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Aviation > FAR 135 Check Ride > Flashcards

FAR 135 Check Ride Flashcards

1
Q

61.15. If you are convicted of a DUI, who do you inform?

A

The Administrator (FAA) 60 days after conviction.

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2
Q

61.16. If you refuse to submit to an alcohol test or furnish results, what action would be taken by the FAA.

A

Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or suspension,or revocation of any certificate for up to one year.

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3
Q

61.17. A temporary pilot, flight instructor,or ground instructor certificate, or rating is issued for up to how many days?

A

120 Days

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4
Q

61.23. You as a commercial pilot must have what class of medical. How long is it good for?

A

2nd Class: One year
1St Class: 6 Months over age 40
One year under age 40.

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5
Q

61.29. If you lost your pilot certificate, or medical, how would you replace them?

A

You could request one in writing, or if needed sooner request a fax copy. This can be done on line at the FAA web site. Fax copy valid for 60 Days.

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6
Q

61.51. Do you have to log flight time?

A

Only that time necessary to show currency, or flight time, training for a new rating or certificate.

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7
Q

61.56. How often does a person need a flight review to act as PIC.

A

Every 24 months

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8
Q

61.57. What recent flight experience does a person need to have to act as PIC carrying passengers?

A

At least 3 take offs and landings in the proceeding 60 days and be the sole manipulator of the controls. Where NVG is concerned 61.57(f) states: 3 T/O and landings, 3 hovering tasks, 3 area departures, 3 transitions from aided to unaided.

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9
Q

61.60. How long do you have to notify the FAA of any permanent address changes?

A

30 days

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10
Q

SFAR 50-2. Can we fly into the Grand Canyon?

A

Yes, for medical emergencies, however you would still contact the FAA for written authorization.

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11
Q

91.3. What is the responsibility of the PIC?

A

The PIC is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to the safe operation of the aircraft.

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12
Q

91.13. What is the definition of “Careless and Reckless operation”?

A

No person may operate and aircraft in a careless, or reckless manner so as to endanger the life, or property of another.

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13
Q

91.15. Are we legally allowed to drop anything from an aircraft?

A

Yes, if precautions are taken to avoid injury, or damage to persons or property.

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14
Q

91.17. What does the FAA say about alcohol and flying?

A

8 hours and a BAL of less than .004, with no residual effects prior to operation. “8 hours bottle to throttle”

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15
Q

91.119. What is the lowest altitude a helicopter can legally fly under part 91?

A

At an altitude that would permit, if an engine failure occurs, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property.

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16
Q

91.125. What does a steady green light from the tower mean in flight?

A

Clear to land.

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17
Q

91.155. What are the basic weather minimums for Class B?

A

3 miles and clear of clouds

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18
Q

91.155. What are the cloud requirements for Class G airspace, 1200 feet above the surface, but below 10,000 msl day/night?

A

One mile day, 500 below, 1000, above, and 2000 horizontally. Night is Three miles, 500/1000/2000.

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19
Q

91.209. When are you required to turn on the AC position lights?

A

During the period from Sunset to Sunrise.

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20
Q

135.89 When does the minimum flight crew need to use O2 in the aircraft?

A

Any flight from 10,000 to 12,000 if duration is over 30 minutes, then above 12,000 continuously.

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21
Q

91.213. Can you take a flight with an inoperative Air Conditioner?

A

Yes, but only if it authorized by the MEL.

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22
Q

91.519. What does a passenger need to be briefed on prior to each take off?

A

No Smoking, use of seat belts, emergency exits, location of survival equipment and fire extinguisher.

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23
Q

135.63. Are we, as a single engine operator required to keep a manifest on file for 30 days?

A

No, only multiengine aircrafts are required to maintain such files.

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24
Q

135.65. Why must the maintenance log sheet be kept in the aircraft during all flights?

A

To be able to document all maintenance irregularities and write-ups, that may arise during the flight.

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25
Q

135.67. If you encounter a meteorological event, are you required to inform anyone?

A

Yes, the closest FAA facility, ATC, ARTCC, along your route of flight or region. FLIGHT WATCH 122.00, Approach, FSS, ARTCC, ATC Tower.

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26
Q

135.79. Are we required to have a dedicated Flight Following service for FAR 135 flights?

A

Yes, AMC Air-com, satisfies this requirement.

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27
Q

135.83. Is a checklist required in the cockpit? Must the pilot use it?

A

Yes/Yes

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28
Q

135.89. At what altitude must a pilot use O2 in flight?

A

Above 10,000 for more than 30 Minutes up to and including 12,000 feet, but continuously above 12,000 msl.

