Family Planning Flashcards

1
Q

Family planning defn

A

Family planning refers to practices that help individuals or couples to attain certain objectives : ·

(a) to avoid unwanted births
(b) to bring about wanted births
(c) to regulate the intervals between pregnancies
(d) to control the time at which births occur in relation to the ages of the parent
(e) to determine the number of children in the family.

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2
Q

Scope of family planning

A

(1) the proper spacing and limitation of births,
(2) advice on sterility,
(3) education for parenthood
(4) sex education, (5) screening for pathological conditions related to the reproductive system (e.g., cervical cancer), (6) genetic counselling, (7) premarital consultation and examination, {8) carrying out pregnancy tests, (9) marriage counselling, (10) the preparation of couples for the arrival of their first child, (11) providing services for unmarried mothers, (12) teaching home economics and nutrition, and (13) providing adoption services

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3
Q

Health aspects of family planning

A

Women’s health
Foetal health
Infant and Child health

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4
Q

Women’s health aspect in family planning

A

In developing countries, the risk of dying as a result of pregnancy is much greater than in developed countries.
The risk increases as the mother grows older and after she has had 3 or 4 children.

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5
Q

How does family planning improves women’s health

A

intervening in the reproductive cycle of women, helps them to control the number, interval and timing of pregnancies and births, and thereby reduces maternal mortality and morbidity and improves health.

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6
Q

How did they improve the women’s health through family planning

A

(i) the avoidance of unwanted pregnancies;
(ii) limiting the number of births and proper spacing, and
(iii) timing the births, particularly the first and last, in relation to the age of the mother.

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7
Q

the most dangerous consequence of unwanted pregnancy?

A

Going for Criminal abortion
Others :
Higher incidence of mental disturbance among mothers who have had unwanted pregnancies

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8
Q

Risk of repeated pregnancy

A

Anaemia (m.c)
Rupture of utters and uterine atony
Eclampsia
Placental Previa all these cause ⬆️ maternal mortality

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9
Q

How does timing of birth influence maternal health ?

A

complications of pregnancy and delivery show the same pattern of risk, with the highest rate below 20 and over 35 years of age.

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10
Q

Influence of advancing maternal age with foetal life

A

⬆️ incidence of congenital anomalies (e.g., Down’s syndrome) are associated with advancing maternal age

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11
Q

Child mortality and family planning

A

child mortality increases when pregnancies occur in rapid succession.

A birth interval of 2 to 3 years is considered desirable to reduce child mortality.

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12
Q

Child growth, development and nutrition and family planning

A

Birth spacing and family size are important factors in child growth and development. The child is likely to receive his full share of love and care, including nutrition he needs, when the family size is small and births are properly spaced.
Family planning, in other words, is effective prevention against malnutrition

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13
Q

What kind of infection could child probably get when living in large sized family

A

Infectious gastroenteritis

Respiratory and skin infections

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14
Q

2 child norm

A

“Sons or Daughters two will do”; “Second child after 3 years”, and “Universal Immunization”.

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15
Q

2 child norm is attained only when ———

A

Net reproduction rate = 1

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16
Q

Eligible couples defn

A

currently married couple wherein the wife is in the reproductive age, which is generally assumed to lie between the ages of 15 and 45.

There will be at least 150 to 180 such couples per 1000 population in India.

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17
Q

target couple defn

A

couples who have had 2-3 living children, and family planning was largely directed to such couples.

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18
Q

indicator of the prevalence of contraceptive practice in the community?

A

Couple protection rate (CPR)

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19
Q

Couple protection rate (CPR) defn.

A

per cent of eligible couples effectively protected against childbirth by one or the other approved methods of family planning, viz. sterilization, IUD, condom or oral pills.

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20
Q

CPR is a dominant factor in the reduction of———

A

net reproduction rate

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21
Q

Contraceptive defn

A

preventive methods to help women avoid unwanted pregnancies

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22
Q

Characteristics of ideal contraception

A

safe, effective, acceptable, inexpensive, reversible, simple to administer, independent of coitus, long-lasting enough to obviate frequent administration and requiring little or no medical supervision.

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23
Q

Current approach in family planning programs

A

“cafeteria choice” that is to offer all methods from which an individual can choose according to his needs and wishes and to promote family planning as a way of life.

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24
Q

What is conventional contraceptives

A

those methods that require action at the time of sexual intercourse, e.g., condoms, spermicides, etc.

