Facts Flashcards

1
Q

What is NADPH required for?

A

Fatty acid biosynthesis
Steroid synthesis
GSH regeneration

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2
Q

Functions of the Pentose Phosphate Pathway

A
  • Produce NADPH in cytoplasm
  • Biosynthesis reducing power for lipid synthesis - high activity in liver and adipose tissue.
  • Maintain free cysteine groups SH on certain proteins and prevent oxidation to -S-S- disulphides bonds
  • Produce C5 sugar for nucleotides - high activity in dividing tissue for example bone marrow
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3
Q

A deficiency is G6PDH causes what is RBCs?

A

In RBCs the level of NADPH decreases which results in inappropriate disulphides bonds forming which forms aggregated proteins called Heinz bodies. This increases the cells likelihood of haemolysis.

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4
Q

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

A

brittle bone
• Mutation in the COL1A gene
• Incorrect production of collagen 1 fibres
• Weak bones and increased risk of fracture
• Shortened stature
• Blue sclera
• Hearing loss

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5
Q

Rickets

A
  • Mainly affects children
  • Vitamin D deficiency
  • Poor calcium mobilisation
  • Ineffective mineralisation
  • Weakened bone development
  • Soft bones
  • Shortened height and stature
  • Painful to walk
  • Bowed legs
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6
Q

Osteomalacia

A
  • Rickets in adults
  • Vitamin D deficiency
  • Lower mineralisation
  • Increased osteiod
  • Increased calcium resorption
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7
Q

Primary osteoporosis

A
  • Type 1 occurs in post menopausal women due to an increase in osteoclast numbers due to a loss of oestrogen.
  • Type 2 occurs in order men and women due to loss of osteoblast function due to loss of androgen and oestrogen.
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8
Q

Secondary Osteoporosis

A
  • Results of drug therapy - corticosteroids
  • Process affects bone remodelling
  • Metabolic bone diseases
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9
Q

Risks factors for osteoporosis

A
  • insufficient calcium intake
  • Lack of exercise - immobilisation of bones lead to accelerated bone loss. Physical activity is needed to maintain bone mass.
  • Cigarette smoking - in women linked to higher rates of osteoporosis.
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10
Q

Achondroplasia

A
  • Inherited mutation in the FGF3 receptor gene
  • FGF promotes collagen formation from cartilage - endochondral ossification affected
  • Results in short stature but normal sized head and torso - long bones cant lengthen properly.
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11
Q

Osteoarthritis

A
  • Mechanical failure of articular cartilage
  • Narrowing of joint space
  • Bones rub against one another
  • Bone growths called osteophytes may occur
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12
Q

Rheumatiod arthritis

A
  • Autoimmune disease
  • inflammation of synovial membrane as it is attacked
  • Thickening of joint capsule
  • Subsequent damage to underlying bone and articular cartilage
  • Both bone and cartilage disintegrate.
  • Increase in number of macrophages, osteoclasts, fibroblasts, T cells, B cells, mast cells, dendritic cells and plasma cells.
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13
Q

Bone repair - haematoma

A

Blood vessels in bone and periosteum break
A mass of clotted blood forms
Bone cells at the edge of the fracture die.
Swelling and inflammation occur (granulocytes enter the cell)
Phagocytic cells and osteoclasts enter and begin to remove dead tissue
Macrophages will eventually remove the blood clot

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14
Q

Bone repair - fibrocartilaginous callus

A

New blood vessels infiltrate the fracture haematoma
A soft callus of granulation tissue develops
Fibroblasts produce collagen fibres. Others differentiate into chondroblasts that produce
hyaline cartilage
Osteoblasts from the periosteum and endosteum invade the fracture site and begin bone re
construction

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15
Q

Bone repair - bony callus

A

New trabeculae begin to form
The soft callus is converted to bony callus of cancellous bone
Endochondral ossification replaces the cartilage with cancellous bone and intramembranous
ossification replaces any spaces with bone

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16
Q

Bone repair - bone remodelling

A

Cancellous bone begins to be remodelled into compact bone in the cortical region
Material bulging from the outside and inwards is removed by osteoclasts
The final shape of the re-modelled area is the same as prior to the fracture.

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17
Q

Mast cells

A

inflammatory cells found in loose connective tissue near blood vessels. They release histamine - increases blood vessel wall permeability, heparin - anticoagulant and cytokines - attract immune cell.

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18
Q

Galactosaemia - enzymes

A

galactokinase,
UDP galactose 4 epimerase
galactose-1-P uridyl transferase.

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19
Q

Essential fructosuria

A

fructokinase missing causing fructose in urine with no clinical signals

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20
Q

Fructose intolerance

A

Aldolase B missing causing fructose 1 P to accumulate in the liver causing liver damage.

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21
Q

Hashimotos

A

Low T3 and T4 high TSH

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22
Q

Graves

A

Low TSH high T3 and T4

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23
Q

Haemoglobin structure

A

a quaternary structure with 4 subunits - 2 alpha 2 beta. Each subunit has a prosthetic haem group

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24
Q

Sickle cell anaemia structure

A

a mutation in the HBB gene which coverts the glutamate molecule to valine in the beta haemoglobin chain. Glutamate is hydrophilic and valine is hydrophobic. This mutation creates sticky pockets when Hb is in the T state. This causes polymerisation and sickling

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25
Q

Foetal Haemoglobin

A

remains high after birth until the baby is roughly 2-4 months old. This means sickle cell anaemia isn’t noticed til a few months after birth. This is due to the foetal haemoglobin having a higher affinity for oxygen than adult haemoglobin so the baby can still reach the same level of demand despite possibly having anaemia.

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26
Q

Deamination

A

the hydrolysis of cytosine into uracil.This is due to the removal of the amine group. 5-methylcytosine can undergo deamination to become thymine.

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27
Q

Transition and transversion

A

Transition is change to the same type of base purine to purine (A to G) and pyrimidine to pyrimidine (C to T).
Trans version is a change to an alternative base type. (A to T and G to C).

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28
Q

Missense / non-synonymous

A

• Gene product - (change in amino acid)

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29
Q

mutation affecting regulatory sequences

A

• Amount of gene product

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30
Q

silent or neutral / synonymous

A

No effect

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31
Q

frame shift / mutation in STOP codon

A

• Polypeptide length

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32
Q

Fork slippage

A

occurs in a repetitive area where are newly synthesised strand loops out. A nucleotide is added on the new strand. It can also occur on the template strand which results in one less nucleotide on the new strand as it isn’t read as it has bulged out. This can lead to a trinucleotide expansion causing diseases like Huntington’s.

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33
Q

Polyploidy

A

the gain of a haploid set of chromosomes for instance triploidy - 69. Most common cause is polyspermy.

