Family Health Exam 2 Flashcards

Question

Multipara

Answer 1

a woman who has carried 2+ pregnancies over 20 weeks, regardless of the outcome

Answer 2

Determine the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP) Then subtract 3 months Then add 7 days

Answer 3

37 0/7 through 38 6/7

Answer 4

39 0/7 through 40 6/7

Answer 5

41 0/7 through 41 6/7

Answer 6

42 0/7 and beyond

Answer 7

The number of pregnancies; current pregnancy to be included in the count

Answer 8

The number of term gestations delivered between 37 0/7 and 41 6/7

Answer 9

the number of preterm pregnancies ending >20 weeks and <38 weeks

Answer 10

The number of pregnancies ending before 20 weeks

Answer 11

The number of her biological children currently living

Answer 12

Increase of 300 calories / day is recommended in pregnancy. Prenatal vitamins are often prescribed. Folic acid supplements are recommended to prevent neural tube defects.

Answer 13

fundal height measured in cm from the top of the pubic bone to the top of the uterus. The number of cm matches the weeks of gestation

Answer 14

at the symphysis pubis

Answer 15

Halfway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus

Answer 16

at the umbilicus

Answer 17

fundal height in cm matches the weeks of gestation

Answer 18

determines fetal position, presentation, lie, and attitude after 24 weeks gestation.

Answer 19

Determines the fetal position Place both hands at the top of the uterine fundus. The fetal head is round and hard. The fetal buttocks is soft and irregular

Answer 20

Determines the fetal positive. Place both hands on the side of the fundus to feel where the back is. The back is smooth and hard. The limbs feel irregular with movement.

Answer 21

Confirms the presenting part. Place one hand above the symphysis, grasp and confirm the presenting part. Note engagement of the presenting part.

Answer 22

Determine the attitude of fetal head. facing the mother's feet, place both hands on the lower abdomen. Note the fetal brow or occiput.

Answer 23

Blood type screen (A, B, AB, or O) Rh factor (negative or positive)

Answer 24

Determines if the mother is non-immune. Immunization is recommended after birth.

Answer 25

If the mother is Hep B surface antigen positive, the newborn will receive Hep B vaccine AND the Hep B IgG within 12 hours of birth.

Answer 26

If positive, requires counseling and treatment to prevent transmission to the fetus.

Answer 27

Between 15-20 weeks High levels may indicate neural tube defects or multiples. Low levels may indicate fetal trisomy syndromes.

Answer 28

Between 24-28 weeks It's a glucose tolerance test

Answer 29

Detects iron deficiency anemia

Answer 30

Vaginal and rectal swabs are taken at 35-37 weeks gestation. If positive, mother are given antibiotics during labor to avoid transmission to the fetus.

Answer 31

1st trimester: confirms pregnancy & cardiac activity 2nd trimester: verifies dates, evaluates fetal growth and health, location of the placenta and assesses the amount of amniotic fluid. 3rd trimester: evaluates fetal activity, growth of the fetus and verifies placental position.

Answer 32

CVS takes a small sample of cells from the placenta if the healthcare provider considers you to have certain risk factors such as already having a child with a known genetic condition, maternal age >35, previous screening indicates high risk for a kid with a genetic condition, family history of a genetic condition.

Answer 33

1st trimester: detects genetic disorders 2nd trimester: detects blood sensitization 3rd trimester: assessment of lung maturity A diagnostic test that removes and tests a small sample of cells from the amniotic fluid in order to determine whether or not the baby has a genetic or chromosomal condition such as Down’s, Edwards’, or Patau’s. It is usually conducted between 15-20 weeks of pregnancy.

Answer 34

Between 15-20 weeks Detects genetic disorders (includes MAFP, hCG, unconjugated estriol, inhibin A)

Answer 35

US assessment of the thickness of the fetal nuchal fold. Abnormalities potentially indicate chromosomal abnormalities.

Answer 36

OCT is the oxytocin challenge test, which also assesses fetal well-being. It’s a diagnostic tool for suspected placental insufficiency to evaluate the fetal tolerance of uterine contractions. a negative test = presence of accelerations, lack of decelerations and normal variability. A positive result is late decelerations after more than 50% of contractions.