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29
Q

135.00. What is considered a critical phase of flight according to the FAA definition?

A

All taxi, take off, landing, and all flight below 10,000 feet MSL, except for cruise flight?

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30
Q

135.115. May a member of the FAA occupy the co-pilot seat and manipulate the controls, if they are current and qualified?

A

Yes, as long as they have shown proper identification.

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31
Q

135.119. Are members of a Federal, State, County, or local law enforcement agency allowed to carry weapons on board? Does this include Mace, or Pepper spray?

A

Yes, authorized firearms, or Tasers are permitted, but no Mace, Pepper spray or other gaseous agents.

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32
Q

135.144. What portable electronic devices are permitted aboard our company aircraft?

A

Hearing Aids, Pacemakers, voice recorders, electric shavers and portable GPS units?

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33
Q

135.155. How many fire extinguishers are we required to have in the B407?

A

One accessible to the flight crew.

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34
Q

135.159. According to this section, a helicopter that carries a MGW of less than 6000 lbs, must have what equipment installed and operational for VFR day/night flight?

A

Slip/skid indicator, gyroscopic bank and pitch indicator, gyroscopic direction indicator, and a generator. additionally for night flight anti-collision lighting system, instrument lights, and a 2 “D” cell flash light.

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35
Q

135.203. What is the lowest altitude over a congested area can we fly under part 135?

A

300 feet, 1/2 mile visibility as long as we do not endanger persons or property.

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36
Q

135.207. What does the FAA say about flying at night without visual surface light reference:

A

You MUST have enough visual surface light reference to safely control the aircraft regardless of weather the fight is aided or unaided.

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37
Q

135.209. What is our minimum fuel supply day or night in a helicopter?

A

FAR’s require 20 minutes, however we are further restricted by the AMC GOM to 20 + 10 minutes for a total of 30 minutes.

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38
Q

135.213. Can we take a VFR flight if you cannot get weather from an approved source under part 135?

A

Yes, the PIC can make his own observation or any other competent person of the weather to determine a go/no go weather decision.

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39
Q

135.265. What are the duty time limitations?

A

500 hrs in any one calendar quarter.
800 hrs in any two consecutive calendar quarters.
1400 hrs in a calendar year.
8 hrs. flight time in a 14 hrs period with 10 hrs, uninterrupted rest.
If you exceed 9 hours of flight time you must have 16 consecutive hours of rest before reporting for duty.

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40
Q

Can you as PIC use the weather observation provided by another pilot within your company, that is on a different segment of the route for weather information?

A

Yes

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41
Q

Can you as PIC utilize the weather information for a go, no go decision from a private pilot?

A

No

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42
Q

135.267. How many 24 hr rest periods are you provided per quarter?

A

13

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43
Q

135.267(e)(1). How many hours of rest are required if you fly 8 hrs and 39 minutes?

A

12

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44
Q

135.293/97. How often are you as PIC required to complete a check ride and route check to maintain 135 currencies?

A

Every 12 months

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45
Q

Scenario: You arrived at work to begin your shift at 7am. You then receive a fight request at 6PM that will cause you to land at your destination at 9:10 PM due to packaging and flight time to the receiving hospital. Can you accept this flight?

A

You cannot knowingly accept the flight if it will exceed the 14hrs. however, if there is an unforeseen delay enroute, or at the hospital or scene, you can exceed the 14hrs.

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46
Q

What is a front?

A

A boundary between two air masses of differing temperatures and pressures.

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47
Q

Describe an Occluded Front?

A

When a cold front overtakes a warm front, forcing the warm air aloft.

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48
Q

How fast does a stationary front move?

A

Its stationary, so it doesn’t move.

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49
Q

What indication do you get when a front has passed your location?

A

Directional wind shift.

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50
Q

What is Rime Ice?

A

It has a milky or granular appearance and freezing upon impact at 0-20 c.

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51
Q

What is Clear Ice?

A

Clear ice has a glossy texture, generally freeze’s in a sheet, produces extreme drag on the airframe.

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52
Q

Why is icing dangerous to an aircraft?

A

It causes increased drag, reduced airfoil efficiency, and requires more power/thrust, interrupts airflow reducing lift.

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53
Q

What is advection fog and where is it found?

A

Cool air moving over a warm surface. Can be found in Central Valley, San Diego

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54
Q

What is upslope fog and where will we find it?

