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Commercial Cert. Lab (323) > FAA Written > Flashcards

FAA Written Flashcards

1
Q

The load factor for an a/c in a 60 degree bank turn is:

A

2 Gs

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2
Q

During a LEFT side-slip, an over-the-top spin would most likely occur if the stick is held ___ and ___ rudder was applied during a left side slip

A
  1. Too far back

2. Full right rudder

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3
Q

While holding the angle of bank constant in a level turn, if the rate of TURN is varied, the load factor would:

A

Remain CONSTANT regardless of air density and the resultant lift vector

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4
Q

As airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum lift/drag ratio, total drag of an airplane:

A

Increases because of increased INDUCED drag

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5
Q

If the airspeed is INCREASED during a coordinates level 45 degree bank turn, the load factor will:

A

Remain the same, but the radius of turn will increase

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6
Q

What changes must be made in a/c longitudinal control to maintain altitude while decreasing airspeed?

A

Increase AOA to compensate for DECREASING LIFT

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7
Q

Some a/c are fitted with wing spoilers to decrease:

A

Lift (during landing)

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8
Q

A rectangular wing, as compared to other wing planforms, has a tendency to stall first at the:

A

Wing ROOT, with the stall progression toward the wingtip

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9
Q

The angle of attack of a wing directly controls the:

A

Distribution of pressures acting on the wing

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10
Q

By changing the AOA of a wing, the pilot can control:

A

Lift, airspeed and drag

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11
Q

The critical AOA is exceeded when:

A

A stall occurs

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12
Q

The AOA at which a wing stalls remains constant:

A

ALWAYS!! Regardless of weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle or pitch attitude

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13
Q

The design maneuvering speed (Va) is:

A

A figure for recently designed a/c that defines the max. speed an airplane can safely stall

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14
Q

Is stall SPEED affected by AOA?

A

NO! By weight, load factor and power

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15
Q

In a rapid recovery from a dive, the effects of Load Factor would cause the stall speed to:

A

Increase!

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16
Q

recovery from a stall in any a/c becomes more difficult when the center of gravity moves ___;

A

AFT!

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17
Q

In a spin, what is the rotation centered around?

A

CG! (Not longitudinal axis)

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18
Q

Increasing AOA will:

A

Increase Drag

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19
Q

To generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased, an a/c must be flown at:

A

A higher TAS for any given AOA

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20
Q

A pilot who intends to maintain level flight must coordinate AOA with what force of flight?

A

Thrust

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21
Q

In a stead state descent, the sum of all FORWARD forces is ____ to the sum of all REWARD forces

A

EQUAL

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22
Q

What is true regarding the force of life in stead, accelerated flight?

A

There is a corresponding indicated airspeed required for every AOA to generate sufficient life to maintain alititude

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23
Q

A changing AOA affects which 2 forces of flight?

A

Lift and WEIGHT!

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24
Q

In theory, if airspeed is doubled while in level flight, parasite drag AND lift produced will become:

A

four times greater

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25
Q

If airspeed remains constant and air density INCREASES, lift will ___ and drag will ___.

A

Lift and drag will both INCREASE

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26
Q

Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the:

A

Force acting perpendicular to the relative wind

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27
Q

What statement is true regarding the opposing forces acting on an a/c in steady-state level flight?

A

These forces are equal!

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28
Q

What is best glide speed?

A

The speed at which the parasitic and induced drag curves meet, and total drag is at its minimum!

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29
Q

Both lift and drag are increased when ___ are extended

A

Flaps

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30
Q

in theory if airspeed is cut in HALF while in level flight, parasitic drag will become:

A

1/4 as much

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31
Q

To produce the same life while IN ground effect as when out of ground effect, the a/c requires:

A

A LOWER AOA! (due to disrupted wingtip vortecies)

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32
Q

If the same AOA is maintained IN ground effect as when out of ground effect, lift will:

A

Increase, and INDUCED drag will decrease

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33
Q

Longitudinal STABILITY involves the motion of the a/c controlled by its:

A

Elevator (stability about the LATERAL AXIS aka Pitch)

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34
Q

If the a/c attitude initially tends to return to the OG position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the a/c displays _____ _____ stability

A

Positive Static Stability

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35
Q

If an a/c is loaded to the rear CG limit, it will tend to be unstable about which axis?