Answer 37

Demonstrates the fetus' abiity to respond to the environment by acceleration of the FHR with movement. Reactive NST: at least 2 accelerations above baseline within 20 minutes --> Normal NST is considered reassuring if the FHR increases at least 15 bpm over the baseline, lasting at least 15 seconds, within a 20 minute timeframe. Nonreactive NST: accelerations are not present, indicating the fetus is at risk or asleep.

Answer 38

evaluates placenta perfusion and identifies the risk of fetal hypoxia. Standard practice has replaced this with ultrasound and BPP. Negative CST = 3 contractions present (lasting at least 40s) within 10 minutes and without the presence of late decelerations. These are reassuring results. Positive CST = repetitive persistent late decelerations present with more than 50% of the contractions. These are not desired results. Equivocal or Suspicious = nonpersistent late decelerations or hyperstimulation of the uterus. More information is needed.

Answer 39

used to identify a fetus at risk. A score of 8-10 is normal. A score <4 likely indicates that the provider needs to deliver the baby right away. Five criteria are scored (normal = 2; abnormal =0) over a 30 minute observation period. 1. NST = normal is reactive (>2 accelerations over 20 minutes) 2. Fetal breathing = normal is >1 episode of breathing movements 3. Fetal tone = normal is >1 active extension and flexion of a limb or hand. 4. Body Movement = normal is >3 discrete limb or trunk movements. 5. Amniotic Fluid = normal is AFI> 5 cm

Answer 40

The placenta is implanted in the lower uterine segment or over the internal cervical os. It can be low lying, partial, marginal, or complete implantation. Onset / bleeding: slow onset. Bleeding may be scant or profuse, bright red bleeding. Absent preeclampsia. Uterine tone = soft, relaxed tone, normal uterine contour Labor pain only FHT is usually present.

Answer 41

Premature separation of a normally implanted placenta from the uterine wall. Can be marginal, central, or complete. Onset & Bleeding: sudden onset, may be external or concealed, dark-colored bleeding. Preeclampsia may be present. Firm to hard abdomen, may enlarge or change shape. Severe and steady pain. FHT present or absent.

Answer 42

Medications to stop preterm labor

Answer 43

Terbutaline is a beta-adrenergic receptor antagonist It relaxes smooth muscle in several places: the bronchial tree, blood vessels, and the myometrium. Contraindications are bronchiospasms (asthma)

Answer 44

Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker. It inhibits calcium influx across cell membranes, thereby decreasing tone in the smooth muscle of the vasculature. Decreases BP; contraindicated with asthma.

Answer 45

Prostaglandin inhibitor. NSAIDs can prevent the body from releasing prostaglandins and cytokines, which delays preterm delivery. Contraindications are women who have a history of bleeding disorders, gastritis, hepatic disease.

Answer 46

CNS depressant that is used to treat pre-term labor, pre-eclampsia, and eclampsia. The antidote to Mag Sulfate is Calcium Gluconate. Too much Mag suppresses PTH, which causes a decrease in Ca2+. Contraindicated in patients with myasthenia gravis, since it can aggravate muscle weakness and increase the risk of respiratory muscle paralysis.

Answer 47

Corticosteroid given to increase fetal lung maturity. It's given antenatally to cause the release of surfactant. No contraindications.

Answer 48

Increase in BP after 20 weeks and proteinuria. signs of worsening preeclampsia: BP >160/110 on two occasions. Proteinuria (5+ in 24 hours) Oliguria (<500 mL urine in 24 hours) Visual changes Severe headache Nausea vomiting Hyperreflexia (DTR >2, clonus) Pitting edema Epigastric pain Fetal growth restriction

Answer 49

Hemolysis of red blood cells (low RBC count) Elevated liver enzymes (AST, LST high, and protein/creatinine ratio is high) Low Platelets

Answer 50

occurrence of a seizure during the antepartum, intrapartum, or postpartum period (up to 6 weeks after delivery)

Answer 51

Mag sulfate IV bolus or sedative if needed Antihypertensive agents to reduce blood pressure Position side lying Pad the side rails Lung sounds Oxygen per face mask Evaluate fetal heart tones

Answer 52

prelabor evaluation of the cervix to determine whether or not the mom/cervix are ready for labor. A Bishop score of 8+ is considered favorable for induction, or the change of a vaginal delivery with induction is similar to spontaneous labor. A score 6 or less means that cervical ripening agents may be utilized. Higher scores = more ready for labor. Criteria: - Cervical dilation (0-3) - cervical effacement (0-3) - fetal station (0-3) - cervical consistency (0-2) - cervical position (0-2)

Answer 53

Benefits of method chosen; Risk; Alternatives including abstinence; Inquiries about the method are the client's right; Decision to withdraw is OK; Explanation of what to do and expect of the method; and Documentation of the above

Answer 54

Pneumonic used for concerning pain while using oral contraceptives: A = abdominal C = chest pain H = headaches E = eye problems S = severe leg pain

Answer 55

Flu TDap Rhogam These can all be given during pregnancy. You don't give the vaccines with a live virus during pregnancy.