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34
Q

Aneuploidy

A

the loss or gain of whole chromosomes (trisomy or monosmy caused by meiotic non disjunction) For example Down syndrome - chromosome 21 trisomy or Turner syndrome - one of the sex chromosomes is missing 45 X

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35
Q

Mosaicism

A

presence of two or more cell lines in an individual caused by mitotic non-disjunction.

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36
Q

Non disjunction

A

occurs when the chromatids fail to separate from another leading to monosomy or trisomy

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37
Q

Reciprocal translocation

A

Balanced - when 2 chromosomes swap a piece of chromosomal material. No DNA has
been lost. This can occur between any 2 chromosomes. This person is still healthy.
Unbalanced - when 2 chromosomes swap information and the person receives an unequal amount of one chromosome. This means they have lost DNA. The larger the imbalance the more likely there will be a miscarriage. The baby if survives could be born with birth defects

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38
Q

Robertonsian translocation

A

Only occurs between the acrocentric chromosomes (13,14,15,21,22). 2 acrocentric
chromosomes get stuck together. This results in aneupoldy. Females have a higher
risk than males.

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39
Q

Base excision repair

A

corrects deamination. The uracil is detected and removed leading to a base-less nucleotide. The baseless nucleotide is removed leaving a hole in the DNA backbone. The hole is filled with the correct base by DNA polymerase and the gap is sealed by ligase.

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40
Q

Nucleotide excision repair

A

corrects thymine dimers created by UV radiation. Once it is detected the surrounding DNA is opened to form a bubble. Enzymes cut away the damaged region. A DNA polymerase replaced the removed DNA and ligase seals the backbone.

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41
Q

Mismatch repair

A

cuts the mismatch area including the mismatch neighbours and removes them by exonuclease. The missing areas is replaced by DNA polymerase and ligase seals the DNA backbone.

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42
Q

Single strand repair

A

not error-free but not error-prone. Relatively simple as the other strand is used to replicate the missing section.

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43
Q

Non homologous end joining

A

The broken ends are recognised by proteins and protected. A complex forms and damaged ends are removed. The broken ends are then ligated together. Thus is error prone.

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44
Q

Homologous directed repair

A

uses the other set of DNA in the chromosome to replicate the missing section

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45
Q

Compartment syndrome

A
caused by trauma to one compartment. This can lead to internal bleeding increasing the pressure in one compartment which exerts pressure on another compartment, skin and nerves. This is because muscles are found in compartments separated by fascia. 
This causes:
• Deep constant pain 
• Paresthesia
• Compartment feeling firm and tight
• Swollen, red and shiny.
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46
Q

Skeletal muscle growth

A

shows hypertrophic growth. This means that the number of muscle cells stays the same but the size of the cells increases

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47
Q

Power stroke

A

ATP attaches to the myosin head which causes the cross bridge to detach.
ATP hydrolysed to ADP and Pi cocking the head.
Myosin cross bridge attaches to the actin filament.
Working stroke - the myosin head pivots and bends as it pulls on the actin filament sliding it towards the midline.
A new ATP binds repeating the cycle.

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48
Q

Lymph movement aided by:

A
  • Adjacent arteries pulsing
  • Skeletal muscle movement
  • Pressure changes in the thorax during breathing
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49
Q

Lymph nodes

A
  • Multiple afferent lymphatic vessels that enter via the convex surface.
  • A single efferent lymphatic vessel leaves through the concave hilum.
  • Each lymph node has a feeding artery and draining vein that also enter and leave via the hilum.
  • Dendritic cells are located in germinal centres and when they detect an antigen causes proliferation of B cells. These can then activate T cells.
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50
Q

Enlarged lymph node causes

A
  • As lymph nodes fight an infection the germinal centres fill with lymphocytes which causes swelling.
  • Cancers can metastasise to lymph nodes causing swelling
  • Lymphoma is a cancer originating in the lymph nodes.
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51
Q

Thymus

A

maturation of bone marrow derived stem cells into immunocompetent T cells
changes in Thymus associated with myasthenia gravis.

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52
Q

Spleen

A

Red pulp - filters blood, white pulp - immune systems
-Immune functions -
antigen presentation by APC
Activation of B and T cells
Removal of macro molecular antigens
-Haemopoietic functions -
Removal and destruction of old, damaged erythrocytes and platelets
Retrieval of iron from erythrocyte protein
Erythrocyte storage

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53
Q

Tonsils

A

Prevents pathogen ingress through nasal or oral routes
prevents ingress though aural routes
Crytps increase surface area.

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54
Q

Vermiform appendix

A

prevents ingress through GI route
prevents ingress arriving from the ileum
crypts increase surface area

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55
Q

Peyers patches

A

prevents pathogen ingress though digestion

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56
Q

Loose connective tissue

A
  • Multiple cell types
  • Contains 2 fibres - collagen and elastin
  • Gel like ground substance
Functions 
• Hold vessels that supply fluids
• Permit cell migration
• Involved in inflammation 
• Packs organs
• Hold things in place
• Insulted and cushions organs

Located beneath epithelia

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57
Q

Dense irregular

A

• Fibroblasts
• Col 1 in all direction
• Resits stress in all directions
Deep layer of dermis

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58
Q

Dense regular

A

• Fibroblasts
• Col 1 parallel
• Resists stress in one direction
Tendons and Ligaments

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59
Q

Cholera - diarrhoea

A

causes diarrhoea by inhibiting the action of GTPase which breaks down the G alpha S complex. As there is more of type complex adenylyl cyclase is activated more and will convert ATP to cyclic AMP. This causes stimulation of the CFTR transporter in the small intestines which moves chloride ions into the lumen. This causes water to follow by osmosis into the lumen increasing the amount of water in your stool causing diarrhoea.

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60
Q

Malignant hyperthermia

A

Severe reaction to anaesthetics such as succinylcholine
Shows an autosomal dominant pattern
Massive contractile fasciculation
Muscle rigidity caused by excessive Calcium release
Outcome is excessive heat and metabolic acidosis
Muscle breakdown and hyperkalaemia

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61
Q

Types of dependence

A

Physical dependence relates to experiencing the associated side effects from withdrawal from the substance.

Psychological dependence involves feelings of satisfaction and desire to repeat the use of the drug in order to produce pleasure and avoid pain.

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62
Q

Uptake of screening

A

the proportion of those invited who take up the invitation to participate

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63
Q

Coverage of screening

A

the proportion of eligible population who have been screened within a given time.

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64
Q

Definition of adherence

A

The extent to which a persons behaviour - taking medication, following a diet and/or executing lifestyle changes - corresponds with agreed recommendations from the healthcare provider

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65
Q

Non-adherence might involve …

A
  • Failing to pick up a prescription or repeat prescription
  • Stopping medication before the course is complete
  • Taking more or less of the medication than prescribed
  • Taking medication at the wrong time, missing doses etc.
  • Taking some but not all of the medication
  • Patients may also fail to adhere to treatment recommendations other than medication e.g. lifestyle changes
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66
Q

Consequences of non-adherence

A

health benefits forgone (poor health-related quality
of life, increased hospitalisations and premature
mortality)
wider economic burden (personal, health and social
cost).

