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MCM > Fall 2018 MCM Midterm > Flashcards

Fall 2018 MCM Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

Ether

A
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2
Q

Molality

A

moles solute / kg solvent

mol/kg

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3
Q

Molarity

A

Moles of solute/Liters solution

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4
Q

Facilitated diffusion

A

Facilitates down concentration gradient

Carrier mediated transporter

no energy needed

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5
Q

Facilitated diffusion rate of diffusion is _______

A

Limited

Vmax is limited, compared to passive diffusion

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6
Q

Primary active transport require…

A

ATP

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7
Q

Na+ K+ is an example of what kind of transporter

A

Active transporter

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8
Q

Na+K+ atpase moves sodium… where and potassium… where?

A

It moves 3 sodium out of the cell

It moves 2 potassium into the cell

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9
Q

Calcium concentration is greater _____ the cell?

A

outside

extracellularly

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10
Q

What kind of pump is the calcium transporter?

A

Active transporter

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11
Q

Secondary transport transports by

A

using energy but not ATP

concentration gradients or symport/antiport

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12
Q

Type I diabetes

A

no insulin produced

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13
Q

Type II diabetes

A

Sub obtimal response to insulin

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14
Q

Buffer consists of

A

weak base and conjugate base

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15
Q

Ligase

A

Forms bond between two by cleavage of ATP

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16
Q

apoenzyme

A

The protein part of a complex enzyme or of a holoenzyme

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17
Q

Holoenzyme

A

cofactor and apoenzyme

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18
Q

Lipid bilayer is composed of (3)

A

phospholipids

Sphingolipids

Cholesterol

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19
Q

Phospholipids are composed of

A

Philic head

Phobic tail

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20
Q

In general lipids can be 5 things

A

structural

antioxidant

substrates

resevoirs

hormones

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21
Q

Arachidonic acid

A

PRecursor to eicosanoids

Acid with fatty acid chain

SIGNALING (secondary messenger)

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22
Q

EPA name

A

Arachidonic Acid

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23
Q

Basic AA

A

Arginine (R)

Lysine (K)

Histidine (H)

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24
Q

Polar AA

A

Glutamine (Q)

Asparagine (N)

Serine (S)

Cysteine (C)

Threonine (T)

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25
Q

What’s significant about serine?

A

It has sulfur and can make disulfide bridges

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26
Q

Acidic AA

A

Aspartate (D)

Glutamate (E)

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27
Q

Aromatic AA

A

Tyrosine (Y)

Phenylalanine (F)

Tryptophan (W)

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28
Q

Nonpolar AA

A

Alanine (A)

Valine (V)

Isoleucine (I)

Leucine (L)

Methionine (M)

Proline (P)

Glycine (G)

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29
Q

What’s significant about methionine?

A

It has a Sulfur

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30
Q

Polar AA can bond what way?

A

Hydrogen bonds

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31
Q

What are the hydrophobic AA?

A

Nonpolar and aromatic

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32
Q

Ribozyme

A

RNA molecule acting as an enzyme

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33
Q

IU

A

internation unit

umol/min

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34
Q

High Km

A

Low affinity

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35
Q

Paracrine signals

A

Signals between two different cells at short distance.

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36
Q

Autocrine Signals

A

Siganls between two same cells nearby

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37
Q

Endocrine signals

A

Long distance signalling to target cells

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38
Q

Contact Signals

A

signalling through cell to cell contact

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39
Q

Skeletal has what kind of acetylcholine receptors

A

nicotininic

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40
Q

Cardiac M. has what kind of acetylcholine receptors?