A

LATERAL axis

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36
Q

While holding the angle of bank constant in a level turn, if the rate of turn is varied the load factor would:

A

REMAIN CONSTANT regardless of air density and the resultant lift vector

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37
Q

What is correct with respect to rate and radius of turn for a/c flown in a coordinated turn at a constant altitude?

A

For a specific angle of bank and airspeed, the rate and radius of turn will not vary

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38
Q

One of the main functions of flaps during the approach and landing is to:

A

Provide the same amount of lift at a slower airspeed

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39
Q

To simultaneously INCREASE rate of turn and DECREASE radius of turn, a pilot should ____ the bank angle, and ____ airspeed

A
  1. Increase bank angle

2. Decrease airspeed

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40
Q

Increasing airspeed in a constant angle, coordinated turn will ____ the rate of turn

A

DECREASE

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41
Q

The ratio between the total airload imposed on the wing and the gross weight of an a/c in flight is known as:

A

Load factor, and directly affects stall speed

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42
Q

Load factor is the lift generated by the wings at any given time, divided by _____

A

The Total Weight of the a/c

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43
Q

For a given angle of bank, in an a/c, the load factor imposed in a coordinated constant-altitude turn:

A

Is constant, and the stall speed INCREASES

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44
Q

A/c wing loading during level turns in smooth air depends upon the:

A

Angle of Bank!

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45
Q

What factor is the best indication of Gs on an a/c?

A

Change in how heavy you feel in your seat!

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46
Q

Transonic airflow typically occurs in airplace speed regimes between Mach __ and __

A

0.75 and 1.20

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47
Q

Acceleration past critical Mach may result in what 2 onsets of comprehensibility effects?

A

Control difficulties or Increased drag!

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48
Q

Does applying carb heat enrich the fuel/air mixture?

A

Yes!

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49
Q

At high altitudes, an excessively rich mixture will cause:

A

Fouling of spark plugs! (excess fuel causes a cooling effect, causing low temps in the combustion chamber)

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50
Q

Leaving carb heat on during takeoff roll will ____ the ground roll

A

INCREASE

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51
Q

Detonation can be caused by:

A

Using a lower grade fuel than is recommended (instantaneous combustion of fuel/air mix)

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52
Q

Uncontrolled firing of fuel/air mix in advance of normal spark ignition is known as:

A

Pre-Ignition

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53
Q

If the ground wire between the mag and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the engine:

A

Could start if the propeller is moved with fuel in the cylinder

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54
Q

The reason for variations in geometric pitch (twisting) along a propeller blade is that it:

A

Permits a relatively constant AOA along its length when in cruising flight

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55
Q

What statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed prop?

A

The prop control regulates the engine RPM and, in turn, the prop RPM

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56
Q

To develop max power and thrust, and constant-speed prop should be set to a blade angle that will produce a ____ AOA and a ___ RPM

A
  1. Small AOA

2. High RPM

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57
Q

What is the max IAS authorized in airspace UNDERLYING class B?

A

200 knots

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58
Q

The radius of the uncharted Outer Area of Class C airspace is normally:

A

20 NM

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59
Q

At some airports in class D where GROUND vis is NOT reported, takeoffs and landings under Special VFR are authorized by ATC if FLIGHT vis is at least ___SM

A

1 SM

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60
Q

To operate an a/c at night under Special VFR in class D, what is required of the pilot and a/c?

A

PIC is Instrument rated and a/c is IFR equipped!

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61
Q

When operating an a/c in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower in class E a pilot must establish communications prior to:

A

4 NM, and up to and including 2,500’ AGL

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62
Q

The runway holding position sign is located on:

A

Runways that intersect other runways

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63
Q

The ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign indicates:

A

You are about to enter, or are clear of, the ILS critical area

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64
Q

What is the general direction of movement of the other a/c if during a night flight you observe a steady white light and a rotating red light ahead and at your altitude? The other a/c is moving:

A

Away from you!

