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PCM Exams OMS-1 Fall > Fall Final > Flashcards

Fall Final Flashcards

1
Q

What is a MS screen?

A

Focused on whole MS system for complaints of non-specific pain or weakness; looking for normal or abnormal function

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2
Q

What is a focused MS exam?

A

Focused on a specific joint, limb or region of spine

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3
Q

What does GALS stand for in a MS medical history?

A

Gait
Arms
Legs
Spine

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4
Q

Do you examine the affected or unaffected side first?

A

Unaffected to gain a sense or normalcy

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5
Q

What is the rule of 15 in PVD?

A

15% of patients with PVD develop ulcer on foot
15% of those foot ulcers lead to osteomyelitis
15% of foot ulcers lead to amputation

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6
Q

What is the rule of 50 in PVD?

A

50% of amputations are trans-femoral or trans-tibial
50% of patients have a second amputation in 5 years
50% of patients die in 5 years or less

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7
Q

What causes ulceration?

A

Once the skin has thickened and circulation has become compromised

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8
Q

What characterizes an arterial insufficiency ulceration?

A

Painful discrete edges with punched out appearance rapid development; bone or tendon may be showing

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9
Q

What characterizes a venous insufficiency ulceration?

A

Painless, medial lower leg

Cobblestone appearance and slower growing

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10
Q

What is the most important finding in an examination of arterial pulses?

A

Decreased or absence of a pulse

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11
Q

Which pulse are you able to use your thumb for?

A

Brachial artery

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12
Q

When comparing time of femoral and radial pulse, what is a delayed femoral pulse indicative of?

A

Coarctation of the aorta

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13
Q

What is the grading of pulses?

A 
0- Absent
1- Diminished
2- Normal
3- Increased
4- Bounding
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14
Q

What is the ankle brachial index (ABI)?

A

Ratio of BP in the lower legs to the blood pressure in the arms

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15
Q

What is lower BP in ankles compared to arms indicative of?

A

Peripheral vascular disease

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16
Q

How do you calculate ABI?

A

Dividing the highest systolic BP at the ankle by the highest systolic BP in the arm

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17
Q

Values for ABI?

A

1.30 uncompressible calcified vessels
.91-1.29 normal
.41-.9 mild peripheral art. disease

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18
Q

What is the diaphragm best used for?

A

Hearing high-pitched sounds S1-S2 and most heart murmurs

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19
Q

What is the bell best used for?

A

Hearing low-pitched sounds S3-S4 and a few murmurs

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20
Q

What causes the S2 split?

A

The aortic valve closing just before the pulmonic

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21
Q

What is the S2 split noted?

A

A2 (aortic) P2 (pulmonic)

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22
Q

What is the S3 heart sound?

A

A gallop (SLOSH-ing-in)

23
Q

What causes the S3 sound?

A

Passive flow of blood from atria to non-compliant LV or dilated LV during rapid ventricular filling

24
Q

What causes S4 sound?

A

Diminished ventricular compliance (stiff) increasing resistance to ventricular filling

25
Q

What is the mnemonic to remember S4 sound?

A

a-STIFF-wall

26
Q

What is a thrill?

A

A vibratory sensation produced by turbulent flow (palpable murmur)

27
Q

What is a heave?

A

An upward lifting of your palm (visible)

28
Q

What is a heave indicative of?

A

Left ventricular hypertrophy

29
Q

What has a crescendo-decrescendo shape/sound?

A

Aortic stenosis

30
Q

What has a decrescendo sound?

A

Aortic regurgitation

31
Q

What has a holosystolic shape/sound?

A

Tricuspid regurgitation

32
Q

Which heart murmurs are increased in inspiration?

A

Increased venous return so right side of the heart

33
Q

Which heart murmurs are increased with expiration?

A

Left sided heart sounds

34
Q

What does valsalva do?

A

Increase intra-thoracic pressure decreasing heart murmurs except for mitral prolapse and hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

35
Q

What increases afterload on the heart?

A

Hand grip

Squatting (pre and afterloads)

36
Q

When does ejection click occur and what causes it?

A

Early systole

Abrupt halting of the semilunar valves/decreased mobility

37
Q

When does opening snap occur and what causes it?

A

Early diastole

Abrupt deceleration of mitral leaflet

38
Q

What causes mid-systolic click?

A

Prolapsed mitral valve

39
Q

What is dyspnea?

A

Shortness of breath

40
Q

What is pectus excavatum?

A

Sunken in sternum

41
Q

What is pectus carinatum?

A

Sternum protruding

42
Q

What is the order of examination in a MS exam?

A 
Inspection
Palpation
Range of motion
Strength assessment
Neurological assessment
43
Q

What is the Stanford scale of aortic aneurysms?

A

Type A: includes the ascending aorta

Type B: begins after the brachiocephalic vessels

44
Q

What causes wheezing?

A

Air going through an airway diminished in size typically due to mucous

45
Q

What is rhonchi?

A

Wet coarse sounding

46
Q

What is Cheyne-Stokes?

A

Respirations that gradually increase, then decrease in volume interspersed with periods of apnea

47
Q

What is Kussmaul breathing?

A

Deep and labored breathing pattern

48
Q

What is biot?

A

Abnormal pattern characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by periods of apnea

49
Q

What is hyperpnia?

A

Deep fast breathes for metabolic demand

50
Q

What is stridor?

A

Wheeze high pitch from blocked trachea

51
Q

Do you do PA or AP x-ray?

A

PA because it makes the heart the correct size (AP makes heart larger)

52
Q

What is radio dense?

A

X-rays are absorbed making a white figure on film

53
Q

What is radio lucent?

A

X-rays pass through the empty space looks black

PCM Exams OMS-1 Fall (3 decks)

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