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67
Q

Unintentional non-adherence

A

Patients want to follow their treatment but are prevented

from doing so by barriers outside of their control

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68
Q

Intentional non-adherence

A

The person decides not to follow the treatment regime based on their beliefs, attitudes and expectations

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69
Q

Interventions to improve adherence

A

Educating patient on the medicine to
But these interventions don’t address intentional non-adherence increase their knowledge
Simplifying the regimen
Making it easier to remember to use the medicine (physical aids and reminders)

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70
Q

Explicit rationing

A

when care is limited. The decisions and basis of decisions are justified by defined rules of entitlement. Technical processes and political processes.

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71
Q

Implicit rationing

A

When care is limited. The allocation of resources are taken through individual clinical decisions without a set criteria. This can lead to inequalities as could be based on social deservingness.

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72
Q

Explicit rationing - advantages

A

Transparent, accountable
Opportunity for debate
More clearly evidence-based
More opportunities for equity in decision-making

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73
Q

Explicit rationing - disadvantages

A
Very complex
Heterogeneity of patients and illnesses
Patient and professional hostility
Impact on clinical freedom
Some evidence of patient distress
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74
Q

Purpose of screening

A

. To give a better outcome compared with finding
something in the usual way (having symptoms and self- reporting to health services)
• If treatment can wait until there are symptoms, there is no
point in screening • Finding something earlier is not the primary objective

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75
Q

Five areas of criteria for screening

A
  1. Condition
  2. Test
  3. Intervention
  4. Screening programme
  5. Implementation
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76
Q

Screening criteria - condition

A

It needs to be an important health problem with epidemiology, incidence, prevalence and natural history understood.
All cost effective primary preventions have been implemented

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77
Q

Criteria of screening - the test

A

Simple, safe, precise and validated
Agreed cut off level
Acceptable to public
Agreed policy for further diagnostic investigation

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78
Q

Criteria of screening - intervention

A

Evidence that intervention at pre-symptomatic phase leads to better outcomes.
Good evidence based policies covering which individuals should receive intervention

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79
Q

Criteria of screening - screening programme

A

Proved effectiveness in reducing mortality and morbidity
Clinically, socially and ethically acceptable
Benefits outweigh harms

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80
Q

Criteria of screening - implementation

A

All of other options for managing the condition have been considered
Management of monitoring programme
Adequate staffing and facilities
Evidence based information available for internet participants

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81
Q

Classical learning theories

A

Environmental cues have connection with behaviour.
Avoid cues and change association of cue with behaviour
Pair behaviour with unpleasant response

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82
Q

Operant conditioning

A

Act on environment and behaviour shaped by consequences

Behaviour is reinforced if rewarded or a punishment is removed

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83
Q

Limitations of conditioning theories

A

Classical and operant conditioning based on simple stimulus-response associations
No account of cognitive processes, knowledge, beliefs, memory, attitudes, expectations etc.
No account of social context

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84
Q

Social learning theory

A

Behaviour is goal related
People are motivated to perform behaviours if they are valued and believe they can do it
Modelling more effective if models are if high status or are like us
Influenced by peers, family and media figures

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85
Q

Cognitive dissonance

A

Discomfort when hold inconsistent beliefs or
actions/events don’t match beliefs
– Reduce discomfort by changing beliefs or behaviour
– Health promotion:
• providing health information (usually uncomfortable) creates
mental discomfort and can prompt change in behaviour

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86
Q

Health belief model

A

Beliefs about health treat

  • perceived susceptibility
  • perceived severity

Beliefs about health related behaviour

  • perceived benefits Cues to Action
  • perceived barriers
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87
Q

Theory of planned behaviour

A

. Attitude towards behaviour
. Subjective norm
. Perceived control

Leads to intention

Leads to action

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88
Q

COM-B model - capability

A

Physical and psychological capability

Knowledge, skill, strength, stamina

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89
Q

COM-B model - motivation

A

Reflective amp automatic

Plans, evaluations, desires, impulses

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90
Q

COM-B model - opportunity

A

Physical and social opportunity

Time, resources, cues and prompts

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91
Q

Cost minimisation analysis

A

• Outcomes assumed to be equivalent
• Focus is on costs (i.e. only the inputs)
• Not often relevant as outcomes rarely equivalent
• Possible example:
– Say all prostheses for hip replacement improve
mobility equally. Choose the cheapest one.

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92
Q

Cost effectiveness analysis

A

• Used to compare drugs or interventions which have a
common health outcome e.g. reduction in blood pressure • Compared in terms of cost per unit outcome e.g. cost per reduction of 5mm/Hg
• If costs are higher for one treatment, but benefits are too,
need to calculate how much extra benefit is obtained for the extra cost
• Key question: Is extra benefit worth extra cost?

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93
Q

Cost benefit analysis

A
  • All inputs and outputs valued in monetary terms
  • Can allow comparison with interventions outside healthcare
  • Methodological difficulties e.g. putting monetary value on non-monetary benefits such as lives saved
  • “Willingness to pay” often used, but this is also problematic
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94
Q

Cost utility analysis

A
  • Particular type of cost effectiveness analysis
  • Cost utility analysis focuses on quality of health outcomes produced or foregone
  • Most frequently used measure is quality adjusted life year (QALY)
  • Interventions can be compared in cost per QALY terms We are going to look more closely at QALYs…
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95
Q

Gaucher disease

A

The bulid up of certain fatty substances in organs particularly the spleen and liver. It causes them to enlarge and this affects their function. It can also occur in bone tissue causing them to become weaker and fracture easier.