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65
Q

What is the min vis and ceiling required to receive a LAHSO clearance?

A

3 SM and 1,000’

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66
Q

To conduct a LAHSO a pilot should have published available landing dist. data, as well as ___ ___ information

A

Runway SLOPE information

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67
Q

An area of land or water that is used or intended to be used for landing and takeoff of a/c, and includes its buildings and facilities describes:

A

An Airport!

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68
Q

Regulations that refer to “commercial operators” relate to that person who:

A

Is operating for compensation in any way, OTHER THAN AS AN AIR CARRIER

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69
Q

What does “operational control” of a flight mean?

A

The exercise of authority over initiating, conducting or terminating a flight

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70
Q

Regulations which refer to “operate” relate to that person who:

A

Causes the a/c to be used or authorizes its use

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71
Q

Vs1 is the correct symbol for:

A

Stalling speed, or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration

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72
Q

Vf is defined as:

A

DESIGN flap speed

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73
Q

Vno is defined as:

A

Max STRUCTURAL CRUISING speed

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74
Q

Vle is defined as:

A

Max landing gear extended speed

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75
Q

ASEL, AMEL, ASES and AMES and considered:

A

CLASS RATINGS

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76
Q

A pilot convicted of operating a MOTOR vehicle while impaired is required to provide a written report to:

A

The FAA (AMC-700) no later than 60 days after conviction

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77
Q

Conviction of any kind related to narcotic drugs is grounds for:

A

Suspension or revocation of any cert, rating or authorization

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78
Q

A pilot convicted of operating an AIRCRAFT while impaired is under grounds for:

A

Denial of an application for certs, rating or authorizations

79
Q

To act as pilot in command of a tailwheel a/c or an a/c with over 200 hp, a pilot must:

A

Receive and log flight training from an authorized INSTRUCTOR, and have proper endoresments

80
Q

The PIC must hold a type rating when operating:

A

Any a/c of more than 12,500 lbs max certificated takeoff weight

81
Q

What flight time may be logged as SIC?

A

All time when qualified and occupying a crewmember station in an a/c that REQUIRES more than 1 pilot

82
Q

What flight time must be documented by a pilot exercising commercial privileges?

A

Flight time showing training/experience to meet requirements for the certificate

83
Q

To serve are SIC in an a/c certified for more than 1 crew member, operated under Part 91, a person must:

A

WITHIN THE LAST 12 MONTHS - become familiar and perform/log pilot time in the type of a/c to be operated

84
Q

To act as PIC of an a/c under Part 91, a commercial pilot must have completed a flight review or proficiency check within the last ____ calendar months

A

24 cal months!

85
Q

If you are NOT night current, and official sunset is at 1900 CST, the latest time passengers should be carried is:

A

1959 CST

86
Q

To serve as PIC of an a/c that is certified for more than one pilot, under part 91, a person must complete:

A

A PIC proficiency check within the preceding 12 cal months in an a/c that is type certificated for more than one pilot

87
Q

If you do not notify the FAA, how long are you entitled to exercise your pilot cert privileges after an address change?

A

30 Days

88
Q

What limitation is imposed on commercial pilots who do not have an instrument rating?

A

Cannot carry passengers on XC flights in excess of 50 NM, or for hire at night

89
Q

A person with a commercial pilot cert may act as PIC in command of an a/c for compensation/hire IF:

A

They are qualified in accordance with Part 61 and with APPLICABLE PARTS that apply to the OPERATION

90
Q

All US registered civil a/c must what what document on board during operation?

A

A current, approved Airplane Flight Manual

91
Q

Portable electronic devices which may cause interference with navigation/coms may not be operated on US a/c being flown:

A

In air carrier ops OR under IFR!

92
Q

No person may operate a large US a/c which is subject to lease, unless the lessee has mailed a copy of the lease to the FAA within ____ hours

A

24 hours!

93
Q

When is preflight action required (relative to alternatives available, weather, and fuel requirements) if the planned flight cannot be completed?

A

Any flight NOT IN THE VICINITY of an airport

94
Q

A PIC is required to be aware of all info pertinent to the flight. This includes what info about the destination airport?