Answer 56

Spotting/bleeding = miscarriage OR placenta previa/placenta abruption Abdominal pain, shock = ectopic pregnancy

Answer 57

prevents neural tube defects (spina bifida) Contraindications are an allergy to folate or an untreated Vit B12 deficiency.

Answer 58

have folate and iron and calcium

Answer 59

helps prevent the loss of bone density / osteoporosis. Important during pregnancy because of the increased need for Ca2+. Contraindications are if the mom already has too much calcium in her urine. Most common adverse effect is hypercalcemia caused by taking too much of the supplement. The patient should report symptoms of weakness, increased urination, and thirst.

Answer 60

iron supplements prevent anemia 30-120 mg/day Contraindications are history of iron overload.

Answer 61

corticosteroid given to support development of surfactant in preterm babies. Needs at least 24 hours before delivery; can't be given in emergency c sections. 2 doses 12 or 24 hours apart of 12mg A single course is recommended when the pregnant parent is at risk for preterm delivery between 24 and 34 weeks of pregnancy. A single course is recommended between 34 and 37 weeks for those at risk of preterm birth within 7 days, and who have not already received a course. A single repeat course of corticosteroids can be considered for those at risk of preterm delivery within 7 days, whose prior course was given more than 14 days prior. Can exacerbate diabetes.

Answer 62

TORCH is a blood test that screens for several infections that can be harmful to the fetus: T = Toxoplasmosis O = Other(syphilis, Hep B&C, HIV) R = Rubella C = Cytomegalovirus H = Herpes simplex virus

Answer 63

PUBS = percutaneous umbilical cord sampling, which assesses the health of the fetus and can also be used to treat fetal disease, particularly fetal blood diseases. It’s a more invasive procedure. The small sample of blood is analyzed for genetic abnormalities, blood disorders, and infections. PUBS can be used to diagnose: Toxoplasmosis (Toxoplasmosis is an infectious diseases transferred from mom to baby and can damage the fetal nervous system), Rh disease, nonimmune hydrops, fetal thrombocytopenia.

Answer 64

Positive pregnancy test, referred shoulder pain, low BP, high pulse, pallor

Answer 65

A GTT is a diagnostic test used to evaluate a woman’s ability to metabolize glucose. Since pregnancy can impact metabolization of glucose, this helps identify gestational diabetes. It is usually performed between 24-28 weeks. Fasting blood glucose level <92 mg/dL One hr blood glucose level <180 mg/dL Two hour blood glucose level < 153 mg/dL

Answer 66

H = hemolysis (low RBC count). Normal range is 120-246 U/L Bilirubin should be <1.2mg/dL EL = Elevated Liver Enzymes, ALT  10-40 U/L AST  10-34 U/L LP = Low platelet count (150,-450)

Answer 67

PT is a laboratory test that measures the time it takes for a blood clot to form. 11-13 seconds

Answer 68

BUN / Creatinine assess kidney function. In pregnancy, they are ordered to monitor renal function and detect any abnormalities. BUN  6-20 mg/DL Creatinine  0.4-1.2 mg/dL

Answer 69

DTR = Deep tendon reflexes DTR & Clonus are neurological tests commonly performed during pregnancy to assess nerve function and risk for preeclampsia. DTRs are graded on a scale from 0-4, with 2+ being normal. Clonus is characterized by rhythmic, oscillating movements of the foot when the ankle is dorsiflexed, and is not typically present in healthy individuals.

Answer 70

A ketone urine screen measures the presence of ketones in the urine. Ketones are produced when the body breaks down fat for energy instead of glucose. In pregnancy, ketone urine screening may be ordered to monitor for gestational diabetes, preeclampsia, and other conditions that can affect glucose metabolism.

Answer 71

Morphine Sulfate can be used for pain relief and as one of the pharmacologic agents for the management of an infant with Neonatal Abstinence Syndrome (NAS). Non-pharmacologic measures (cuddling) are also highly recommended in conjunction with morphine sulfate.