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96
Q

Properties of peptide bonds

A

Planar
Stereoisomerism
Bonds either side are free to rotate
Rigid

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97
Q

Resting potential of cardiac myocytes

A

-80mV

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98
Q

Resting potential of neurones

A

-70mV

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99
Q

Resting potential of skeletal muscle myocytes

A

-90mV

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100
Q

Resting potential of smooth muscle myocytes

A

-50mV

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101
Q

Generation of glands - in utero development

Exocrine

A

Growth signal received - fibroblast growth factor
Proliferation of daughter cells occurs and extracellular protein degrades enzyme produced
Central cells die off through apoptosis to produce a duct

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102
Q

Generation of glands - in utero development

Endocrine glands

A

Growth signal received - fibroblast growth factor
Proliferation of daughter cells occurs and extracellular protein degrades enzyme produced
Production of angiogenic factors to stimulate blood vessel growth in and around the tissue
Link to mother cells broken through apoptosis

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103
Q

Difference between endocrine gland for normal and for thyroid follicles

A

In thyroid follicles, production of colloid between
epithelial cells causes expansion of follicle into a
sphere

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104
Q

When does gland generation occur

A

Weeks 5 and 6

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105
Q

Mucous membranes

A

Line certain internal tubes which open to the exterior
GI Tract, respirator tract and urinary tract
Bear mucus secretion cells - goblet
Carries blood and lymphatic vessels and nerves

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106
Q

Serous membrane

A

Thin, two part membrane which lines certain closed cavities and envelop the viscera.
The peritoneum
Pleural sacs
Pericardial sac

Secrete watery lubricating fluid

Simple squamous cells
Carries blood and lymphatic vessels and nerves

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107
Q

Types of hair

A

Vellus - short thin and covers most of your body
hair on arms

Terminal - thick long - vellus replaced by terminal in puberty
Hair on head, pubic hair

Lanugo - covers the developing foetus

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108
Q

Function of hair

A

Thermoregulation
Sexual attraction
Sensation
Protection

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109
Q

Blood clotting cascade

A

Intrinsic and extrinsic pathways cause the activation of factor X. This causes thrombin activation which causes the formation of a fibrin clot. This occurs by thrombin converted fibrinogen into fibrin

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110
Q

Stopping the clotting cascade

A

Localisation of prothrombin - dilution of clotting factors by blood flow and removal by liver
Digestion of factors by proteases
Factor Va and 8a degraded by protein C

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111
Q

Breaking the clot - fibrinolysis

A

Plasminogen - inactive precursors - are activated by streptokinase anf t-PA to produce plasmin. This converts fibrin into fibrin fragments.

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112
Q

Key components of diet and functions

A

Carbohydrates - source of monosaccharides
Protein - source of amino acids
Lipids - essential fatty acids, reduced bulk of diet
Water - replaces lost water
Fibre - essential for normal function of GI tract
Vitamins - prevents deficiencies

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113
Q

Essential amino acids

A
Isoleucine 
Lysine
Threonine 
Valine 
Phenylalanine 
Tryptophan 
Leucine 
Histidine 
Methionine
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114
Q

Essential fatty acids

A

Linoleic acid and linolenic acid

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115
Q

Osteiod

A

Collagen
Calcium hydroxyapatite
Sodium hydroxyapatite

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116
Q

Lineweaver Burke plot y intercept

A

1/vmax

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117
Q

Lineweaver Burke plot x intercept

A

-1/km

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118
Q

Lineweaver Burke plot gradient

A

Km/ vmax

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119
Q

Where are ketone bodies synthesised

A

Liver mitochondria

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120
Q

Three different ketones

A

Acetoacetate
Acetone
Beta hydroxybutyrate

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121
Q

Normal plasma ketone concentration

A

Less than 1mM

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122
Q

Ketone production pathway

A

Acetylcholine Co-A is converted into HMG-CoA by synthase. That is then converted into acetoacetate by lyase. It then can become acetone or beta hydroxybutyrate.

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123
Q

Ketone body production in fed state

A

Insulin to glucagon ratio is high. Lyase is inhibited and reductase is activated so cholesterol is synthesised instead of ketone bodies.

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124
Q

Ketone body synthesis in starvation state

A

When insulin to glucagon ratio is low. Lyase is activated, reductase is inhibited. Ketone body synthesised.

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125
Q

Features of ketone bodies

A

Water soluble
Volatile acetone may be excreted via the lungs
Acetoacetate and beta hydroxybutyrate are relatively strong organic can lead to ketoacidosis.
Above renal threshold so excreted in the urine - ketonuria

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126
Q

What are some cancer repair defects

A

DDR defect
Mutated gene
Syndrome
Cancer predisposition

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127
Q

Cancer evolution - differential sensitivity

A

Chemotherapy is applied.
One clone may be susceptible to the chemotherapy. The other clone may not be. This means it can reproduce and grow as there is no competition with other clones.

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128
Q

Cancer evolution - chemotherapy induced mutagenesis

A

When chemotherapy is applied a mutation occurs creating a new clone. This develops and grows to form a tumour as it is resistant to chemotherapy.

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129
Q

Synthetic lethality strategies

A

Clever stratifies are put in place that if a cancer cell develops the healthy gene is knocked out so the cancer gene is the predominant gene. This causes cellular death.

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130
Q

Southern Blotting uses

A

To analyse clones

Investigate gene structure - large deletions

Investigate gene expansions, triplet repeats - Huntington’s

To investigate mutations in genetic tests

Investigate variation - DNA fingerprinting

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131
Q

Southern Blotting process

A

DNA fragments are added to an agarose gel for electrophoresis. Transfer to more solid support like a nitrocellulose sheet by blotting. Addition of a fluorescent DNA probe will bind to the complementary sequence. An image is then created using an auto radiogram.

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132
Q

Characteristics of probes in southern blotting

A

Probs dont align completely
Less than 80% similarity with the DNA
Don’t affect the position of the target sequence in the gel.

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133
Q

Microarrays

A

1000s of genes to be analysed simultaneously
Contain single stranded oligonucleotides with sequence corresponding to coding regions of the genome attached to a solid support
Changes in gene expression can be monitored.

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134
Q

FISH - fluorescent in situ hybridisation

A

Probes are made against particular DNA sequences and can be added to cells that have been isolated. It can light up chromosomes to show monosomy or trisomy.

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135
Q

Requirements for gel electrophoresis

A

Gel - a matrix that allows separation of the protein sample
Buffer - maintains charge on the protein samples
Power supply - generates charge difference across the gel
Stain / detection - identify the presence of the separated proteins

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136
Q

SDS-PAGE

A
Abolishes 2nd and 3rd structure 
Separates proteins based on size 
Ionic detergent breaks down non covalent interactions within proteins 
Slow - large
Fast - small
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137
Q

Sanger DNA sequencing

A

Based on use of dideoxyneucleotides to terminate chain elongation
Recognised by DNA polymerase as it has a 2 prime H on the ribose sugar.
DNA molecules of increasing size are created with fluorescent molecule being the dideoxyneucleotides.
Separated out by capillary electrophoresis
Detect fluorescently labelled molecules.

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138
Q

Agarose gel electrophoresis process

A

Samples placed in wells at the negative electrode
DNA moved towards the positive electrode
Smallest samples move furthest
DNA is visualised by staining with ethidium bromide

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139
Q

Oxidative Phosphorylation

A

Electron transport coupled to ATP synthesis
Electrons are transferred from NADH to FAD2H to molecular oxygen
Energy is released to generate a proton gradient, Proton motive force.
Energy from the dissipation of the proton motive force is coupled to the synthesis of ATP from ADP.