A

LAHSO ops

95
Q

Shoulder harnesses of required flight crew is required to be fastened during:

A

Takeoff and Landing, unless it interferes with performing duties

96
Q

With US a/c the use of safety belts is required during movement on the surface, TO and landings for:

A

Each person over 2 years of age on board

97
Q

What is true with respect to operating near other a/c in flight?

A

It is NOT authorized when operated so close to another a/c they can create a collision hazard

98
Q

What 2 things are true with respect to formation flights?

A
  • They are NOT authorized except by arrangement with the PIC of each a/c
  • They are NOT authorized when carrying passengers for hire
99
Q

If 2 a/c are CONVERGING, which a/c would have the right of way? The to the left, or to the right?

A

The a/c to the RIGHT would have the right of way!

100
Q

When barometric pressure will be above ____ inches of mercury, flight ops will NOT be authorized

A

31.00”

101
Q

VFR cruising altitudes are required to be maintained when flying:

A
  • More than 3,000’ AGL

- Based on MAGNETIC COURSE

102
Q

To list an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan with only non-precision approaches, the forecast ceiling and vis at the time of arrival must be at or above ___and ___

A

800’ and 2 SM (statue miles!!)

103
Q

What 4 things must be logged after a VOR check for IFR ops?

A

Date, place, bearing and signature!

104
Q

On an instrument approach where DH or MDA is aplicable, the pilot may not operate below, or continue the approach unless the:

A

A/c is continuously in POSITION TO DESCEND to a normal landing on the intended runway

105
Q

Pilots are not authorized to land an a/c from an instrument approach unless the:

A

FLIGHT vis (only) at, or exceeds, the vis prescribed in the approach procedure being used

106
Q

91.203 states that no person may operate a civil a/c unless the airworthiness cert is:

A

Displayed and legible to all passengers!

107
Q

Name 2 required pieces of equipment for VFR Night flight!

A
  • An electric landing light (for hire)

- Anticollision light system

108
Q

The max cumulative time an ELT can be operated before it must be recharged is ___ mins

A

60 mins!

109
Q

If NOT equipped with required position or anticollision lights, when must an a/c must terminate flight?

A

At sunset!

110
Q

What are the O2 requirements when operating at cabin pressure altitudes about 15,000’ MSL?

A

The flightcrew AND passengers must be provided with supplemental O2

111
Q

Supplemental O2 must be used by the required flightcrew for that time exceeding 30 mins while at cabin pressure altitudes of:

A
  • 12,500’ MSL up to AND INCLUDING 14,000’ MSL
112
Q

What is the min altitude and flight vis required for acrobatic flight?

A
  • 1,500’ AGL

- 3 SM

113
Q

What is required to operate an a/c towing an advertising banner?

A

A certificate of waiver issued by the Administrator

114
Q

No person may operate a ______, _____, OR _____ category a/c carrying passengers or property for comp or hire

A

Restricted, Primary OR Limited category a/c

115
Q

Assuring ADs are complied with is the responsibility of the:

A

OWNER/OPERATOR!

116
Q

If an a/c’s performance is substantially affected by an alteration or repair, a rated pilot must fly, approve and document the return to service before the a/c can be operated:

A

With PASSENGERS!

117
Q

In what type of op (not regulated by Part 119) may a commercial pilot act as PIC and receive compensation for services?

A

Nonstop flights within 25 SM radius of an airport to carry PERSONS for intentional PARACHUTE JUMPS or BIRD CHASING

118
Q

How long must a person be hospitalized for the NTSB to declare it a “Serious Injury”?

A

48 HOURS within 7 days of the injury

119
Q

NTSB Part 830 requires immediate notification as a result of what incident?

A

Crewmember being unable to perform duties due to ILLNESS

120
Q

What incident requires immediate notification of the nearest NTSB field office?

A

In-Flight fire

121
Q

How many days after an ACCIDENT is a report required to be files with the NTSB?

A

10 days!