Answer 72

Considered adjunctive therapy to Morphine Sulfate if FNAST scores are not controlled despite Morphine at 0.5-0.7 ml/dose. Nursing pre and post assessment is the FNAST score, baby’s vitals (RR, HR, BP, O2).

Answer 73

Surfactant is a mixture of fat and proteins made in the lungs. It coats the alveoli and prevents them from sticking together when the baby breathes out. Premature babies may be born before their lungs make enough surfactant, which leads to poor lung function  stiff or collapsible lungs with increased fluid. This is called Respiratory Distress Syndrome. Surfactant is given to supplement what the baby is able to create and help the baby breathe.

Answer 74

Anticonvulsant Used to treat eclampsia, which is seizures during pregnancy. Conduct DTR and monitor the RR to rule out toxemia. Toxemia of pregnancy is a contraindication.

Answer 75

An antidote to too much Mag Sulfate. Contraindications are hypercalcemia

Answer 76

Methyldopa, labetolol, and nifedipine are widely considered safe in pregnancy as anti-hypertensive medications. Nifedipine is contraindicated with asthma.

Answer 77

Glibenclamide is the most effective in lowering blood glucose in women with gestational diabetes.

Answer 78

Used for prophylaxis and treatment PPH (among other things, like termination of pregnancy, augmentation of labor, and medical induction of labor) Contraindications are any situation that would result in a non-vaginal birth.

Answer 79

Used for prophylaxis and treatment PPH contraindications are HTN, toxemia Check lochia every 15 minutes for 1 hour; every 30 minutes for the next 2 hours; every 4 hours for 48 hours, then daily.

Answer 80

Used when Oxytocin can't be used. It's a prostaglandin analogue. Used for prophylaxis and treatment PPH Contraindications include pelvic infection or sepsis, hemodynamic instability or shock, allergy to misoprostol, known bleeding disorder, concurrent anticoagulant therapy, and confirmed or suspected ectopic or molar pregnancy or who have an allergy to prostaglandins.

Answer 81

Carboprost is used for PPH that isn't responsive to conventional management. Contraindications are patients with asthma b/c it can cause an asthma attack.

Answer 82

For the prophylaxis of DVTs during pregnancy. Contraindicated for when blood coag tests can't be performed at necessary intervals.

Answer 83

Given ST to avoid labor. It's a Ca2+ channel antagonist that stops the flow of ca2+ ions into the cardiac and vascular smooth muscle, which reduces the contractions in preterm labor. Don't eat/drink grapefruits.

Answer 84

Prevents seizures in women. Also recommended to protect the baby's brain during PTL. For women at risk of imminent preterm birth, it should be used for the neuroprotection of the fetus - regardless of the cause of preterm birth and the number of babies in utero.

Answer 85

Used off label for treating uterine hyperstimulation. Can only be administered by injection or IV in the hospital setting and should not be used beyond 48-72 hours due to severe side effects (including death).

Answer 86

Indomethacin is an appropriate first-line tocolytic for the pregnant patient in early preterm labor (<30 weeks) or pre-term labor associated with polyhydramnios (too much amniotic fluid). It slows uterine contractions, delaying delivery. Serious side effects include constriction of the ductus arteriosus in the fetus, which makes it hard for blood to get through the artery. Because of the side effects, it is limited to preterm labor prior to 32 weeks gestation in women with normal renal function and normal amniotic fluid volume.

Answer 87

Elevated temp, chest pain, dyspnea following surgery

Answer 88

Thrombocytopenia is a deficiency of platelets in the blood, which causes bleeding into the tissues, bruising, nd slow blood clotting after an injury. oozing of blood from c section incision, petechia, low platelets.

Answer 89

Severe pain and bulging mass on the perineum

Answer 90

Incessant crying, tremors, hypertonic, frequent hiccups, frequent bowel movements.

Answer 91

Nasal flaring, respiratory rate high, retractions

Answer 92

leathery skin, weight and length 98th percentile for gestation Any baby above the 90th percentile for gestational age is LGA. In particular, babies with leathery skin have likely been too exposed to glucose in the womb and are likely to be hypoglycemic after birth. The baby might also have difficulty breathing, birth injuries due to their size (check for broken collar bones), hypertension, obesity, and potentially may develop diabetes.