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140
Q

Regulation of oxidative phosphorylation

A

When [ATP] is high and [ADP] is low there is less substrate for ATP synthase.
Concentration of H+ increases in the inter mitochondrial space.
Prevents further H+ pumping - stops electron transport

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141
Q

Inhibition of Oxidative phosphorylation

A

Inhibitors like cyanide block electron transport as it prevents the acceptance of electrons by 02.

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142
Q

Uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation

A

Uncouplers increase the permeability of the mitochondrial inner membrane to protons which dissipates the proton gradient reducing the proton motive force
No drive for ATP synthesis

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143
Q

Substrate level phosphorylation

A

Requires soluble enzymes
Energy coupling occurs directly through the formation of high energy bonds.
Can occur in limited extent in absence of O2.

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144
Q

Myelination in the PNS

A

Schwann cells surround the axon
Mesaxon membrane begins to wrap around the axon
This squeezes the cytoplasm towards the outer surface
Plasma membrane is consequently compacted to form myelin sheath.

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145
Q

Vasculogenesis

A

Formation of new blood vessels
Angioblast precursors in the bone marrow
During embryonic development

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146
Q

Angiogenesis

A

Formation of new blood vessels from existing ones

Collateral arteries

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147
Q

Sprouting angiogenesis

A

FGF produced by mesenchymal cells causes pericytes to convert into smooth muscle cells.
This process is slow and takes hours to days to form blood vessels

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148
Q

Division of primary vessel - intussusception

A

Twinned vessels from primary vessel
Needs multiple growth factors
Process is quick and takes minutes to hours to form.

149
Q

Types of drug administration

A
Subcutaneous 
Intravenous 
Oral 
Intramuscular 
Rectal 
Sublingual
150
Q

Factors affecting drug absorption

A

Physiological factors - GI length, drug lipophilicity,
GI Physiology - blood flow, GI mobility, food/pH
First Pass Metabolism - gut lumen may denature drugs, gut/liver have 2 main enzymes Phase 1 and 2 enzymes

151
Q

Effect on first pass metabolism

A

Reduces availability of drug reaching the systemic circulation therefore affects therapeutic potential

152
Q

Bioavailability

A

Fraction of a defined dose which reaches the systemic circulation.

153
Q

Factors affecting drug distribution

A

Drug molecule lipophilicity or hydrophilicity

Degree of drug binding to plasma or other tissues and proteins - albumin

154
Q

Vd on penetration

A

Smaller Vd means less penetration

Larger Vd means more penetration

155
Q

Phase 1

A

Cytochrome P450 enzymes

These are versatile generalists which metabolise a large range of molecules.

156
Q

Phase 2

A

Carried out by hepatic enzymes
Mainly cytosolic
Generalists but are more rapid

157
Q

Main factors of direct clinical relevance are …

A

Age
Sex
General health

158
Q

CYP450 Inhibition

A

Concurrent administration of certain drugs can inhibit specific CYP450 isozymes
Inhibition can be competitive and non competitive
Plasma levels increase
Examples are grapefruit juice inhibits CYP 3A4

159
Q

Main route of exit of a drug

A

Through the kidneys

160
Q

Renal excretion of drugs - process

A

. Free drug enters the glomerular filtrate through the bowmans capsule
. Active secretion of drugs through the proximal tubule.
. Passive reabsorption of lipid soluble drug which has been concentrated so drug is higher in lumen so enters the perivascular space.
. Lipid Insoluble drug into urine.

161
Q

Clearance of drug

A

The volume of plasma that is completely cleared of the drug per unit of time

162
Q

Total body clearance =

A

Hepatic clearance + renal clearance

163
Q

Drug half life

A

The amount of time over which the concentration of a drug in plasma decreases to half of that of the original concentration.

164
Q

Multi pass membrane protein

A

Consists of one polypeptide chain that penetrates the membrane at least twice

165
Q

Multi subunit membrane protein

A

Consists of more than one polypeptide chain - where one is anchored to the membrane

166
Q

Which way to sodium ions move?

A

Into the cell from the extracellular space

167
Q

Which way does potassium move?

A

Out of the cell

168
Q

Which way does chloride ions move?

A

Into the cell

169
Q

Which way do anions other than chloride move

Phosphate, amino acids and bicarbonate

A

Out of the cell

170
Q

Hypodermis - location, function and structure

A

Location - lowest layer of skin - subcutaneous layer

Structure is mainly adipose tissue and loose connective

Functions - provides energy store, shock absorber and acts as an insulator

171
Q

Dermis location, structure and function

A

Location - between epidermis and hypodermis

Structure - 2 layers upper and lower

Functions - contains hairs and sweat glands, contains sensory structures

172
Q

Epidermis

A

Location - outermost layer of epithelial cells

Structure - 4 or 5 layers, Held together by focal adhesions and desmosomes

Functions - prevents water loss, prevents pathogen entry, synthesis of keratin

173
Q

Layer of epidermis

A

Stratum corneum

Stratum lucidum - only soles of feet and palms of hands

Stratum granulosum

Stratum spinosum

Stratum basale

174
Q

Stratum corneum

A
  • Outermost layer made of squames (dead keratinocytes) • Thick on palms and soles of feet – prone to injury
  • Continuously shed
175
Q

Stratum Granulosum

A

• Stratified squamous epithelium
• Lamellar granules (filament-associated proteins that assemble keratin fibrils and secrete it)
• Tonofibrils (bundles of keratin filaments and keratohyalin granules)
made by lamellar bodies

176
Q

Stratum Spinosum

A
  • Cuboidal epithelium arranged in 3 layers (held together by desmosomes)
  • Producers of lamellar bodies (keratohyalin factories)
177
Q

Stratum basale

A

• Tall columnar epithelial cells
• Constantly renew keratinocytes by cell division
• As daughter cells differentiate they move away from the epidermis-dermis junction
• These make keratin filaments (tonofilaments)
- They lose their ability to divide
• Also home to the melanocytes – produce melanin

178
Q

Melanocytes

A

Occurs at intervals

Produces melanin the main pigment of the skin

179
Q

Langerhans cells

A

Highly specialised capacity to present antigens to T lymphocytes and mediate a response.

180
Q

Merkel cells

A

Mechanoreceptor cells associated with sensory nerve endings

181
Q

Polygenic Inheritance

A

occurs when one characteristic is controlled by two or more genes

182
Q

Anaphase lag

A

a consequence of an event during cell division where sister chromatids do not properly separate from each other because of improper spindle formation.

183
Q

Main types of RNA.