A

muscarinic

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41
Q

Glut4 is found in

A

muscle and adipose

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42
Q

GLUT 2 is found in

A

hepatic cells

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43
Q

Glut 2 is ______ of insulin

A

independent

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44
Q

Glut 4 is ______ on insulin

A

dependent

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45
Q

Glut 1 and 3 is foudn in the

A

Brain

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46
Q

Glycogen storage found mostly in

A

liver and muscle

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47
Q

What is the final product of glycolysis

A

Pyruvate

or lactate

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48
Q

Hexokinase vs Glucokinase Km

A

Hexokinase Low Km

Glucokinase high Km

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49
Q

Phosphorylated Glucose

A

Can’t leave the cell

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50
Q

A phosphorylating enzyme step is…

A

irreversable

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51
Q

Caloric content of

Fat

Alcohol

Carbohydrate

Protein

A

9

7

4

4

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52
Q

Five secondary messangers

A

cAMP

cGMP

Ca2+

Diacylglycerol (DAG)

Inositol triphosphate (IP3)

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53
Q

Ester

A
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54
Q

Amide

A
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55
Q

D and L sugars

A

LSDRu??

L and S counterclockwise

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56
Q

Steroid precursor

A

Cholesterol

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57
Q

What is pyridoxine?

A

Vitamin B6

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58
Q

What is cardiolipin?

A

On inner layer of mitochondria, makes plasma less permeable. Phospholipids with 4 chains

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59
Q

Mitochondrial DNA described

A

Circular, double stranded

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60
Q

Mitochondrial genetic patterns

A

Does not follow mendelian genetics

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61
Q

Where are ribosome subunits synthesized?

A

Nucleuoli

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62
Q

Where are ribosomal proteins produced?

A

cytoplasm

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63
Q

Golgi apparatus - cis face

A

cis face is near the RER

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64
Q

Where does phosphorylation and glycosylation occur of recently synthesized proteins?

A

Golgi Apparatus

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65
Q

Phagosomes function

A

fuse with lysosomes, digest material

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66
Q

Pinocytotic vesicle steps

A

Clathrin coating

Fuse with early endosome

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67
Q

Early endosomes and late endosome locations

A

Start near cell membrane,

End near nucleus

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68
Q

How does cholesterol get into the cell?

A

LDL + Cholesterol travel to cell

Ingested by endosome

Cholesterol released to cell

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69
Q

IF you had vvv or disfuncitoning LDL receptors what which circulatory disease would you be predisposed to?

A

Atherosclerosis

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70
Q

Which enzymes assist inside of lysosome?

A

Acid Hydrolase

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71
Q

Intermediate filament function

A

Protect the cell structurally from shearing or stretching

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72
Q

Intermediate filament structure

A

Multiple stranded rope providing strength

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73
Q

Intermediate filament classes

A

Keratin

Desmin

Vimetin

Neurofilament

Nuclear Lamins

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74
Q

Two kinds of actin

A

F-actin (filamentous)

G-Actin (Globular)

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75
Q

Actin role in cell cortex?

A

^^^ amounts of actin in cell cortex, thin layer underlying cell membrane.

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76
Q

What filament binds to integrins and what do integrins do?

A

Actin

This allows binding to extracellular proteins

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77
Q

Myosin is compromised of?

A

actin

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78
Q

Actins role in wound healing?

A

Actin is used by fibroblasts to pull on wound to seal it

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79
Q

Intermediate filament structure

A

Circular 13 tubular proteins of either alpha or beta binding to counter alpha or beta part.

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80
Q

Which way do intermediate filaments grow?

A

from the centrosome “-“ site to the “+” direction

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81
Q

Microtubule stability?

A

Unstable

Half life of minutes

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82
Q

3 Microtubule functions

A

Stability

Intracellular movement

Seperate chromosomes (mitosis)

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83
Q

What does the MAP kinesin do?

A

the microtuble associated protein will walk to the + end or cell outside

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84
Q

What do MAP dyneins do?

A

Walk toward - end or center of cell

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85
Q

Common polar heads for phospholipids

A

choline

serine

ethanolamine

inositol

glycerol

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86
Q

Name

A

Phosphatidylcholine

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87
Q

Name

A

Sphingomyelin

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88
Q

Name

A

Ethanolamine

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89
Q

Name

A

Serine

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90
Q

Name

A

inositol

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91
Q

Name

A

Glycerol

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92
Q

Lecithin (a phosphatidylcholine) is used for?