122
Q

To determine PRESSURE ALTITUDE prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to:

A

29.92” Hg and the altimeter indication noted

123
Q

At higher elevation airports pilots should know that IAS will be ____ but ground speed will be ____

A
  1. Unchanged

2. Faster

124
Q

An uphill runway will ____ takeoff distance

A

Increase

125
Q

Basic empty weight includes weight of the airframe, engines, all installed AND:

A

The unusable fuel, full operating fluids and full oil

126
Q

The CG of an a/c can be determined by dividing ____ by ____

A

Total Moments/Total Weight

127
Q

If all index units are positive computing weight and balance, the location of the datum would be at the:

A

Nose, or out in front of the a/c

128
Q

To rid itself of the alcohol contained in 1 mixed drink or 1 beer, the human body requires about:

A

3 Hours

129
Q

What is a common symptom of hyperventilation?

A

Drowsiness

130
Q

What would most likely cause hyperventilation?

A

Insufficient carbon dioxide!!

131
Q

What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?

A

All traffic and terrain appear to be FURTHER away than their actual distance

132
Q

ADM is best defined as:

A

A SYSTEMATIC APPROACH to the mental process used by pilots

133
Q

Examples of classic behavioral traps that experienced pilots may fall into are: trying to

A

Demonstrate the “right stuff”

134
Q

What does good cockpit stress management begin with?

A

Good LIFE stress management

135
Q

To help manage cockpit stress, pilots must:

A

Condition themselves to relax and think rationally when stress appears

136
Q

DECIDE in order

A 
DETECT
ESTIMATE
Choose 
Identify 
EVALUATE
137
Q

Why does the wind have a tendency to flow parallel to the isobars above the friction level?

A

Coriolis force tends to COUNTERBALANCE the horizontal pressure gradient

138
Q

What is true regarding a cold front occlusion? The air ahead of the warm front:

A

Is warmer than the air behind the overtaking cold front

139
Q

A high-pressure area (or ridge) is an area of _____ air

A

Descending air!

140
Q

While flying cross-country in the Northern Hemisphere, you experience a continuous left crosswind which is associated with a major system. This indicates that you:

A

Are flying TOWARDS an area of generally unfavorable weather conditions

141
Q

When flying into a low-pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere, the wind direction and velocity will be from the:

A

LEFT and INCREASING! (counterclockwise)

142
Q

What prevents air from flowing directly from high to low pressure areas?

A

Coriolis Force!

143
Q

General circulation of HIGH pressure systems in the Northern Hemi is:

A

OUTWARD, down and clockwise

144
Q

General circulation of lOw pressure systems in the Northern Hemi is:

A

a cyclOne and is caused by Coriolis force

145
Q

The strength and location of the jet stream is normally ____ and farther ____ in the SUMMER

A

Weaker and farther NORTH in the summer

exact opposite for winter

146
Q

Which type of jetstream can be expected to cause greater turbulence?

A

a CURVING jetstream associated with low pressure TROUGHS

147
Q

Abrupt change in temp lapse rate is a feature of which layer of the atmosphere?

A

Tropopause

148
Q

Unstable, moist air and orographic lifting would likely result in the formation of _____ cloud, ___ vis and _____

A

Cumuliform clouds, GOOD vis and showery rain!

149
Q

Cold air moving over a warm surface creates ___ clouds, _____, and ____ vis

A

Cumuliform clouds, turbulence and good vis

150
Q

Standing lenticular altocumulus clouds indicate:

A

Very strong turbulence

151
Q

Percip induced fog is most commonly associated with ___ fronts

A

WARM fronts

152
Q

A situation most conducive to the formation of advection fog is:

A

An air mass moving inland from the coastline during the winter

153
Q

What will dissipate or lift advection fog off the ground?

A

WIND 15 knots or stronger

154
Q

Clear, cool nights with calm or light wind are favorable conditions for the formation of:

A

Surface Based Temp inversions

155
Q

Characteristic of STABLE air are: (vis, percip. and clouds)

A

Poor vis, steady/continuous percip and STRATUS clouds

156
Q

What would decrease the stability of an air mass?

A

Warming form below

157
Q

In the Northern Hemisphere, the wind is deflected to the:

A

RIGHT by Coriolis force

158
Q

Long streak of cirrus clouds can be a visula indication of:

A

The jet stream and CAT

159
Q

What DETERMINES the structure of type of clouds which will form as a result of air being forced to ascend?