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25
Q

Classify contraceptive methods

A

spacing methods and terminal method

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26
Q

Classify spacing methods

A
Barrier methods
Intrauterine devices 
Hormonal methods
Post conceptional methods
Miscellaneous
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27
Q

Classify terminal methods

A

Male sterilisation

Female sterilisation

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28
Q

Classify barrier methods

A

(a) Physical methods (b) Chemical methods (c) Combined methods

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29
Q

Aim of barrier method

A

prevent live sperm from meeting the ovum

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30
Q

Advantage of barrier methods

A

Absence of side effects
protection from sexually transmitted diseases,
a reduction in the incidence of pelvic inflammatory disease
possibly some protection from the risk of cervical cancer

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31
Q

Disadvantage of barrier method

A

less effective than either the pill or the loop

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32
Q

Condom using procedure

A

The condom is fitted on the erect penis before intercourse. The air must be expelled from the teat end to make room for the ejaculate. The condom must be held carefully when withdrawing it from the vagina to avoid spilling seminal fluid into the vagina after intercourse. A new condom should be used for each sexual act.

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33
Q

The effectiveness of a condom may be increased by using it in conjunction with

A

a spermicidal jelly inserted into the vagina before intercourse

The spermicide serves as additional protection in the unlikely event that the condom should slip off or tear.

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34
Q

Advantages of condom

A

(a) they are easily available (b) safe and inexpensive (c) easy to use; do not require medical supervision (d) no side effects (e) light, compact and disposable, and (f) provides protection not only against pregnancy but also against STD

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35
Q

Disadvantage of condom

A

(a) it may slip off or tear during coitus due to incorrect use, and (b) interferes with sex sensation locally about which some complain while others get used to it. The main limitation of condoms is that many men do not use them regularly or carefully, even when the risk of unwanted pregnancy or sexually transmitted disease is high.

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36
Q

Female condom is made up of

A

polyurethane

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37
Q

Female condom

A

An internal ring in the close end of the pouch covers the cervix and an external ring remains outside the vagina. It is prelubricated with silicon, and a spermicide need not be used. It is an effective barrier to STD infection. However, high cost and acceptability are major problems.

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38
Q

Failure rates of female condom

A

5 per 100 women-years pregnancy rate to about 21 in typical users

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39
Q

Failure rates of male condom

A

2-3 per 100 women- years to more than 14 in typical users

40
Q

Diaphragm also known as

A

Dutch cup

41
Q

Diaphragm is made up of

A

The shallow cup is made up of synthetic rubber or plastic material

42
Q

Diameter of diaphragm

A

5 to 10com (2 to 4 inches)

43
Q

Other components of diaphragm

A

It has a flexible rim made of spring or metal

44
Q

Diaphragm is held in position by

A

It is held in position partly by the spring tension and partly by the vaginal muscle tone

45
Q

When will the sim of diaphragm may slip down

A

In case of a severe degree of Cystocele

46
Q

Procedure for use of diaphragm

A

The diaphragm is inserted before sexual intercourse and must remain in place for not less than 6 hours after sexuai intercourse. A spermicidal jelly is always used along with the diaphragm. The diaphragm holds the spermicide over the cervix. Side-effects are practically nil.

47
Q

Failure rate for the diaphragm with spermicide

A

between 6 to 12 per 100 women-years

48
Q

Advantage of diaphragm

A

The primary advantage of the diaphragm is the almost total absence of risks and medical contraindications.

49
Q

Disadvantage of diaphragm

A

Initially a physician or other trained person will be needed to demonstrate the technique of inserting the diaphragm into the vagina and to ensure a proper fit. After delivery, it can be used only after involution of the uterus is completed.
Privacy for insertion to be carried out and facilities for washing and storing the diaphragm precludes its use in most Indian families, particularly in the rural areas.

50
Q

If the diaphragm is left in the vagina for an extended period

A

remote possibility of a toxic shock syndrome

51
Q

Variations of the diaphragm include

A

the cervical cap, vault cap and the vimule cap.

52
Q

Older days Vaginal sponge is made up of

A

Vinegar or olive oil

53
Q

Recent vaginal sponge is made of up

A

small polyurethane foam sponge measuring 5 cm x 2.5 cm, saturated with the spermicide, nonoxynol-9

54
Q

Failure rate in vaginal sponge

A

failure rate in parous women is between 20 to 40 per 100 women-years and in nulliparous women about 9 to 20 per 100 women- years

55
Q

4 categories of chemical method

A

a) Foams : foam tablets, foam aerosols
b) Creams, jellies and pastes squeezed from a tube
c) Suppositories inserted manually, and
d) Soluble films - C-film inserted manually.

