FAMily Med SG9 Flashcards

1
Q

How do you use progesterone levels to tell whether the pregnancy is viable?

A

Less than 5 is an evolving miscarriage. Over 25 is sustainable intrauterine pregancy. But algorithms using progesterone measurements have been assoc with a higher use of sugical management and missed ectopics (since 85% of ectopics will have a normal progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How can you use ultrasound to predict EDD throughout the trimesters?

A

In the first trimester, the crown-rump length is measured and the accuracy is within 1 week. If the EGA based on the ultrasound is greater than 1 week, you go by the ultrasound. In the second trimester, you do way more than 1 crown-rump measurement; you take a total of 4 measurements. These include biparietal diameter, head circumference, abdominal circumference, and femur length. In the second trimester, the accuracy is +/- 2 weeks and the same rules apply as in the first trimester. In the third trimester, the accuracy is pus or minus 3 weeks and you do not change the EGA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How to manage an inevitable abortion?

A

You have 3 options- expectant management (but can take months), surgical managemen (D and C or vacuum), or medical management (vaginal misoprostol, then repeat on day 3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the time to completion for medical management of inevitable abortion

A

3-4 days; and the success rate is 95%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Most frequent causes of death for a 55 yo M

A

Malignancy, heart disease, accident, DM, chronic lung disease, chronic liver disease, and cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Minor risk factors for CVD (those used for calculating the ASCVD)

A

Sedentary lifestyle, stress, premture family hx, excess alcohol use, obesity, poor diet, low selenium, and high homocysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a MAJOR risk factor for CVD?

A

Current smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the guidelines in terms of assessing the risk of your patients for CVD?

A

Assess major risk factos every 4 to 6 years in adults 20-79 who are free from atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How effective are oral meds (like buproprion or varenicline) in helping smokers quit?

A

They increase the quit rate at 12 mos by twice. However, the quit rate is only like 2%, so they increase it to 4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What interventions have been proven to increase quit rates?

A

Group setting, oral meds, one-on-one counseling in combo with med, providing problem solving skills, assistacne, with social supports, and use of relaxation breathing techniques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

CAGE questinairre for drinkers

A

Felt the need to cut down, felt annoyed by criticism of your drinking, had guilty feeling about drinking, morning eye opener

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Waist circumference and waist-hip ratio are independent risk factors for what?

A

obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Definition of metabolic syndrome

A

Any 3 of the following 5: fasting glucose over 100, BP over 130/85, triglycerides over 150, HDL less than 40 for men or less than 50 for womne, abdominal obesity (waist circumference over 40 for men or over 35 for women)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Corneal arcus

A

Physical exam finding associated with dyslipidemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Melanoma ABCDE

A

Assymetry, borders irreg, color heterogenous, diameter over 6 mm, evolution over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When do you get the zoster vaccine?

A

Age 60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Lung cancer screening

A

Pts 55-80 with 30 pack years who currently smoke or smoked in the last 15 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hep C screening

A

One time screen for adults born between 1945 and 1965

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Screening questions for depression

A

Over the past 2 weeks, have you felt down, depressed, or hopeless? Over the past 2 weeks, have you felt little pleasure in doing things?

20
Q

Options for colon cancer screening

A

Colonoscopy every 10 years; Annual testing of 3 stools for blood plus flex sig every 5 years; Double contrast enema every 5 years; Virtual colonoscopy is considered experimental

21
Q

Lipid screening guidelines

A

Every 5 years, a lipid panel should be done. Treat with statins all patients over 20 yo with LDL over 190

22
Q

ECG changes that suggest existing coronary disease

A

ST depression or downsloaping ST suggests ischemia; ST elev is MI; Q waves suggest infarction

23
Q

U waves on ECG

A

Very nonspecific. Can be associated with bradycardia, hypokalemia, hypercalcema, or hypomagnesemia

24
Q

USDHandHS recommendations for exercise

A

Men participate in at least 150 min of moderate intensity aerobic exercise per week as well as muscle strengthening at least twice a week

