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SKT > FAA > Flashcards

FAA Flashcards

1
Q

What is an Urgent and Routine PIREP?
a. You this is me, advise ready for Urgent/Routine PIREP
b. UUA / UA
c. UUA
d. UA

A

b. UUA / UA

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2
Q

Solicit PIREPs when
a. requested by the pilot
b. a change in weather occurs
c. shift change occurs
d. requested, deemed necessary or when any of 9 conditions exists or is forecast for your area of jurisdiction

A

d. requested, deemed necessary or when any of 9 conditions exists or is forecast for your area of jurisdiction

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3
Q

Ceilings at or below 5,000 feet. These PIREPs must include cloud bases, tops and cloud coverage when available. Additionally, when providing approach control services, ensure that at least one descent/climb–out PIREP and other related phenomena is obtained each hour. This is a
a. NOTAM
b. weather call
c. PIREP
d. airfield weather status

A

c. PIREP

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4
Q

Visibility (surface or aloft) at or less than 5 miles. This is a
a. NOTAM
b. weather call
c. PIREP
d. airfield weather status

A

c. PIREP

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5
Q

Thunderstorms and related phenomena. This is a
a. NOTAM
b. weather call
c. PIREP
d. airfield weather status

A

c. PIREP

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6
Q

Turbulence of moderate degree or greater. This is a
a. NOTAM
b. weather call
c. PIREP
d. airfield weather status

A

c. PIREP

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7
Q

Icing of light degree or greater. This is a
a. NOTAM
b. weather call
c. PIREP
d. airfield weather status

A

c. PIREP

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8
Q

Wind shear. This is a
a. NOTAM
b. weather call
c. PIREP
d. airfield weather status

A

c. PIREP

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9
Q

Braking action reports. This is a
a. NOTAM
b. weather call
c. PIREP
d. airfield weather status

A

c. PIREP

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10
Q

Volcanic ash clouds. This is a
a. NOTAM
b. weather call
c. PIREP
d. airfield weather status

A

c. PIREP

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11
Q

Detection of sulfur gases (SO2 or H2S), associated with volcanic activity, in the cabin. This is a
a. NOTAM
b. weather call
c. PIREP
d. airfield weather status

A

c. PIREP

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12
Q

Record with the PIREPs:
1. Time. 2. Aircraft position. 3. Type aircraft. 4. Altitude. 5. When the PIREP involves icing include:
(a) Icing type and intensity. (b) Air temperature in which icing is occurring. c. Obtain PIREPs directly from the pilot, or if the PIREP has been requested by another facility, you may instruct the pilot to deliver it directly to that facility.

A
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13
Q

What word(s) are used when describing to pilots the effects of wind shear on airspeed
a. gain and/or loss
b. shearing and/or velocity
c. acquired and/or losing
d. turbulence and/or high winds

A

a. gain and/or loss

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14
Q

When EN ROUTE. Relay all operationally significant PIREPs to the
a. ATC Tower
b. RADAR controller
c. pilots
d. facility weather coordinator

A

d. facility weather coordinator

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15
Q

TERMINAL. Relay all operationally significant PIREPs to:
a. The appropriate intrafacility positions.
b. The OS/CIC for long line dissemination via an FAA approved electronic system (for example, AIS−R, or similar systems); or,
c. Outside Alaska: The overlying ARTCC’s Flight Data Unit for long−line dissemination
d. Alaska Only: The FSS serving the area in which the report was obtained
e. Other concerned terminal or en route ATC facilities, including non−FAA facilities.

A

All are correct

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16
Q

The FSS in Alaska is responsible for what?
a. NOTAM dissemination
b. PIREP dissemination
c. long line dissemination
d. tower to ground dissemination

A

c. long line dissemination

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17
Q

b. Describe the wind as calm when the wind velocity is less than
a. three knots
b. four knots
c. five knots
d. six knots

A

a. three knots

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18
Q

When the prevailing visibility at the usual point of observation, or at the tower level, is less than 4 miles, tower personnel must take prevailing visibility observations and apply the observations as follows: Which one does NOT apply?
a. Use the lower of the two observations (tower or surface) for aircraft operations.
b. Forward tower visibility observations to the weather observer.
c. Notify the weather observer when the tower observes the prevailing visibility decrease to less than 4 miles or increase to 4 miles or more.
d. Notify all aircraft of prevailing visibility

A

d. Notify all aircraft of prevailing visibility

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19
Q

T/F Forward current weather changes to the appropriate control facility as follows:
1. When the official weather changes to a condition:
(a) Less than a 1,000−foot ceiling or below the highest circling minimum, whichever is greater.
(b) Where the visibility is less than 3 miles.
(c) Where conditions improve to values greater than those listed in (a) and (b).