A

Diagnosing fetal diagnostics (lung maturity)

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93
Q

Rhizomelic Chondroysplasia punctata

Problem

Symptoms

A

Mutation preventing plasmalogens in peroxisomes

Skeletal abnormalities

Distinctive facial features

respiratory problems

intellectual disability

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94
Q

PIP2 is an example of what? Function?

A

An inositol

Signaling

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95
Q

Phosphatidylserine role

A

Apoptosis

It will flip in membrane and signal apoptosis

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96
Q

What is glycerols role in fetuses?

A

Plays a role in surfactant, used to measure surfactant

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97
Q

Precursor to Cholesterol

A

Acetyl CoA

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98
Q

Spherocytosis

Physiological presentation

Symptoms

A

Rigid misshapen cells

Jaundice, gallstones, vvv RBC, enlarged spleen

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99
Q

GLUT-1 Deficiency syndrome

A

vvv blood sugar in csf

^^^^ mental retardation and seizures

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100
Q

Selenocysteine is foudn in proteins with what kind of activity?

A

Antioxidant

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101
Q

Which amino acid helps stabilize proteins?

A

Cysteine through disulfide bridges

102
Q

What is the difference between cystine and cysteine?

A

Cystine is two cysteines connected by a disfulide bridge

103
Q

How do hydrophobic AA interact with one another?

A

Through van der waals interactions

104
Q

How are secondary structures held together?

A

Hydrogen bonds

105
Q

What are the secondary protein structures?

A

alpha helice

beta sheet

beta turn

random coils

(beta turn and random coils are not consistent, but sporadic)

106
Q

What is the g protein coupled receptor made up of?

A

7 transmembrane alpha helices

Ligand domain

Cytoplasmic domain (attaches to G proteins)

107
Q

3 examples of quaternary proteins?

A

hemoglobin

heterotrimeric G-proteins (alpha beta gamma)

Type II collagen

108
Q

What does Hsp70 do?

A

Heatshock protein 70 binds to the end of a protein to prevent premature folding

109
Q

What does Hsp60 do?

A

Heat shock protein 60 folds protein using ATP

110
Q

alpha 1 - antitrypsin deficiency

A

MUTATION causes the protease inhibitor to build up in liver (cirrhosis and dysfunction), and doesn’t reach lungs, causing lung problems

111
Q

Creutzfeld-Jacob Disease

A

comes from MUTATION (5-10%), sporadic (85%), and acquired (mad cow)

^^^ # of denatured prions in brain

^^^^ # of B sheets

112
Q

Amyloidosis

Cause

A

Aggregation of misfolded proteins as a result of PROTEOLYTIC CLEAVAGE and fragmentation of proteins.

113
Q

AA Amyloidosis

Cause:

Leads to:

A

Precipitation of amyloid A fragments

Rheumatoid Arthritis

114
Q

AL Amyloidosis

Causes

LEads to:

A

Precipitation of Light chain antibody.

Multiple Myeloma (cancer of antibody producing cells)

115
Q

Alzheimers Disease (AB amyloidosis)

A

Precipitation of B-Amyloid (amyloid precursor protein)

Brain degeneration

116
Q

Glucose 6 P Dehydrogenase Disease

A

Proteins in RBC are damaged by O2 free radicals, protein fragments preceiptate in RBC (heinz bodies)

OXIDATIVE DAMAGE

117
Q

Non competitive enzyme inhibitor

A

Lower Vmax

Same Km

118
Q

Competitive Enzyme inhibitor

A

Same Vmax

Lower Km

119
Q

Uncompetitive enzyme inhibitor

A

Lower Vmax

Lower Km

120
Q

Adenylyl Cyclase

A

ATP into cAMP

121
Q

Protein Kinase A (PKA) is turned on by

A

cAMP

122
Q

What does hexokinase and glucokinase do?

A

Converts Glucose into Glucose 6-phosphate

123
Q

What do dehydrogenases do?