A

Forced upward along slopes and hillsides and usually based on a temperature dew point spread that is less than 4 degrees.

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55
Q

What is the thunderstorm penetration speed of the B407

A

80 kts.

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56
Q

Should you turn around if you inadvertently encounter a T-Storm?

A

No, never, you should not due to severe stresses on the airframe which could cause structural damage. Excessive power demands, disorientation, or microburst.

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57
Q

What is the recommended distance to stay clear of thunderstorms?

A

Minimum 20 miles.

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58
Q

Are you permitted to enter restricted airspace without a clearance?

A

No, you must obtain clearance from the controlling agency prior to penetration. This info is located on the chart panel. ARTCC is generally one such contact point.

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59
Q

What equipment and information is required to enter class “B” airspace?

A

Two way radio, Mode C transponder and a clearance.

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60
Q

If on initial contact with ATC in Class “C” airspace the controller tells you to standby, can you continue?

A

Only if he/she acknowledges you with your full call sign. If he/she does not you must remain clear of the Class “C”.

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61
Q

Referencing the sectional for the KFAT class C airspace, what is the top of the Class “C”?

A

6600 MSL

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62
Q

Referencing the sectional, what is the field elevation at KTUS?

A

2643 MSL

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63
Q

What do the letters “AOE” signify on the Tower tabulation on the sectional.

A

Airport of Entry. This means it is generally an airport utilized for customs clearance and processing for international flights.

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64
Q

Referencing the Sectional what time does the Tower close at KTUS?

A

24 hour operation. Does not close.

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65
Q

What does the flag symbolize directly south of TUS on the sectional.

A

It simply identifies a reporting point or land mark name.

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66
Q

Does Davis Monthan Tower Close?

A

No

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67
Q

Does Davis Monthan have radar service available?

A

Yes

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68
Q

What airspace is depicted on the sectional for Ryan Airport, west of Tucson International?

A

Class “D”

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69
Q

Is a transponder required to operate at Ryan Airport?

A

No

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70
Q

What is the tower frequency at Ryan Airport?

A

125.8

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71
Q

What does the star behind the frequency mean?

A

Non continuous operation.

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72
Q

What type of lighting is available at Ryan Airport?

A

Pilot Controlled.

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73
Q

Which frequency is used for the airport at Phoenix Mesa Gateway after the tower closes?

A

120.6

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74
Q

What does the RP12R and 30R mean in the airport information listed on the sectional chart?

A

The RP preceding the runway number means Right Traffic Pattern for runway 12R and 30R.

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75
Q

What frequency would you use flying a helicopter into IAW?

A

118.8

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76
Q

What type of airspace does IWA revert to when the tower closes?

A

Class “G”

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77
Q

At what altitude should we fly at when transitioning over a wilderness area?

A

Recommended at 2000 AGL

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78
Q

Name three conditions which must be present to create dynamic roll over?

A
  1. Contact with the ground.
  2. Rolling moment.
  3. Exceed the critical roll point.
79
Q

What causes Settling with power and how will you eliminate the conditions?

A

Excessive rate of decent, high power setting, calm or tail wind condition.

Make sure not to approach downwind.
Stabilize approach from 300 AGL, do not exceed 200 FPM rate of decent.

Changing the lateral position at least the width of the rotor disc can help recovery.

80
Q

Describe how relative wind is a factor during an autorotation?

A

During an autorotation it is imperative to change the direction of relative wind from straight ahead to up thru the rotor. The wrong direction of relative wind will cause rotor decay.

81
Q

How many gallons of fuel does the A119 carry

A

158 gallons, 476 kg

82
Q

How many kilos per tank?

A

Upper: 244 kg
Lowers: 120 kg

83
Q

Fuel Pressure for the system

A

7-25 PSI

84
Q

How many boost pumps are there?

A

2

85
Q

How many fuel filters are there on the A119?

A

2

86
Q

How many fuel probes are there in the A119 fuel system?

A

5 probes

87
Q

How many minutes of flight time remain when the XFER light illuminates?

A

Approximately 30 minutes.

88
Q

How much flight time remains when the Low Fuel Light illuminates?

A

Approximately 10 minutes

89
Q

If the Flow light illuminates, what has happened.

A

A fuel sensor is inoperative.

90
Q

What is the procedure if your fuel pressure drops in flight?

A

Land as soon as practical.

91
Q

What does the abbreviation SAS mean?

A

Stability Augmentation System

92
Q

Where are the Helipilot systems located on the A119?