A

Ribosomal RNA

Messenger RNA

Transfer RNA

184
Q

Transcription initiation

A
Transcription factor binds promoter. 
Binding is directional on the TATA box 
RNA polymerase is recruited 
Unwinding of DNA helix 
Formation of a transcription bubble 
Transcription initiates directionally 5’ to 3’
185
Q

Transcription Elongation

A

RNA synthesis from 5’ to 3’
Template reads 3’ to 5’
Single stranded RNA molecule is made

186
Q

Transcription termination

A

Sequence dependent, other factors involved

Results in a primary RNA molecule

187
Q

RNA processing

A

Post transcriptional modifications
rRNA and tRNA have chemical modifications and cleaveage

mRNA is capped, slipiced and tailed.

188
Q

Initiation code for translation

189
Q

Termination

A

UAA, UAG, UGA

190
Q

Translation - initiation

A

Recognition of cap by tRNA-Met

Recognition of the AUG anticodon

191
Q

Translation - elongation

A

Another tRNA molecule moves to its complementary codon. A peptide bond forms and the first tRNA molecule leaves and another one comes ….
Growing polypeptide pushed into exit tunnel

192
Q

Translation - termination

A

Release factor recognises the STOP codon
Hydrolysis resulting in a free peptide and uncharted tRNA
Dissociation of ribosome into subunits

193
Q

Cells with an absolute requirement for energy

A

RBCs
Neutrophils
Cells in the lens of the eye
Cells in the kidney medulla

194
Q

Effect of lactate dehydrogenase

A

Lactate to pyruvate

195
Q

Where does lactate form?

A

Skeletal muscle and RBCs

196
Q

Organs which metabolise lactate into pyruvate

A

Liver
Kidneys
Heart

197
Q

What is glycerol phosphate formed from

198
Q

Enzyme that produces glycerol phosphate

A

Glycerol 3 phosphate dehydrogenase

199
Q

Where is glycerol phosphate made in the body

A

Adipose tissue and liver

200
Q

Function of glycerol phosphate

A

Used in triglycerides

Phospholipid biosynthesis

201
Q

What is 2,3 bisphosphoglycerate formed form

A

1,3 bisphosphoglycerate

202
Q

What enzyme produces 2,3 bisphosphoglycerate

A

Bisphosphoglycerate mutase

203
Q

Where in the body is 2,3 bisphosphoglycerate formed in the body

204
Q

Function of 2,3 bisphosphoglycerate

A

Regulator of Hb O2 affinity, promotes release of O2 from Hb

205
Q

Re-feeding syndrome

A

Kwashiorkor - unable to deal with protein rich food in large amounts due to down regulation of enzymes in urea cycle. This can lead to a build up of ammonia causing toxicity.
This is why small amount of proteins need to be increased at regular intervals.

206
Q

How does re-feeding syndrome increase the risk of cardiac arrhythmias.

A

When a starving individual consumes large amounts of glucose there is a risk of increased insulin levels. Insulin causes potassium into the cell which causes hyperkalaemia which can cause arrhythmias.

207
Q

Transposable elements

A

Sections of DNA that move around the genome. If they insert themselves into a functional gene it could cause damage.

208
Q

Process that occurs when noradrenaline binds at the beta 1 adrenoceptors which increase blood pressure?

A

Binding of noradrenaline causes a conformational change to the GPCR.
GPCR interacts with the G protein which causes GTP to displace GDP on the alpha G subunit
Th complex separates and the alpha-GTP interacts with adenylyl cyclase to convert ATP into cAMP. cAMP binds to PKA. This increases Calcium concentration of cardiac muscles.

209
Q

Mindfulness

A

Mindfulness means ​paying attention on purpose​, in the ​present moment​, and in a non-judgemental way

210
Q

What is hereditary spherocytosis ?

A

Decreased levels of spectrin in the cytoskeleton of RBCs which then become round in shape.

211
Q

What is hereditary elliptocytosis?

A

Defective spectrin causes RBCs to become rugby ball shaped and become more prone lyse.

212
Q

What does ESSENCE stand for?

A
Education 
Spirituality
Stress management
Environment 
Nutrition 
Connectedness 
Exercise
213
Q

What does SMART stand for?

A
Specific
Measurable
Attractive
Realistic 
Timely
214
Q

Types of collagen

A

1 - found in fibrocartilage, bone, connective tissue
2 - found in cartilage
3 - found in lymph vessels, tissues
4 - found in basement membrane

215
Q

What causes the shocking absorbing property of articular cartilage?

A

Hydration of glycosaminoglycans

216
Q

Why is cartilage different to other connective tissue?

A

It is an a vascular tissue - no blood supply

217
Q

What does the endosteum do?

A

Lines the medulla cavity

218
Q

Where do you find sensory neurone cell bodies

A

The dorsal root ganglia

219
Q

What is a synonym for anterior

220
Q

What is a synonym for posterior

221
Q

What is ipsilateral?

A

Structures are on the same side

222
Q

What is contra lateral?

A

Structures are on opposite sides

223
Q

Flexion does what to the angle

A

Decreases angle between the moving part and the stationary part

224
Q

Extension

A

Increases the angle with the moving part and stationary part

225
Q

Abduction

A

Takes structures away from the midline

226
Q

Addiction

A

Brings structures back towards the body

227
Q

Supine

A

Facing upwards on your back

228
Q

Prone

A

On your front back upwards

229
Q

Inversion - feet

A

Foot points inwards

230
Q

Eversion - feet

A

Foot points outwards

231
Q

Dorsiflexion

A

Foot points upwards

232
Q

Plantarflexion

A

Foot points downwards

233
Q

Importance of glycosylation for proteins and lipids

A

Prevent digestion by proteases and lipases

234
Q

Where are protein hormones synthesised

A

Ribosomes and RER

235
Q

Where are steroid hormones synthesised?

A

Precursors are made in the mitochondria and created in the SER.

236
Q

Which hormones are packaged into vesicles?

237
Q

Is vitamin C stored in the body?

238
Q

Growth factor of RBC

A

Erythropoietin

239
Q

Growth factor of WBC

240
Q

Growth factors for lymphocytes

A

Interleukins

241
Q

Growth factors for platelets

A

Thrombopoietin

242
Q

Stein berg sign

A

Thumb test

243
Q

Walker murdoch sign

A

Wrist test

244
Q

What is a lacuna in relation to cartilage

A

Depression that a chrondrocytes sits in

245
Q

Slipped epiphyses what is it and what causes it

A

Epiphyses of femur slips downwards down the bone

Obesity, trauma, inflammation

246
Q

Perthes disease

A

Poor blood supply to the femur so the femur head cells die.

247
Q

Dolor

248
Q

Rubor

249
Q

Calor

250
Q

Tumor

251
Q

Functio laesa

A

Loss of function

252
Q

T1 what colour is water

253
Q

T2 what colour is water

254
Q

Functions of the skin

A
Protection and repair 
Vitamin D synthesis 
Sensation 
Absorption
Temperature regulation
255
Q

Factors that affect the normal range of values for homeostasis

A
Age
Sex
Diet
Smoking
Ethnicity 
Exercise
256
Q

What does serum bone alkaline phosphatase do?