56
Q

MOA of spermicide

A

modern spermicides are “surface-active agents” which attach themselves to spermatozoa and inhibit oxygen uptake and kill sperms

57
Q

Drawbacks of spermicide

A

) they have a high failure rate (b) they must be used almost immediately before intercourse and repeated before each sex act (c) they must be introduced into those regions of the vagina where sperms are likely to be deposited, and (d) they may cause mild burning or irritation, besides messiness. The spermicide should be free from potential systemic toxicity. It should not have an inflammatory or carcinogenic effect on the vaginal skin or cervix. No spermicide which is safe to use has yet been found to be really effective in preventing pregnancy when used alone

58
Q

Types of IUD

A

non-medicated

medicated

59
Q

Material used for making IUD

A

non-medicated and medicated are usually made of polyethylene or other polymers; in addition, the medicated or bioactive IUDs release either metal ions (copper) or hormones (progestogens).

60
Q

What are 1 2 and 3 gen IUD

A

The non-medicated or inert IUDs are often referred to as first generation IUDs.

The copper IUDs comprise the second

the hormone-releasing IUDs the third generation IUDs.

61
Q

Importance of 3rd gen IUD

A

The medicated IUDs were developed to reduce the incidence of side-effects and to increase the contraceptive effectiveness.
However, they are more expensive and must be changed after a certain time to maintain their effectiveness

62
Q

In India, under the National Family Welfare Programme which IUD is in use ?

A

Cu-T-200 B is being used.

From the year 2002, Cu-T-380 A has been introduced in the programme

63
Q

Lippes loop

A

M.c used first generation IUDs in developing countries

double-S shaped device made of polyethylene, a plastic material that is non-toxic, non-tissue reactive and extremely durable.
Loop has attached threads or “tail” made of fine nylon, which project into the vagina after insertion. The tail can be easily felt and is a reassurance to the user that the Loop is in its place. The tail also makes it easy to remove the Loop when desired

64
Q

How does lippes loop allow x ray observation

A

It contains a small amount of barium sulphate to allow X-ray observation

65
Q

What are sizes in which lippes loop is manufactured?

A

The Lippes Loop exists in four sizes A,B,C, and D, the latter being the largest. A larger sized device usually has a greater anti-fertility effect and a lower expulsion rate but a higher removal rate because of side-effects such as pain and bleeding. The larger Loops (C and D) are more suitable for multiparous women.

66
Q

Why 2nd gen IUD are developed ?

A

metallic copper had a strong anti-fertility effect

The addition of copper has made it possible to develop smaller devices which are easier to fit, even in nulliparous women.

67
Q

What are the available 2nd gen IUD

A
Earlier devices :
- Copper- 7
- Copper T-200
Newer devices :
Variants of the T device
(i) Cu-T-220 C
(ii) Cu-T-380 A or Ag
- NovaT
- Multiload devices
(i) ML-Cu-250 (ii) ML-Cu-375
68
Q

Advantage of multiload copper t and newer variants of copper t

A

having an effective life of at least 5 years. They can be left in place safely for the time, unless specific medical or personal reasons call for earlier removal.

69
Q

Advantages of copper devices

A

Low expulsion rate

Lower incidence of side-effects, e.g., pain and bleeding

easier to fit even in nulliparous women better tolerated by nullipara

increased contraceptive effectiveness

effective as post-coital contraceptives, if inserted within 3-5 days of unprotected intercourse

70
Q

Most widely used hormonal IUD

A

progestasert, which is a T-shaped device filled with 38 mg of progesterone,

71
Q

The hormone is released slowly in the uterus at the rate of

A

65 mcg daily.

It has a direct local effect on the uterine lining, on the cervial mucus and possibly on the sperms.

72
Q

What is LNG 20

A

Also called as Mirenais - a T-shaped IUD releasing 20 mcg of levonorgestrel (a potent synthetic steroid)

73
Q

Advantage of LNG 20

A
  • It has a low pregnancy rate (0.2 per 100 women)
  • less number of ectopic pregnancies
  • lower menstrual blood loss and fewer days of bleeding than the copper devices.
  • has an effective life of 10 years
74
Q

MOA of IUD

A

IUD causes a foreign-body reaction in the uterus causing cellular and biochemical changes in the endometrium and uterine fluids, and it is believed that these changes impair the viability of the gamete and thus reduce its chances of fertilization, rather than its implantation.