Answer 93

Reassuring = no PKU A PKU screening test is a blood test given to newborns 1-3 days after birth. A PKU screening test diagnoses PKU by measuring the amount of Phe in a blood sample. If there is Phe, it indicates that the baby might have a genetic disorder that prevents the baby from breaking down Phe. Since this test is negative, it indicates the baby doesn’t have this genetic disorder.

Answer 94

Infant with single, transverse palmar crease, protruding tongue, floppy muscle tone, low set ears.

Answer 95

flattened occiput, asymmetrical facial features Positional plagiocephaly is a flattening of one side of the head caused by prolonged pressure on that area. The nurse should educate the parents on how to reposition the infant’s head, provide tummy time, etc to reduce pressure on that area. A helmet may also be prescribed to help reshape the head. Follow up visits should be scheduled, and the patients should be educated and supported.

Answer 96

weight gain of +6 pounds in one week

Answer 97

Edema / fluid retention Blurred vision HTN + Proteinuria Epigastric pain DTR >3+ and clonus

Answer 98

An infection involving the bloodstream in newborn infants <28 days old. S&S are listlessness, don't feed well, unstable body temperature, irritability Incidence is higher in premature infants and LBW infants.

Answer 99

While nearly all sexually active adults have HPV, the Gardasil 9 vaccine prevents 9 different types of HPV that can cause cancer. It is recommended for girls and boys ages 9-26.

Answer 100

Acyclovir and valacyclovir are the drugs most commonly used for herpes outbreak suppression and treatment during pregnancy. Neonatal suppression therapy with acyclovir in infants with HSV may improve neurodevelopmental outcomes.

Answer 101

Antiretroviral therapy (ART) uses a combination of drugs to reduce the amount of HIV in the body. While this doesn’t cure HIV, it does reduce the impact and it allows people with HIV to live a comparable lifespan to those with HIV.

Answer 102

Letrozole is normally a breast cancer medication, but it’s used off-label to induce ovulation in women with infertility. Stop treatment once pregnant, as Letrozole can harm the fetus. Educate about risks/side effect: Hot flashes, headaches, nausea, fatigue, and risk of bone loss/osteoporosis.

Answer 103

Infertility treatment to induce ovulation in women with infertility due to anovulation or oligo-ovulation. Risks: Multiple pregnancies, ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS_, hot flashes, mood wings, visual disturbances. Stop treatment once pregnant, as Clomiphene citrate can harm the fetus.

Answer 104

A hysteroscopy is when a doctor examines the inside of a woman’s uterus using a little lighted flashlight called a hysteroscope that is inserted through the vagina. It is used for abnormal bleeding (heavy bleeding or bleeding between periods), infertility to investigate if there are fibroids, polyps, or scarring, repeated miscarriages, IUD removal, and biopsy.

Answer 105

A laparoscopy is a minimally invasive surgical procedure that allows a surgeon to view the organs inside a woman’s pelvis and abdomen using a laparoscope, which is a thin, lighted tube with a camera on the end. The reasons to do this are to determine the cause of infertility such as endometriosis, adhesions, or tubal blockages; reasons for abnormal uterine bleeding such as fibroids or polyps; reasons for pelvic pain such as endometriosis, adhesions, or ovarian cysts; and to diagnose ectopic pregnancy.

Answer 106

HSG is a radiologic procedure that uses a contrast agent and x-rays to examine the uterus and fallopian tubes. It’s done to evaluate the uterus or fallopian tubes for any irregularities that might cause infertility or miscarriages or abnormal bleeding. The exam must be done on or before day 10 of your menstrual cycle but after your menstruation ends. A blood pregnancy test must be completed to confirm you’re not pregnant.

Answer 107

Partners Practices Protection Past history Prevention of pregnancy

Answer 108

Genital warts; an STI There is a vaccine, but no cure. Surgery, freeze off the warts, electric current or laser treatments to burn off the warts. Can lead to cancer if it doesn't go away on it's own within 2 years. No evidence that it affects infertility.

Answer 109

Herpes is a common infection that can cause painful blisters / ulcers. It primarily spreads by skin to skin contact. It is treatable, but not curable. People experience tingling, itching, burning, then notice sores or blisters. Pregnant moms usually have anti-herpes meds (acyclovir) during birth to avoid giving it to their baby. No evidence that it causes infertility.