A

Remove H+ (oxidation/reduction reactions)

124
Q

Whats a kinase?

A

Enzyme transferring phosphate from ATP

125
Q

Aldolase function?

A

Reversible

F1,6BP > G3P + DHAP

126
Q

Osmolality of ECF and ICF

A

290 mOsm

127
Q

ECF is __% of the body water

A

33%

128
Q

Simple diffusion types

A

Passive diffusion

Channels

Pore

129
Q

Proteosome function?

A

A protein complex that breaks down proteins that have been tagged by ubiquitin

130
Q

Lipids with serine plasma membrane role?

A

Apoptosis

131
Q

AMP relationship with energy

A

High AMP = low energy

132
Q

What does pyranose and furanose look like?

A

‘forms of glucose pyranose is more common form

133
Q

What are the super secondary structures?

A

Two of them are the leucine zipper and the zinc finger.

They are binding domains in transcription

134
Q

Mucchopolysacharidoses

A

Inability to degrade glucosaminglycans

135
Q

spingolipidoses

A

Inability to degrade plasma sphingolipids

136
Q

Pompe Disease

A

Inability to degrade glycogen

137
Q

Mucolipidoses II(I-cell)

A

Inability to deliver acid hydrolases into the lysosome

138
Q

Angelman’s syndrome

A

INablity to degrade proteins in the cerebellum/hippocampus

Really happy and laughy

139
Q

VHL syndrome

A

prevents degradation of hypoxia inducible factor subunits

HIF’s will be high > blood vessel formation > tumor/cancer

140
Q

Acid extruders

What they do and examples

A

Get’s H+ out of the cell

Na-H exchanger

Sodium driven Cl-HCO3 exchanger

H/moncarboxylate cotransporter

Na/HCO3 co transporter

141
Q

Acid loaders

A

Transports H+ into the cell

Cl- channels for HCo3 to leave

Proton channel

Cl-HCO3 Exchanger

Na/HCO3 cotransporter

142
Q

List the functional groups involved in enzymatic catalysis.

Covalent Intermediates

A

Cysteine, serine, lysine, histidine

143
Q

List the functional groups involved in enzymatic catalysis.

Acid base catalysis

A

Histidine, aspartate

144
Q

List the functional groups involved in enzymatic catalysis.

Anion Stabilization

A

Arginine, serine, peptide backbone

145
Q

List the functional groups involved in enzymatic catalysis.

Cation stabilization

A

Aspartate

146
Q

Organophosphorus toxins (nerve gas, VX, Sarin) do what to body?

A

Covalently bind to achetylcholinase, which leads to acetyl coa build up in body

147
Q

Phophorylation mostly targets which AA?

A

S, T, Y

They all have oh groups

148
Q

What is feed forward regulation

A

increase of substrate

149
Q

What is the main way to control long term cell volume change?

A

By making osmolytes

Sorbitol, inositol

150
Q

Two examples of contact signaling

A

Gap junctions

Antibody presentation

151
Q

Nicotinic ACh receptor action?

A

Na+/K+ channel

152
Q

Muscarinic ACh receptor action?

A

G-protein linked receptor

regulates K+ channel

153
Q

What steroids attach to type I nuclear receptors

A

Cortisone

Aldosterone

Progesterone

Testeosterone

154
Q

What steroids attach to nuclear receptors type III

A

Estradiol

155
Q

Type I and III nuclear receptors location, action?

A

located in cytosol

Bind to hormone in cytosol and dimerize, enter nucleus and effect dna transcription.

156
Q

Type II nuclear receptor, what hormones use this route?

A

Thyroid Hormone

Vitamin D3

Retinoic acid

Fatty Acids

157
Q

Type II nuclear receptor mechanism

A

Hormone binds to dimer in nucleus > Corepressor is released and coactivator is added > Transcription

158
Q

Nitric oxide activates….

A

Guanylate cyclase

159
Q

Nitric oxide passes freely past cell membrane, and activate guanylate cyclase, which does what?