A

Enzyme decreases over time.

Regulates bone mineralisation so bone density decreases.

257
Q

What causes an increase in potassium entering the cell

A

Insulin level increase

258
Q

Name a local anaesthetic

259
Q

What does atropine do?

A

Treats nerve gases and pesticide poisoning by blocking the mACh receptor which prevents excess ACh production.

260
Q

Clinical signs of thyrotoxicosis

A
Weight loss 
Heart palpitations 
Anxiety 
Muscle weakness
Fatigue 
Hair loss
261
Q

What drugs can treat thyrotoxicosis?

A

Propranolol binds to beta adrenoceptors and reduce heart rate and anxiety

Thianomides which stop thyroid from producing excess hormones.

262
Q

What effect does 0% first pass metabolism have?

A

Higher drug absorption so more reaches the hepatic blood supply

263
Q

What effect does a higher gut wall metabolism do?

A

Lower passage into the hepatic blood supply.

264
Q

Increasing the volume of distribution of the drug does what?

A

There is a decrease in concentration of the drug.

265
Q

What does omeprazole do?

A

Treatment of GI reflux disease

Reduces stomach acid and treats heart burn and indigestion

266
Q

What does warfarin do?

A

Blood thinner

Anti coagulant

267
Q

What does verapamil do?

A

Treats high blood pressure

Angina and tachycardia

268
Q

What does an increase in vd do to half life

A

Increases it

269
Q

What does a low clearance level do to the half life

A

Longer half life

270
Q

Define limit of resolution

A

The smallest distance at which 2 objects can be separated and still be distinguishable as 2 separate objects.

271
Q

What is a curettage?

A

Surgical scraping done under local anaesthetics to remove a sample of cells - endometrial sample

272
Q

What is a pipelle?

A

Plastic tube with a sharp hollow needle which is inserted inside, twisted to get a sample - endometrial, kidney

273
Q

Trans vascular

A

Passing a small needle into a blood vessel.

274
Q

Frozen section

A

Surgical specimen frozen to -20 to -30 degrees.
This is then cut using a cryostat.
Stained with h and e
Sample is faster than if fixed

275
Q

Indirect immunohistochemistry

A

Antibody complementary to the protein is added. Then another antibody is added that is complementary to the previous antibody. This has an enzyme attached with converts a clear substance into a colourful product. The presence of the colour shows the protein is present. The sample must be washed each time to remove unattached antibodies.

276
Q

What is immunofluorescence

A

An antibody complementary to the protein is added with a fluorescent tag. When light shines onto it it produces a signal.

277
Q

What is a confocal microscope?

A

Laser excites a fluorescent dye and electrons are raised to a higher level. As the electrons decrease back to their original level a light wave is emitted through mirrors and a pinhole which causes a sharp image when it reaches the detector.

278
Q

Cell culture

A

Allows manipulation of the cells and experiments to determine the tissue function

279
Q

Advantages of cell culture

A

Absolute control over the physical environment

Homogeneity of sample

Reduced need for animals

280
Q

Disadvantages of cell culture

A

Hard to maintain

Small amount grow at high cost

Dedifferentiation can occur

281
Q

Haematoxylin and eosin

A

Identifies most things

282
Q

Massons trichome

A

Red = keratin and muscle

Blue or green = collagen or bone

Brown or black = nucleus

283
Q

Periodic acid-Schiff stain

A

Identifies anything with a glycocalyx

284
Q

How does an x ray give an image?

A

Focused beam of high energy electrons

These can pass through the body onto a receiver but some are absorbed or reflected

285
Q

Advantage of x ray

A

Quick
Portable
Cheap
Simple

286
Q

Disadvantages of x rays

A

Radiation
One plane - 2D
Wont see all pathology

287
Q

Fluoroscopy

A

Constant stream of x rays to examine anatomy and motion

Contrast - barium sulphide , iodine

288
Q

Advantages of fluoroscopy

A

Dynamic studies

Cheap

Interventional procedure

289
Q

Disadvantages of fluoroscopy

A

Radiation

Clinical exposure must be minimised

290
Q

Uses of fluoroscopy

A

Angiography

Arthrograms

Screening in theatres

291
Q

CT scans

A

Rotating gantry
X ray tube on one side and the detector on the other
Images put together by a computer

292
Q

Advantages of CT scans

A

Quick
Good spatial resolution
Can scan most areas

293
Q

Disadvantages of CT scans

A

Radiation

Lower contrast resolution

Affected by artefacts

Overuse

Requires breath to be held.

294
Q

PET scans

A

Radionuclides that decay by positron emission bind to glucose. PET camera detects where decay occurs.
Larger signal more decay.

295
Q

Advantages of PET

A

Performed instead of biopsy

Low radiation dosage

296
Q

Disadvantages of PET

A

Radiation exposure

Expensive

297
Q

MRI

A

Strong magnetic field aligns hydrogen atoms
Some point upwards and som downwards
Radio frequency pulse applied
Unmatched ions absorb energy and rotate to the opposite direction
Pulse is turned off so untaxed ions rotate back to their original position and release energy.
Computer creates an image.

298
Q

MRI advantages

A

No radiation

Good contrast resolution

299
Q

Disadvantages of MRI

A

Expensive

Time consuming

Loud

Claustrophobic

Need to lie still

No metal

300
Q

Ultrasound

A

High frequency waves from transducer probe
The sound wave is reflected back by tissue where density differs
Probe detects reflected sound waves and a signal is created

Can determine distance and density

301
Q

Advantages of ultrasound

A

Lack of ionising radiation

Low cost

Portable

302
Q

Disadvantages of ultrasound

A

Operator dependant

No bone or gas penetration

303
Q

Why use contrast?

A

It helps better differentiate tissues

Can allow motion to be detected

304
Q

Common contrasts used

A

Barium sulphate

Iodine

305
Q

When and where do somites first appear?

A

Day 20 in the occipital region

306
Q

Definition of a gland

A

An epithelial cell or aggregate of epithelial cells that are specialised for the secretion of a substance

307
Q

Simple tubular example

A

Intestinal

308
Q

Simple branched tubular

309
Q

Simple alveolar

A

Urethra - male

310
Q

Simple branches alveolar

311
Q

Compound tubular

312
Q

Compound alveolar

313
Q

Compound tubuloalveolar

314
Q

Extracellular matrix

A

Fibres and ground substance

315
Q

Ground substance

A

Viscous clear substance - high water content

Composed of proteoglycans - large central protein with GAGs bound

316
Q

Parotid gland

A

Dark purple in h and e
Striated

Bilateral salivary gland

Cells replaced by adipocytes

317
Q

Submandibular gland

A

Mixed serous and mucous

Striated

318
Q

Functions of the liver

A

Storage of vitamins

Anabolism

Catabolism

Bile production

319
Q

Innervation of smooth muscle

A

Varicosities release neurotransmitters which open gated calcium channels causing an influx. These bind to calmodulin to form calcium calmodulin complexes. This binds to MLCK where it allows phosphorylation of myosin so it can contract.
It is then dephosphorylated by phosphatase and myosin becomes inactive again.