A

In the Nose avionics bay.

93
Q

Where are the synchro’s located on the A119?

A

Under the front seats.

94
Q

Why does the force trim system have to be on to use the SAS properly?

A

To operate the Mag Brakes.

95
Q

How many VG’s does the A119 have?

A

2, located in the nose bay.

96
Q

What electrical source powers the SAS system?

A

115 VAC inverters

97
Q

Explain how the SAS works?

A

Through a series of mechanical inputs and electrical signals.

98
Q

If you loose one inverter, what will be effected and what action does the pilot take.

A

If one inverter fails, the corresponding SAS system will automatically trip off line. The operating Inverter will automatically pick up the load of the failed inverter, but the pilot will have to re-engage the failed SAS system.

99
Q

What capability is lost if the #2 SAS fails?

A

The attitude hold function will be inoperative.

100
Q

If you encounter oscillations on landing, what action should you take?

A

Go around, attempt to isolate the appropriate SAS system, disengage and attempt another landing.

101
Q

What is the emergency procedure for a SAS failure?

A

Reduce VNE 30’Knots, limit rate of climb/decent to 750’fpm land as soon as practical.

102
Q

61.3. What valid documents must you have in your position to act as PIC?

A

Pilot Certificate, Current Medical, and Photo ID

103
Q

How does dissymmetry of lift affect a hydraulics failure?

A

Due to the reduction of hydraulic assist, it makes the effects of dissymmetry of lift more pronounced.

104
Q

How many hydraulic pumps are present on the A119?

A

2

105
Q

Where are the hydraulic pumps on a A119 located?

A

On the lower main transmission case, one left, and one right.

106
Q

What is the minimum hydraulic pressure permitted for flight?

A

1400 to 1550 PSI

107
Q

At what pressure does the SERVO light illuminate?

A

1138 PSI, +- 50 PSI

108
Q

How many hydraulic servos are associated with the A119?

A

7

3 dual actuated servos located on the transmission, and 1 single actuated for the tail rotor mounted in the left side aft baggage compartment area behind accessible through an access panel just aft of the baggage compartment door.

109
Q

How many servos are present for the tailrotor assembly?

A

1, located on the left side of the AC located in the baggage compartment.

110
Q

What is the purpose of the hydraulic accumulators on the A119?

A

To reduce feedback.

111
Q

Does the A119 hydraulic systems have a bypass capability?

A

No

112
Q

The LRB’s inform the pilot/mechanic that what has happened?

A

Filter has clogged.

113
Q

What is the hydraulic emergency procedure?

A

Reduce VNE to less than 90 KTS, (max). Maximum 25 degrees bank angle and Land as Soon As Practical.

114
Q

When should the EEC/MEC light be illuminated?

A

During engine start, and when the EEC fails.

115
Q

Does the pilot have to engage EEC to MEC mode during an EEC failure?

A

No, it automatically switches, once it does, then switch the switch.

116
Q

If a long blink is noted during system test of the EEC, what does this mean?

A

The system has detected a fault.

117
Q

What type of approach should you do when a EEC fault has occurred?

A

Shallow

118
Q

Where is the EEC LOCATED?

A

Right upper engine.

119
Q

What is the primary function of the EEC?

A

To maintain N2 speed.

120
Q

What internal part of the EEC allows it to operate?

A

Torque motor.

121
Q

Where is the Digital Electronic Engine Control located?

A

Aft of the cabin.

122
Q

Is N1 overspeed protection available in both EEC and MEC mode?

A

Yes

123
Q

EEC FAIL message illuminate in flight what happens?

A

MEC mode automatically is enabled.

124
Q

EEC Degraded will only occur when?

A

On the ground

125
Q

Name the three ways MEC mode is enabled?

A
  1. During engine start.
  2. Automatically if EEC fails.
  3. Manually by the pilot switching to MEC mode.
126
Q

Procedure for EEC failure in flight?

A

Select MEC mode and continue flight.

127
Q

What are the three primary electrical sources on the A119?

A
  1. Battery
  2. Generator
  3. 115 VAC inverters
128
Q

What two busses are energized when the battery is engaged?

A
  1. Battery Buss

2. Emergency Buss

129
Q

Why does the buss tie have to be on to start the A119?

A

The starter circuit is energized by the 28VDC buss, and the buss tie must be activated to power that buss.

130
Q

Why does the buss tie have to be engaged to operate the Navigation Lights?