A

guanylate cyclase activate cGMP which causes cascade and in this case results in vasodilation

160
Q

What kind of receptor is adrenergic and what do they do?

A

G-protein linked protein

HR

Smooth M. constriction

Metabolism

161
Q

What drugs work on adrenergic receptors?

A

Beta blockers. Antagonists of Beta adrenergic receptors.

Can treat arrythmia’s

162
Q

What kind of receptor are glucagon receptors?

A

G-protein linked

163
Q

What kind of receptor is there for muscarinic ACh?

A

In the heart, G-linked protein receptors

No secondary messengers though

164
Q

What kind of receptor is there for rhodopsin?

A

G-protein linked receptor.

Senses light

165
Q

What kind of receptors does dopamine act on?

A

G-protein linked receptors

166
Q

Drugs that act on dopamine receptors are related to what illnesses?

A

Schizophrenia, Parkinsons disease, ADHD

167
Q

Insulin has what kind of receptor?

A

Enzyme linked receptor

Activates cascade

168
Q

What does protein kinase A do?

A

Phosphorylates, which either activates or deactivates enzyme

169
Q

What does Gs subunit do?

A

Stimulates adenylate cyclase

increase cAMP

170
Q

What does Gi subunit do?

A

Inhibits adenylyl cyclase

decreases cAMP

171
Q

What does Gq subunit do?

A

activates phospholipase C

Increase DAG IP3 and Ca2+

172
Q

What does Gt subunit do?

A

Increases phosphodiesterase

increases cGMP

173
Q

Which hormones activate Gs subunit?

A

Glucagon

Epinephrine

ACHT

174
Q

Which hormones activate Gi subunit?

A

Adenosine

PGE1

175
Q

alpha 1 adrenergic cells are located where? mediate what mechanism?

A

muscle

vasodilation through use of phospholipase C, activating DAG, IP3 and Ca2+

176
Q

Adenosine acts on which subunit?

Effect on cAMP and HR

A

Gi subunit,

decreases cAMP

decreases HR

177
Q

Caffeine mechanism

A

Antagonist of adenosine receptors, therefore increases HR

178
Q

JAK STAT receptors

Kind?

Which molecule uses this?

JAK does?

STAT does?

A

Enzyme linked receptor

Cytokines

JAKs are tyrosine kinases

STAT’s are signal transducers

179
Q

Serine Threonine kinase receptors

Kind?

Used by?

Signal transducer that binds to receptor?

A

Enzyme linked receptor

transforming growth factor B family

R-SMAD

180
Q

Tyrosine-Kinase Receptor

Type?

Used by?

Signaling pathways it can activate?

A

Enzyme linked receptor

Insulin

MAP-Kinase, Phospholipase C, PI-3 Kinase

181
Q

What does MAP-Kinase do?

A

Activates transcription of genes involved in glucose metabolism

182
Q

What does PI-3Kinase do?

A

Shuttles GLUT-4 to membrane for insulin

183
Q

What does PLC do? (phospholipase Kinase C)

A

Starts lipid and glycogen synthesis

184
Q

Precursors of Eicosanoids

A

AA, Linoleic Acid, EPA, DHA

185
Q

Eicosanoids act through which receptor?

A

GPCR’s

186
Q

omega6:omega3

difference?

Ratio?

A

Omega 6 is more inflammatory and more stable

Healthy ratio is 1:1 - 4:1

187
Q

Four major classes of eicosanoids?

A

Prostaglandins, leukotrienes, thomboxanes, Lipoxins

188
Q

Phosphorylase versus phosphatase?

A

Phosphorylase adds phophate

Phosphatase removes phosphate

189
Q

Kinase role

A

add phosphate from atp

190
Q

Synthase mechanism

A

Adds two molecules without ATP

191
Q

Phosphodiesterase interaction with cAMP

A

Converts cAMP into AMP

192
Q

Epinephrine acts through what two receptors, and what do those receptors do?