A

T

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20
Q

T/F Forward current weather changes to the appropriate control facility as follows:
1. When the official weather changes to a condition:
(a) Less than a 2,000−foot ceiling or below the highest circling minimum, whichever is greater.
(b) Where the visibility is less than 4 miles.
(c) Where conditions improve to values greater than those listed in (a) and (b).

A

F

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21
Q

EN ROUTE. When you determine that weather reports for an airport will not be required for a specific time period, inform the
a. FSS of this determination
b. FSS or tower of this determination
c. tower of this determination
d. FAA of this determination

A

b. FSS or tower of this determination

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22
Q

Controllers must advise pilots of hazardous weather that may impact operations within ____ NM of their sector or area of jurisdiction.
a. 100
b. 120
c. 150
d. 170

A

c. 150

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23
Q

Tower cab and approach control facilities may opt to broadcast hazardous weather information alerts only when any part of the area described is within ___ NM of the airspace under their jurisdiction.
a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. 50

A

d. 50

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24
Q

T/F The local controller must coordinate with the ground controller before using a runway not previously designated as active.

A

T

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25
Q

T/F The local controller does not have to coordinate with the ground controller before using a runway not previously designated as active.

A

F

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26
Q

T/F Vehicles, equipment, and personnel in direct communications with the control tower may be authorized to operate up to the edge of an active runway surface when necessary.

A

T

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27
Q

T/F Vehicles, equipment, and personnel in direct communications with the control tower may be authorized to operate on an active runway surface when necessary.

A

F

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28
Q

T/F a. When low level wind shear/microburst is reported by pilots, Integrated Terminal Weather System (ITWS), or detected on wind shear detection systems such as LLWAS NE++, LLWAS−RS, WSP, or TDWR, controllers must issue the alert to all arriving and departing aircraft

A

T

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29
Q

T/F a. When low level wind shear/microburst is reported by pilots, Integrated Terminal Weather System (ITWS), or detected on wind shear detection systems such as LLWAS NE++, LLWAS−RS, WSP, or TDWR, controllers must issue the alert to departing aircraft only

A

F

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30
Q

A statement must be included on the ATIS for __ minutes following the last report or indication of the wind shear/microburst.
a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. 50

A

a. 20

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31
Q

The LLWAS NE++ and LLWAS−RS are designed to operate with as many as __ percent of the total sensors inoperative.
a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. 50

A

d. 50

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32
Q

If traffic conditions permit, approve a pilot’s request to cross Class C or Class D surface areas or exceed the Class C or Class D airspace speed limit. Do not, however, approve a speed in excess of ___ knots (___ mph) unless the pilot informs you a higher minimum speed is required.
a. 200 (238)
b. 250 (288)
c. 300 (338)
d. 350 (388)

A

b. 250 (288)

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33
Q

Do not approve a pilot’s request or ask a pilot to conduct unusual maneuvers within surface areas of Class ________ airspace if they are not essential to the performance of the flight.
a. A, B, or C
b. B or C
c. B, C, or D
d. C or D

A

c. B, C, or D

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34
Q

Pilots are required to establish two-way radio communications before entering the Class __ airspace.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

A

d. D

35
Q

T/F If the controller responds to a radio call with, “(a/c call sign) standby,” radio communications have been established and the pilot can enter the Class D airspace.

A

T

36
Q

T/F If the controller responds to a radio call with, “(a/c call sign) standby,” radio communications have been established and the pilot still cannot enter the Class D airspace.

A

F

37
Q

WARNING SIGNAL. Direct a general warning signal, alternating red and green, to aircraft or vehicle operators, as appropriate, when
a. Aircraft are converging and a collision hazard exists.
b. Mechanical trouble exists of which the pilot might not be aware.
c. Other hazardous conditions are present which call for intensified pilot or operator alertness. These conditions may include obstructions, soft field, ice on the runway, etc.

A
38
Q

RECEIVER-ONLY ACKNOWLEDGMENT. To obtain acknowledgment from an aircraft equipped with receiver only, request the aircraft to do the following:
a. Fixed-wing aircraft:
1. Between sunrise and sunset:
(a) Move ailerons or rudders while on the ground.
(b) Rock wings while in flight.
2. Between sunset and sunrise: Flash navigation or landing lights.