A

The Navigation Lights are powered off the 28VDC buss which is only energized when the buss tie is engaged.

131
Q

Can you start the A119, if the GCU light is illuminated?

A

No, because the RFM procedure advises to repair prior to flight, and the starter will not energize. This indicates a fault in the starter/generator system.

132
Q

Which advisory lights will illuminate when the starter button is depressed?

A

The ENG start and IGN lights.

133
Q

At what N1 will the starter automatically disengage?

A

43%

134
Q

What is the emergency procedure for generator failure?

A
  1. Attempt reset, if it does not come on line:
  2. Turn generator off
  3. Reenergize buss tie
  4. CoPilot ICS (if installed) Norm/Fail Switch to FAIL
  5. Land as soon as practical. (Approximately 30 minutes battery) only one fuel boost pump operational.
135
Q

How does dissymmetry of lift affect a hydraulics failure?

A

Due to the reduction of hydraulic assist, it makes the effects of dissymmetry of lift more pronounced.

136
Q

How many hydraulic pumps are present on the A119?

A

2

137
Q

Where are the hydraulic pumps on a A119 located?

A

On the lower main transmission case, one left, and one right.

138
Q

What is the minimum hydraulic pressure permitted for flight?

A

1400 to 1550 PSI

139
Q

At what pressure does the SERVO light illuminate?

A

1138 PSI, +- 50 PSI

140
Q

How many hydraulic servos are associated with the A119?

A

7

Three double actuators mounted on the transmission and one single actuator style for the tail rotor, mounted on the left side in aft baggage compartment.

141
Q

How many servos are present for the tailrotor assembly?

A

1, located on the left side of the AC located in the baggage compartment.

142
Q

What is the purpose of the hydraulic accumulators on the A119?

A

To reduce feedback.

143
Q

What is the emergency procedure for generator failure?

A
  1. Attempt reset, if it does not come on line:
  2. Turn generator off
  3. buss tie off
  4. Reduce electrical load
  5. Land as soon as practical. (Approximately 30 minutes battery)
144
Q

At what N1 will the starter automatically disengage?

A

43%

145
Q

Which advisory lights will illuminate when the starter button is depressed?

A

The ENG start and IGN lights.

146
Q

Can you start the A119, if the GCU light is illuminated?

A

No, because the RFM procedure advises to repair prior to flight, and the starter will not energize. This indicates a fault in the starter/generator system.

147
Q

Why does the buss tie have to be engaged to operate the Navigation Lights?

A

The Navigation Lights are powered off the 28VDC buss which is only energized when the buss tie is engaged.

148
Q

Why does the buss tie have to be on to start the A119?

A

The starter circuit is energized by the 28VDC buss, and the buss tie must be activated to power that buss.

149
Q

What two busses are energized when the battery is engaged?

A
  1. Battery Buss

2. Emergency Buss

150
Q

What are the three primary electrical sources on the A119?

A
  1. Battery
  2. Generator
  3. 115 VAC inverters
151
Q

Procedure for EEC failure in flight?

A

Select MEC mode and continue flight.

152
Q

Name the three ways MEC mode is enabled?

A
  1. During engine start.
  2. Automatically if EEC fails.
  3. Manually by the pilot switching to MEC mode.
153
Q

EEC Degraded will only occur when?

A

On the ground

154
Q

EEC FAIL message illuminate in flight what happens?

A

MEC mode automatically is enabled.

155
Q

Is N1 overspeed protection available in both EEC and MEC mode?

A

Yes

156
Q

Where is the Digital Electronic Engine Control located?

A

Aft of the cabin.

157
Q

What internal part of the EEC allows it to operate?

A

Torque motor.

158
Q

What is the primary function of the EEC?

A

To maintain N2 speed.

159
Q

Where is the EEC LOCATED?

A

Right upper engine.

160
Q

What type of approach should you do when a EEC fault has occurred?

A

Shallow

161
Q

If a long blink is noted during system test of the EEC, what does this mean?

A

The system has detected a fault.

162
Q

Does the pilot have to engage EEC to MEC mode during an EEC failure?

A

No, it automatically switches, once it does, then switch the switch.

163
Q

When should the EEC/MEC light be illuminated?

A

During engine start, and when the EEC fails.

164
Q

What is the hydraulic emergency procedure?

A

Reduce VNE to less than 90 KTS, (max). Maximum 25 degrees bank angle and Land as Soon As Practical.

165
Q

The LRB’s inform the pilot/mechanic that what has happened?