A

Beta 2 adrengergic receptor (activates adenylyl cyclase)

Alpha 1 adrenergic receptor (activates PLC-2 > ca+ >glycogen degradation)

193
Q

Glucagon’s relationship with muscle glycogen metabolism

A

It has not effect

194
Q

Calciums relationship with glycogen metabolism

A

Ca++ release from excercise stimulates glycogen degradation

195
Q

Ca2+ Calmodulin purpose

A

Stimulate glycogenolysis in muscle

196
Q

High AMP means what?

A

low energy

197
Q

Deficiency of omega-3’s affects…?

A

affects learning, memory, olfactory and auditory responses.

Leads to depression and aggression

198
Q

PLA2 is inhibited by..?

A

Glucocorticoids (steroids)

199
Q

Cox1 Job

A

costitutively expressed to maintain normal physiology

200
Q

Cox2 job

A

Inducible in response to stress signals, proinflammatory

201
Q

Lipoxygenases are ?

A

Leukotrienes and Lipoxins

202
Q

COX 1 and 2 pathway make what eicosanoids?

A

Prostaglandins, Prostacyclin, Thromboxanes

203
Q

The one inhibitory eucosanoid

A

PGE2

(causes pain/inflammation in neurons)

204
Q

Common precursor for prostaglandins

A

PGH2

205
Q

When a prostaglandin or thromboxine releases Ca2+ as a secondary messanger, what is the effect?

A

Constriction

206
Q

When a prostaglandin releases cAMP as a secondary messanger what happens?

A

Relaxation, dilation

207
Q

TXA2 is what?

And what is it’s role?

Where is it produced?

A

TXA2 is a thromboxane, it causes aggregation of blood clotting factors and vasoconstriction

Platelets

208
Q

NSAIDs do what to Cyclooxygenase

A

Inhibit

209
Q

What are resolvins?

Produced from?

When especially produced?

A

Resolvins inhibit proinflammatory factors

Produced from EPA and DHA cox2

Especially produced in presence of aspirin

210
Q

Lipoxins are what?

A

anti-inflammatory factors and stop carcinogenesis

211
Q

Leukotrienes are what?

Where produced

A

Proinflammatory

5-lypoxygenase pathway

212
Q

PGE2/PGF2 can do what?

A

induce labor

213
Q

PGE1 is used to treat

A

ulcers

214
Q

PGI2 is used to treat

A

pulmonary hypertension

215
Q

PGF2a is used in treatment of

A

glaucoma

216
Q

Endocannibinoids: Anandamine

produced by

effectan

A

Produced by transacylase

analgesic

217
Q

Isoprostaines

Produced by:

Released by:

Used for:

A

Peroxidation of AA

PLA2

Measures oxidate stress.

218
Q

PGD2 major site of synthesis

A

Mast cells

219
Q

When will proteolysis occur for HMG-CoA?

A

High cholesterol, bile salts and sterols

220
Q

Glucagon’s relationship with cholesterol synthesis

A

Inverse

When glucagon is high, cholesterol synthesis is low.

221
Q

What is insulin’s relationship with cholesterol synthesis?

A

When insulin is high cholesterol synthesis is high.

Linear

222
Q

What happens when HMG Coa Reductase is dephosphorylated?

A

It is active and cholesterol synthesis occurs

223
Q

High sterols effect cholesterol synthesis how?

A

By inhibiting transcription of HMG CoA reductase

224
Q

What do statins do?

A

competitively inhibit HMG CoA reductase, lowering cholesterol synthesis

225
Q

alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase AND PDC complex

activators

A

Lipoic Acid

FAD

NAD+

Thiamine Pyrophosphate

CoA

226
Q

UCP involved in

A

UCP (thermogenin) is involved in heat production through brown fat cells, it causes a leak and disperses heat by uncoupling ETC

227
Q

Carbon monoxide and cyanide inhibit

A

Complex IV

228
Q

IF there was a genetic defect of Oxidative phosphorylation, which DNA would most likely have cause the error?

A

mtDNA

Less control and checks

229
Q

Dinitrophenol

What does it do?