75
Q

MOA of medicated IUD

A

Copper seems to enhance the cellular response in the endometrium

It also affects the enzymes in the uterus. By altering the biochemical composition of cervial mucus, copper ions may affect sperm motility, capacitation and survival

76
Q

MOA of hormonal IUD

A

Hormone-releasing devices increase the viscosity of the cervical mucus and thereby prevent sperm from entering the cervix.
They also maintain high levels of progesterone in the endometrium and thus, relatively low levels of oestrogen, thereby sustaining an endometrium unfavourable to implantation

77
Q

Theorerical effectiveness of IUD

A

The “theoretical effectiveness” of IUD is less than that of oral and injectable hormonal contraceptives. But since IUDs have longer continuation rates than the hormonal pills or injections, the overall effectiveness of IUDs and oral contraceptives are about the same in family planning programmes

78
Q

Explain change of IUD of various types

A

Inert IUDs such as Lippes Loop may be left in place as long as required, if there are no side-effects.

Copper devices cannot be used indefinitely because copper corrodes and mineral deposits build up on the copper affecting the release of copper ions. They have to be replaced periodically.

The same applies to the hormone-releasing devices.

79
Q

Approved use of IUD
CU T 380A
CU T 200
NOVA T

A

10
4
5 years

80
Q

Efficacy of CU T 380 A is for_________ years

A

12

81
Q

The progesterone-releasing IUD must be replaced________ because of ________

A

every year because the reservoir of progesterone is depleted in 12-18 months

82
Q

Advantage of IUD

A

(a) simplicity, i.e., no complex procedures are involved in insertion; no hospitalization is required (b) insertion takes only a few minutes (c) once inserted IUD stays in place as long as required (d) inexpensive (e) contraceptive effect is reversible by removal of IUD (f) virtually free of systemic metabolic side-effects associated with hormonal pills (g) highest continuation rate, and (h) there is no need for the continual motivation required to take a pill daily or to use a barrier method consistently; only a single act of motivation is required.

83
Q

Absolute contraindications of IUD

A

(a) suspected pregnancy (b) pelvic inflammatory disease (c) vaginal bleeding of undiagnosed aetiology (d) cancer of the cervix, uterus or adnexia and other pelvic tumours (e) previous ectopic pregnancy

84
Q

Relative contraindications

A

a) anaemia (b) menorrhagia (c) history of PID since last pregnancy (d) purulent cervical discharge (e) distortions of the uterine cavity due to congenital malformations, fibroids (f) unmotivated person

85
Q

What is PPFA

A

The Planned Parenthood Federation of America

86
Q

The ideal IUD candidate

A
  • who has borne at least one child
  • has no history of pelvic disease
  • has normal menstrual periods
  • is willing to check the IUD tail
  • has access to follow-up and treatment of potential problems
  • is in a monogamous relationship.
87
Q

IUD is not a method of first choice for

A

nulliparous women
expulsions, low abdominal pain and pelvic infection, than other women. IUDs such as copper-T, which are smaller and more pliable are better suited to the small uterus of the nulliparous women, if they cannot use or accept alternative methods of contraception.

88
Q

IUD are not recommended for

A

women who have not had children or who have multiple partners, because of the risk of PID and possible infertility

89
Q

Ideal time for insertion of IUD for women who hasn’t delivered baby recently

A

during menstruation or within 10 days of the beginning of a menstrual period

  • It is easy to insert because the diameter of the cervical canal is greater at this time than during the secretory phase & The uterus is relaxed and myometrial contractions which might tend to cause expulsion are at a minimum
  • The risk of getting pregnant is minimal
90
Q

Ideal time for inserting IUD for a women who had delivered a baby recently

A

first week after delivery before the woman leaves the hospital (“immediate postpartum insertion”)

91
Q

Risk of IUD ON IMMEDIATE POSTPARTUM INSERTION

A

perforation

High expulsion rates

92
Q

Convenient time for insertion of IUD in women has has delivered a baby recently

A

6-8 weeks after delivery (“post-puerperal insertion)

93
Q

Objectives for following up IUD wearers

A

(a) to provide motivation and emotional support for the woman (b) to confirm the presence of the IUD, and (c) diagnose and treat any side-effect or complication

94
Q

Which are time ps IUD wearers are to be examined

A

After her first menstrual period, for the chances of loop expulsion are high during this period; and again after the third menstrual period to evaluate the problems of pain and bleeding; and thereafter at six-month or one-year intervals depending upon the facilities and the convenience of the patient.

95
Q

What are the instructions given for IUD wearers

A

a) she should regularly check the threads or “tail” to be sure that the IUD is in the uterus; if she fails to locate the threads, she must consult the doctor (b) she should visit the clinic whenever she experiences any side- effects such as fever, pelvic pain and bleeding, and (c) if she misses a period, she must consult the doctor.