Answer 110

Meds: azithromycin (one dose) or doxycycline (every day for a week) Chlamydia can easily be cured with antibiotics and should refrain from sex for 7 days after a single dose antibiotics or until completion of a 7 day course of antibiotics. Untreated, 10-15% of women will develop PID (Pelvic Inflammatory Disease) and fallopian tube infection without any symptoms. This can lead to infertility.

Answer 111

A single injection of long-acting benzathine penicillin G can cure the early stages of syphillis. Stage 1 - painless sore on the genitals, rectum, or mouth. Stage 2 = rash, after the sore heals. Stage 3 = no symptoms, but damage to the brain, nerves, eyes, or heart. Untreated syphillis can cause infertility in both men and women.

Answer 112

Meds: single dose of 500mg IM ceftriaxone Symptoms include painful urination and abnormal discharge from penis or vagina. Men may experience testicular pain and woman may experience pain in the lower belly. Left untreated, can cause infertility.

Answer 113

Edema and swelling cause increased pressure in a muscle compartment, leading to decreased blood flow and potential muscle and nerve damage. If ischemia to the compartment continues, the muscles & nerves may die and the limb may need to be amputated. S&S: Edema, severe pain/tenderness, paresthesia/numbness, absent distal pulse, skin discoloration (pallor/cyanosis), renal failure is a late symptom. Intervention: Remove the tight cast, fasciotomy, ice, elevation

Answer 114

Fat embolism may occur with closed long bone or pelvic fractures. It's when fat & bone fragments are released into the bloodstream and become lodged. Respiratory problems are the first symptom, followed by petechial rash on anterior trunk, arms, neck, buccal mucosa, conjunctiva; Purtscher retinopathy (sudden loss of vision), mild fever Treatment is supportive - O2, etc. 50% of people need mechanical ventilation. FES is rarely seen in children under 10.

Answer 115

Surgical procedure used to internally repair a bone fracture. During open reduction, the bone is placed in correct alignment. Nails, screws, pins, wires, plates, or rods are then inserted into the bone to hold it in place. Fractures of the long bone are commonly repaired by ORIF.

Answer 116

Pain Pulses Pallor Paralysis / Paresis Paresthesia (a burning or prickling sensation that is usually felt in the hands, arms, legs, or feet, but can also occur in other parts of the body)

Answer 117

Death of bone tissue due to a lack of blood supply

Answer 118

intra-articular injection of hyaluronic acid. It's a treatment for osteoarthritis of the knee that involves injecting lubricating substances directly into the knee.

Answer 119

A surgical procedure that removes the broken down bits of cartilage and tissues to help reduce pain and improve movement. It's most commonly performed to help reduce the symptoms of arthritis so that patients can regain function of their knee while reducing pain.

Answer 120

the most common form of arthritis. It's a degenerative joint disease, or "wear and tear" arthritis. It occurs most frequnetly in the hands, hips, and knees. The cartilage within a joint begins to break down and the underlying bone begins to change. X-rays are used to track the disease process, as well as MRI and US.

Answer 121

a procedure that removes a wedge of bone above or below the joint to realign the joint and shift the weight away from the damaged portion of the joint. This procedure is usually performed instead of joint replacement surgery if there is damage to only one side of the joint in healthy, younger adults.

Answer 122

T<= -2.5 means osteoporosis. It measures the bone mineral density in different parts of the body.

Answer 123

surgical procedure used to visualize and treat problems inside a joint.

Answer 124

imaging to look at a joint. Not quite as clear as an arthroscopy.

Answer 125

Normal D Dimer level is <0.5micrograms/mL Assesses the blood for protein fragments. It indicates a clot. A blood test used to diagnose/rule out blood clots including DVT and PE. Indications include suspicion of DVT, monitoring the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, evaluation of DIC.

Answer 126

INR: 09-1.1 PT: 11-16 seconds aPTT: 20-36s

Answer 127

Calcium is given to people with mobility issues, fractures, or osteoporosis to prevent further bone loss and support bone health/healing. Contraindications are hypercalcemia, renal failure

Answer 128

Given for osteoporosis Examples: alendronate Dexascan T score >= -2.5 indicates osteoporosis. Contraindications: hypocalcemia, severe renal impairment, esophageal abnormalities or difficulty swallowing.

Answer 129

Three pathological factors associated with the formation of a DVT: circulatory stasis, vascular damage, and hypercoagulability.

Answer 130

Checks for DVT, but needs to be confirmed Push back on the foot and if the patient says that hurts, there's a risk for DVT