A

Its an uncoupler

It facilities diffusion of proton gradient across inner mt membrane

230
Q

3 ketone bodies

A

acetoacetate

acetate

beta-hydroxybutarate

231
Q

Alcohol effects on metabolism

A

increase in NADH

Stops TCA

Acetyl CoA turns to ketones

232
Q

Main difference in peroxisomal beta oxidation compared to mitochondrial beta oxidation?

A

FADH2 is produced

233
Q

MCAD deficiency:?

What levels are high?

Treatment

A

Hypoketotic and hypoglycemic at fasting

High C6-C10 acylcarnitine in plasma AND urine

High C6-C10 dicarboxylic acids in urine (due to omega-oxidation)

High carbohydrates and glucose

234
Q

Who needs carnitine for transport into mitochondria? who doesn’t?

A

Long chain fatty acids > C12 need carnitine

Medium chain fatty acids do not need carnitine for transport

235
Q

Defiencies of Carnitine metabolism consequences

A

Liquid droplet accumulation in the liver heart and skeletal muscle.

236
Q

Primary Carnitine Deficiency

Plasma C(16-18) acyl carnitine levels?

Plasma free carnitine levels?

Urine free carnitine levels?

A

Carnitine not transported into the cell

LOW

LOW

ELEVATED in urine (it has no where to go)

237
Q

CPTI (liver)

Plasma C(16-18) acyl carnitine levels?

Plasma free carnitine levels?

Urine free carnitine levels?

A

CPTI enzyme not able to combine the long chain fatty acyl coa to the carnitine and therefore the long chain can’t enter the matrix.

LOW (not made)

HIGH (doesn’t ever attach)

NORMAL

238
Q

CAT deficiency

Plasma C(16-18) acyl carnitine levels?

Plasma free carnitine levels?

Urine free carnitine levels?

A

CAT is unable to bring in the fatty acylcoa-carnitine, AND recycle the carnitine

HIGH (can’t enter matrix, goes to plasma)

LOW (Carnitine gets placed on acycoa but never recycled)

NORMAL

239
Q

CPT II deficiency

Plasma C(16-18) acyl carnitine levels?

Plasma free carnitine levels?

Urine free carnitine levels?

A

Unable to split fatty acyl carnitine, therefore it stays in that form. No Beta oxidation

HIGH (looks like CAT will still transport it out)

LOW

NORMAL

240
Q

What does acyl coa dehydrogenase do?

A

It’s the first step it Beta oxidation

241
Q

How to go from pyruvate to oxaloacetate (and eventually to phosphoenolpyruvate for gluconeogenesis)?

A

Pyruvate carboxylase

242
Q

What will activate the PDC and alpha keto dehydrogenase?

A

NAD+

FAD

LIPOIC acid

thiamine pyrophosphate

CoA

243
Q

What will inhibit the PDC complex?

A

Acetyl Coa

NADH

244
Q

What phosphyrlation state should the PDC be in to be active?

What will active end product be?

A

It needs to be dephosphorylated

Acetyl CoA

245
Q

What will Ca2+ do to the PDC?

And which way will the reaction go? (like what is the end product)

A

It will activate the phosphatase, which will dephosphorylate the PDC and ACTIVATE it leading to acetyl coa

246
Q

Glucose 6 phosphatase role?

A

In gluconeogenesis convert G6P to Glucose

247
Q

F1,6BPase Role?

Inhibited by?

A

Convert F16P to F6P

F26BP

248
Q

Achetyl choline does what to the heart?

A

binds to muscarininc

which activates Gi subunit

VVV cAMP and HR

Also it opens K+ channels

249
Q

chylomicrons, vldl, hdl, ldl differences

A

Chylomicrons and vldl transport TAG, chylo’s from small intestines, vldl from liver

HDL takes cholesterol away from cell to excrete

LDL moves cholesterol to cell

250
Q

When is albumin used?

A

When fatty acids are being transported from the adipocyte to the liver

251
Q
A

MCM (2 decks)

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