320
Q

Purkinje fibres

A

Specialised conducting fibres composed os electrically excitable cells.
Lots of mitochondria

321
Q

Sliding filament model

A

Tropomyosin coils around the actin filament reinforcing it
Troponin complex attached to each tropomyosin
Myosin heads extend towards filaments in regions of potential overlap
When calcium binds to TnC of troponin a conformational change occurs
This moves tropomyosin away from actin binding site.
This allows the power stroke to occur.

322
Q

Red bone marrow

A

Full of developing blood cells
Rich blood supply
Only found in spongy tissue

323
Q

Function of red bone marrow

A

To replenish cells in the blood

324
Q

Yellow bone marrow

A

Full of adipocytes

Poor blood supply

325
Q

Function of yellow Bon marrow

A

Shock absorber
Energy source
Can convert to red marrow

326
Q

Where do red blood cells degrades?

A

Liver or spleen

327
Q

What happens to the spleen if someone has sickle cell anaemia?

A

Enlarged as it needs to take up more cells as more are defective.

328
Q

Red blood cell structure

A

Biconcave
No nucleus
No mitochondria
Anaerobic respiration

329
Q

Erythropoiesis

A

Erythroblasts start of with large nucleus

Gradually shrinks and is removed with the RNA present

330
Q

Reticulocytes

A

Before the erythrocytes mature a small amount of RNA remains for the production of haemoglobin
High number of these cells are present after blood loss.

331
Q

Erythropoietin

A

Glycoprotein produced by the kidneys to increase levels of red blood cells.
Produced in response tissue hypoxia.

332
Q

Granulocytes

A

Granules present in their cytoplasm
Acts to mediate inflammatory reactions
Release cytokines, interleukins which recruit other immune cells.

333
Q

Neutrophils

A

Multilobed nucleus
Most abundant granulocyte
Phagocytosis

334
Q

Basophils

A

Release histamine to trigger inflammation
Purple granules
Granules contain histamine and heparin

335
Q

Eosinophils

A

Fight parasitic worms

Red granules

336
Q

Monocytes

A

Macrophage
Phagocytosis
Horse shoe shaped nuclei

337
Q

Platelets

A

Biconvex shape
No nucleus
Contains vast amount of proteins and clotting factors

338
Q

Thrombopoiesis

A

Unregulated by liver

Formed form megakaryocytes

339
Q

B cells

A

Revolves around production of antibodies
Can activate T cells
Mature in bone marrow and then move to intestine - peyers patches - spleen, lymph nodes.

340
Q

T cells

A

Kills virus infected cells, cancerous cells and transplanted cells.
Activate b cells to create antibodies
Start in bone marrow but mature in the thymus

341
Q

What is a membrane potential?

A

The difference in electric potential between the interior and exterior of the cell that is separated by the membrane.

342
Q

Ligand

A

Something that binds to a receptor

343
Q

Affinity

A

The degree to which a substance binds to another

Lower Kd = high affinity

344
Q

Efficacy

A

The ability of a drug to have a desired effect

345
Q

Potency

A

The concentration of a drug to give a desired effect

EC50 lower = higher potency

346
Q

Intrinsic efficacy

A

the drug’s ability to activate a receptor

347
Q

Carnitine shuttle

A

Transports fatty acts-CoA

Acetyl-CoA binds with carnitine to form acyl-carnitine which moves into the matrix of the mitochondria by the carnitine shuttle transporter where it combines with CoA to reproduce acetyl-CoA.

348
Q

What inhibits carnitine shuttle?

A

Malonyl CoA

349
Q

What is CoA derived form?

A

Vitamin B5

350
Q

Protein kinase

A

Transfer the terminal phosphate from ATP to -OH group of some amino acids

351
Q

Protein phosphatase

A

Reverse effects of kinases by catalysing the hydrolytic removal of phosphoryl group form proteins

352
Q

Proteolytic activation

A

Inactive precursor molecules - zymogens
Involves breakage of peptide bond - irreversible
For examples - blood clotting

353
Q

Zymogens

A

Inactive precursor molecules - enzymes

Trypsinogen

354
Q

Role of creatine phosphate

A

In muscle cells creatine + ATP is produced form creatine phosphate and ADP. When the concentration of ATP is high the drive for the synthesis of creatine phosphate increases. ATP can then be regenerated later.

Small store of energy

355
Q

Lipid classes

A
  1. Fatty acid derivatives
  2. Hydroxy-methyl-glutaric derivatives
  3. Vitamins
356
Q

What is metaphase spread?

A

View chromosomes
Stained metaphase chromosomes
Actively dividing cells are needed.

357
Q

What is the relationship of the pK values and the pH?

A

pH is lower than pK value then the R group is protonated

pH is higher than pK value then the R group is deprotonated

358
Q

What is the isoelectric point?

A

The pH at which there is no overall net charge

359
Q

What is the pI value across the basic and acidic proteins?

A

Basic proteins have a pI value higher than 7

Acidic proteins have a pI value lower than 7

360
Q

What is the relationship between the pI value and the pH value?

A

If the pH is lower than the pI it is protonated

If the pH is higher than the pI it is deprotonated

361
Q

What are conjugated proteins?

A

where other components are covalently linked to amino acids.

362
Q

Physical features of amino acids that may impact folding

A

Aromatic

Aliphatic

363
Q

Chemical features that may impact folding

A

Polarity
Hydrophilic or phobic
Acidic or basic

364
Q

How to disulphides bonds form?

A

the sulphydryl groups on the cysteine amino acid are oxidised to form a sulfur to sulfur bond or a disulphides bond

365
Q

Why are disulphides bonds significant

A

they are important in the active site of many enzymes and are present and stabilise extracellular proteins such as albumin

366
Q

What is an amyloid fibre?

A

the misfolded insoluble form of a normally soluble protein

367
Q

Why use PCR?

A

To amplify a specific DNA fragment

To investigate single base mutations

To investigate small deletions or insertions

To investigate variation

368
Q

What is PCR?

A

Amplification of a target DNA
Temperature cycles of denature, anneal, polymerase.
Pair of primers (forward and reverse) which define the region that is copied.

369
Q

What is RT-PCR?

A

To determine if a gene is expressed - diet ti on of mRNA.

mRNA is converted back to cDNA by reverse transcriptase.