A

Filter has clogged.

166
Q

Does the A119 hydraulic systems have a bypass capability?

A

No

167
Q

What is the maximum AMPS supplied by the electrical system?

A

200 AMPS

168
Q

Where are the inverters installed on the A119?

A

Nose Avionics Bay

169
Q

What component of the fuel system is wired to the battery bus?

A

Fuel Pump #1

170
Q

Engine Hot Start Procedures?

A
  1. Throttle to CUT OFF
  2. IGN switch to OFF
  3. Engine Starter Motor
  4. Fuel Valve OFF
  5. Fuel Pumps 1&2 OFF
  6. XFER Pump Switch OFF
171
Q

Engine Oil Pressure below Limits?

A

N-1 greater than 72% Pressure BTW 40-80 PSI
Cyclic set for level flight.
Reduce Power
Air Speed 60-70 KTS
N-1 Below 72%, engine oil pressure check status, if 40-80 LASAPR
If 40-80 and decreasing, or below 40, LASAP

172
Q

Engine Compressor Stall

A

Reduce collective immediately.
Airspeed to 60-70 KTS in Level Flight
Check ITT and N1
LASAPR

173
Q

Engine Droop Compensation

A

Binding pin requires 8.8 lbs of force to shear.
Once sheared collective forces will return to normal
MEC will be inop
EEC not affected by this failure.
EEC/MEC Switch to EEC
LASAPR

174
Q

Loss of Tail Rotor components
Fixed Pitch
Loss of Thrust

A

Maintain level cruise flight
Reduce speed to 60 KTS
Check for vibration and noise
Slowly raise collective to MCP
Check pedals effectiveness for yaw control
If Pedal are not effective, enter Autorotation.

175
Q

Tail Rotor Failure at Hover

A

Engine throttle to idle,

Collective adjust to cushion landing.

176
Q

Loss of Tail Rotor in flight

A 
Enter Autorotation
Throttle Off
Fuel Valve Off
Fuel Pumps Off
XFER Pump Off
Generator Off
Battery Off
177
Q

DC Generator Failure which lights will illuminate?

A

INV2
SAS2
Fuel Pump 2

178
Q

Engine Fire on Ground

A 
Throttle OFF
Fuel Valve OFF
Fuel Pumps OFF
XFER Pump OFF
Generator OFF
Battery OFF
179
Q

Engine Fire in Flight

A 
Immediately maintain NR between 90-110%
Gain Autorotative speed quickly
Throttle OFF
Fuel Valve OFF
Fuel Pumps OFF
XFER Pump Off
Generator OFF
Battery OFF (after landing)
180
Q

What altitude must you maintain at night btw 2300-0500 When requesting the Sharp Alpha?

A

Maintain 2500 MSL other times below 2500 MSL

181
Q

Must you report Landing Assured? and at what altitude?

A

Yes, 1600 MSL, during descent to landing.

182
Q

What transponder code do you use for Sharp Alpha?

A

0400

183
Q

What frequency is used to request the Sharp Alpha north of the tower?

A

118.7

184
Q

What frequency is used South of the tower for the Sharp Alpha?

A

120.9

185
Q

VFR minimums in Non Mountainous non-local DAY/NIGHT

A

Day: 1000/3 mi.
Night Unaided: 1500/5 mi.
W/NVG’s: 1000/5 mi.

186
Q

SPVFR - Special VFR, what are the day and night minimums?

A

Day: 700/2mi.
Night: 800/3mi.

187
Q

Where is Chart “C” located & What is it?

A

Chart C is located in section 6 W&B of the RFM.

It is the actual as equipped and weighted W&B for a particular AC.

188
Q

What are the slope landing limitations for the A119.

A

Nose up: 12 degrees
Nose Dn: 2 degrees
Side: 10 degrees

189
Q

What are the NR limits of the A119

A

90%. - 110%

190
Q

What are the NR limits of the A119

A

90%. - 110%

191
Q

What are the N-1 Limitations for the A119?

A

51% min

60-101% continious

192
Q

What are the Torque limits on the A 119?

A

100% Max Continuous
100% to 108.5 % 5 minute (75kts)
115% for 6 second transient

193
Q

What are the Torque limits on the A 119?

A

100% Max Continuous
100% to 108.5 % 5 minute (75kts)
115% for 6 second transient

194
Q

N2 Limitations

A

Min: 95%
99 to 101% Max Continuous Range
103% Max
108% Transient 10 Seconds

Aviation (7 decks)

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