A

The STABILITY of the air before lifting occurs

160
Q

What in-flight hazard is most commonly associated with WARM fronts?

A

Personification-induce fog

161
Q

_____ fog can appear suddenly (day or night) and it is more persistent than radiation fog

A

ADVECTION fog

162
Q

STABLE air results in ___ vis, ___ percip, and ___ clouds

A

POOR vis
STEADY percip
STRATUS clouds

163
Q

What is true regarding the development of convective circulation?

A

Cool air must sink to force the warm air upward

164
Q

The ambient lapse rate is a measurement of ________

A

Atmospheric stability!

165
Q

The conditions necessary for the formation of stratiform clouds are a lifting action and ____ air

A

Stable, moist air

166
Q

What feature is associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?

A

Continuous updraft

167
Q

What is true regarding turbulence associated with thunderstorms?

A

Outside the cloud, shear trub. can be encountered 20 MILES laterally from a severe storm

168
Q

____ ____ offer the most intense weather hazards to a/c

A

Squall lines

169
Q

True or False: Squall lines considered to be Non-Frontal

A

TRUE

170
Q

What stage of a thunderstorm is characterized predominately by DOWNdrafts?

A

Dissipating Stage!

171
Q

Ice pellets encountered during flight are evidence that:

A

A warm front is ABOUT to pass

172
Q

Severe thunderstorm echos should be avoided by at least ___ miles each

A

20 miles!

173
Q

_____ turbulence momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude/attitude

A

LIGHT turb

174
Q

What is the vertical wind shear value critical for moderate or greater turb?

A

6 knots per 1,000’

175
Q

In hilly or mountainous areas, where will the greatest potential danger from turbulent air be encountered?

A

Leeward side, flying INTO the wind

176
Q

Under conditions of suspected LLWS, a sudden decrease in headwind will cause a _____ in airspeed, equal to the decrease in wind velocity

A

A LOSS in airspeed

177
Q

The power and velocity required to remain on proper glidepath during an approach are easy ways to recognize possible _____ ____

A

WIND SHEAR

178
Q

Telephone Info Briefing Service (TIBS) provided by FSS includes:

A

Continuous recording of meteorological conditions/aeronautical info

179
Q

During preflight preparation, weather report forecasts which are not routinely available can best be obtained from: (not FSS)

A

Weather Forecast Office (WFO)

180
Q

HIWAS provides:

A

Continuous broadcast of inflight weather advisories

181
Q

AWWs, convective SIGMETs, and SIGMETs are by:

A

ARTCCs on all frequencies

182
Q

Temp 26, Dew point 04. At approx. what altitude AGL should cloud bases be expected?

A

8,800’

26 - 4 = 22 / 2.5 = 8.8

183
Q

What does “WSHFT 30 FROPA” mean?

A

Wind shift at three zero due to frontal passage

184
Q

What chart provides a means of locating observed frontal position and pressure centers?

A

Surface Analysis charts

185
Q

The visibility entry in a TAF “P6SM” indicates prevailing vis is expected to be greater than:

A

6 STATUTE miles

186
Q

FAs (Area Forecasts) are used in conjunction with inflight weather advisories to interpolate:

A

Conditions at airports for which NO TAFs are issured

187
Q

In-Flight Aviation Weather Advisories include:

A

Forecasts for potentially hazardous flying conditions for en route a/c

188
Q

What WIND conditions would you anticipate when Squalls are reported?

A

Sudden increase in windspeed of at least 16 knots, to a sustained speed of 22+ knots for at least 1 minute

189
Q

What is the upper limit of the Low Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart?

A

24,000’

190
Q

What weather phenomenon is enclosed by small scalloped lines on a High-Level Significant weather chart>

A

CumuloNIMBUS clouds!

191
Q

What altitude do HIGH-Level Significant Weather Prog Charts cover?

A

24,000’-63,000’

192
Q

What provides a graphic display of both VFR and IFR weather?

A

Weather Depiction Chart

193
Q

Ended

A

Start at beginning of Navigation deck

Commercial Cert. Lab (323) (2 decks)

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