
Loss of equipment 
Un-forecast or hazardous weather
Safety of flight 

In NON radar environment
FAF/OM inbound
ETA change + - minutes
Weather hazardous

Question 25

Compulsory reporting points info

Answer 25

.......PTA ETA next.......
Position 
Time
Altitude 
ETA and name of next point
Next reporting point beyond

Question 26

Ratio for decent

Answer 26

For 3 deg glide slope =gnd speed divided by 2 and add 0

Question 27

Lost comms route and altitude

Answer 27

7600
…….Route…….(in order of priority)
AVE-F(acronym)or Avenue F

Assigned
Vectored
Expected
Filed

……..Altitude…….. (highest of following)
MEA (acronym)

MEA (min enroute altitude)
Expected
Assigned

Question 28

Holding as assigned by ATC

Answer 28

Direction (cardinal)
Fix
Radial or heading
turns(omitted if standard)
EFC time

Question 29

Landing at uncontrolled airport

Answer 29

Must ask ATC to close plan for you before changing freq

If not must close with FSS or by phone

Question 30

Lost comms

when to leave Clearance limit?

Answer 30

Is clearance is fix from where approach begins?
Yes
Start decent and approach as close as possible to the EFC time if received, (if none) then as close to filed or amended time as possible

   NO Leave clearance limit fix at the EFC time or upon arrival over the fix. Proceed to a fix where approach begins and start approach as close as possible to the ETA (or amended ETE) as filed

Question 31

Documents required to be onboard

Answer 31

AROW
Airworthiness
Registration
Operators Manual(FM)
Weight and balance

Question 32

Large Aircraft means what?

Answer 32

more than 12,500 lbs max cert TO weight

Question 33

determine needed rate of decent for 3 deg glide slope

Answer 33

gnd speed X 5 very close

Question 34

RVR values

Answer 34

1600=1/4 mile

2400=1/2 mile

Question 35

can part 91 attempt an approach when weather is below Min?

Answer 35

yes

part 91 can at least try but part 121 135 etc…cannot

Question 36

DH vs DA

Answer 36

DH is altitude above gnd AGL

DA is height above gnd in MSL

Question 37

LNAV + V is?

LNAV/VNAV or LPV is

Answer 37

still an MDA but has an “advisory Glide Path” to assist but not mandatory

LNAV/VNAV or LPV is a DA and is mandatory to follow glide path

Question 38

precision app vs NON precision app

Answer 38

Precision has vertical guidance Non precision does NOT

Question 39

VDP is?

Answer 39

visual decent point. showing a 3 degree slope to the runway from that point. if depicted dont descend below MDA until this point

Question 40

oxygen required when ?

Answer 40

above 12,500 for 30 minutes for pilots and above 14K any length for pilots and above 15K for Pax any length

Question 41

“What are the general eligibility requirements for an airline transport pilot certificate? (14 CFR 61.153)”

Answer 41

“a. Be at least 23 years of age;
b. Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language;
c. Be of good moral character;
d. Meet at least one of the following requirements:
• Hold at least a commercial pilot certificate and an instrument rating;
• Meet the military experience requirements under §61.73 to qualify for a commercial pilot certificate, and an instrument rating if the person is a rated military pilot or former rated military pilot of an Armed Force of the United States; or
• Hold either a foreign airline transport pilot or foreign commercial pilot license and an instrument rating if the person holds a pilot license issued by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation;
e. Meet the aeronautical experience requirements applicable to the aircraft category and class rating sought before applying for the practical test;”
“f. Pass a knowledge test on the required aeronautical knowledge areas that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought;
g. Pass the practical test on the required areas of operation that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; and
h. Comply with the sections of Part 61 that apply to the aircraft category and class rating