25
Recommendation for AAA screening
This is a B level recommendation. A one time abdominal ultrasound of the aorta in males 65-75 who have smoked
26
Diet recs to lower heart disease
Fish twice a week. Oils in tofu, soy, canola, walnuts, flaxseed. Studies show that Vit C, E, and folic acid do NOT reduce the risk of MI or stroke
27
What are the top 4 causes of mortality in the US
Top is smoking. Next obesity, then DM, then hypertension
28
Cancers that are increased by obesity
Endometrial, breast, colon
29
Wagner ulcer grading system for diabetic ulcers- stages 1 through 5
Stage 1 involves full skin but no underlying tissue damage; Stage 2 is down to ligaments and muscle but no bone; Stage 3 is deep cellulitis or abscess, often with osteomyelitis; Stage 4 is localized gangrene; Stage 5 is extensive gangrene that involves the whole foot
30
Management of ulcers by grade
Grade 1 and 2- outpatient management with extensive debridement and treatment for infection if needed. Grade 3- evaluate for osteomyelitis and peripheral arterial disease and may require hospitalization. Grade 4 and 5 are emergent hospitalization and surgical consult for possible amputation
31
Homan's sign
Classic sign of DVT. Pain on passive dorsiflexion of the foot
32
Risk factors for DVT besides the obvious
hypertension, hyperlipidemia, CHF, hyperhomocysteinemia, disease that increases blood viscosity (like polycythemia vera, sickle cell disease, and multiple myeloma)
33
Diagnosing peripheral arterial disease
ABI less than 0.9
34
What is the greatest modifiable risk factor for peripheral arterial diseaes?
Smoking
35
Other risk factors for peripheral arterial disease besides the obvious
Chronic renal insufficiency, elevated CRP, hyperhomocystenemia
36
Well's criteria for diagnosis fo DVT
Get 1 point for: Active cancer, paralysis/paresthesias/recent plaster immobilization of the legs, bedridden/major surgery, localized tenderness along distribution of deep vein, entire leg swollen, calf swelling greater than 3cm than asymptomatic leg, pitting edema, collateral superficial veins. Subtract 2 points if alternative diagnosis as or more likely than DVT. If 3 points- high likelihood of DVT. If 1-2 pts, moderate chance. Less than that, low
37
Criteria to treat DVT as an outpatient
Hemodynamically stable, good kidney function, low risk for bleed, stable and supportive home environment, daily access to INR monitoring
38
Summary about LMWH versus unfractionated heparin
LMWH can be administred fewer times per day, lab monitoring not required, less likely to cause thrombocytopenia, and may be used outpatient. For unfractionated, it is titrated based on the aPTT and requires hospitalization because it is IV
39
Treatment duration of Warfarin based on the event
For isolated calf thrombophlebitis, you can do 6-12 weeks; For first time provoked event, do 3 mos; for first time unprovoked event, do 6 mos; for recurrent event (provoked or not) or inherited thrombophilia, do 12 mos to lifetime
40
How long does it take Warfarin to reach stable state?
5-7 days, because the half life is 40 hours
41
Checking INR after you have started someone on warfarin
If INR is between 5 and 9, discontinue the Warfarin and repeat INR in 24 hours. If INR is greater than 9, hold the warfarin and give PO vitamin K
42
When to screen for inherited thrombophilias
Initial thrombosis prior to age 50 without obvious provoking event; family hx of venous thromboembolism; recurrent venous thromboembolism; thrombosis occuring in unusual vascular beds such as portal, hepatic, mesenteric, or cerebral veins
43
Five MAJOR risk factors for coronary heart disease
In addition to elevated LDL, these are smoking, hypertension, HDL less than 40, family history of premature CHD in a male relative less than 55 or female less than 65, age in men over 45 or women over 55
44
Medical conditions that cause dyslipidemia
Type 2 DM (or insulin resistance); cholestatic or obstructive liver disease; nephrotic syndrome; hypothyroidism; acute hepatitis; alcohol is a secondary cause; meds
45
Meds that cause dyslipidemia
Thiazide diuretics, beta blockers, oral estrogens, protease inhibitors
46
Metabolic syndrome is associated with a higher risk of what disease?
CHD, CM, hepatic steatosis, HCC (maybe as a result of hepatic steatosis), cholangiocarcinoma, CKF, OSA, hyperuricemia/gout