A
39
Q

RECEIVER-ONLY ACKNOWLEDGMENT. To obtain acknowledgment from an aircraft equipped with receiver only, request the aircraft to do the following:
b. Helicopters:
1. Between sunrise and sunset:
(a)
While hovering, either turn the helicopter toward the controlling facility and flash the landing light or rock the tip path plane.
(b)
While in flight, either flash the landing light or rock the tip path plane.
2. Between sunset and sunrise: Flash landing light or search light.

A
40
Q

ROTATING BEACON
If controls are provided, turn the rotating beacon on:
a. Between sunset and sunrise.
b. Between sunrise and sunset when the reported ceiling or visibility is below basic VFR minima.

A
41
Q

T/F “PROCEED AS REQUESTED” is not approved phraseology for instructing aircraft, vehicles, equipment, or personnel to cross or operate on a runway.

A

T

42
Q

T/F “PROCEED AS REQUESTED” is approved phraseology for instructing aircraft, vehicles, equipment, or personnel to cross or operate on a runway.

A

F

43
Q

Intersection departures may be initiated by a controller or a controller may authorize an intersection departure if a pilot requests. Issue the measured distance from the intersection to the runway end rounded “down” to the nearest __ feet to any pilot who requests and to all military aircraft, unless use of the intersection is covered in appropriate directives.
a. 50
b. 75
c. 100
d. 150

A

a. 50

44
Q

At those airports where the taxi distance between runway centerlines is ___________, multiple runway crossings may be issued with a single clearance.
a. 1,300 feet or more
b. 1,200 feet or less
c. 1,200 feet or more
d. 1,300 feet or less

A

d. 1,300 feet or less

45
Q

Aircraft and vehicle access to the ILS critical area must be controlled to ensure the integrity of ILS course signals whenever the official weather observation is a ceiling of _________ or visibility _________.
a. more than 800 feet / more than 2 miles
b. less than 800 feet / less than 2 miles
c. more than 500 feet / more than 3 miles
d. less than 500 feet / less than 3 miles

A

b. less than 800 feet / less than 2 miles

46
Q

In addition to subparagraph a1(a), when the official weather observation indicates a ceiling of less than ___ feet or RVR _____ feet, do not authorize vehicles or aircraft operations in or over the area when an arriving aircraft is inside the middle marker, or in the absence of a middle marker, ____ mile final
a. 100 / 1,500 / 1/4
b. 150 / 2,000 / 1/2
c. 200 / 2,000 / 1/2
d. 200 / 1,500 / 1/4

A

c. 200 / 2,000 / 1/2

47
Q

Ensure the POFZ is clear of traffic (aircraft or vehicles) when an aircraft on a vertically−guided final approach is within __ miles of the runway threshold and the official weather observation indicates the ceiling is below ___ feet or visibility is less than ___ SM to protect aircraft executing a missed approach.
a. 2 / 200 / 1/2
b. 3 / 200 / 3/4
c. 3 / 300 / 1/2
d. 2 / 300 / 3/4

A

d. 2 / 300 / 3/4

48
Q

When the aircraft is about ___ mile beyond the runway end, instruct civil aircraft, and military transport, and cargo types to contact _______ control, provided further communication with you is not required.
a. 1/2 / departure
b. 1/4 / ground
c. 3/4 / departure
d. 1/2 / ground

A

a. 1/2 / departure

49
Q

Do not request departing military turboprop/ turbojet aircraft (except transport and cargo types) to make radio frequency or radar beacon changes before the aircraft reaches _____ feet above the surface.
a. 1,500
b. 2,000
c. 2,500
d. 3,000

A

c. 2,500

50
Q

Do not authorize an aircraft to line up and wait at anytime when the intersection is not visible from the tower.

A
51
Q

Do not authorize aircraft to simultaneously line up and wait on the same runway, between sunrise and sunset, unless the local assist/local monitor position is staffed.

A
52
Q

USN. Do not authorize aircraft to line up and wait simultaneously on intersecting runways.

A
53
Q

The other aircraft needs only be airborne if the following minimum distance exists between aircraft:
1. When only Category I aircraft are involved−
3,000 feet.
2. When a Category I aircraft is preceded by a Category II aircraft− 3,000 feet.
3. When either the succeeding or both are Category II aircraft− 4,500 feet.
4. When either is a Category III aircraft−
6,000 feet.

A
54
Q

CATEGORY I small single−engine propeller driven aircraft weighing 12,500 lbs. or less, and all helicopters.

CATEGORY II small twin−engine propeller driven aircraft weighing 12,500 lbs. or less.

CATEGORY III all other aircraft

A
55
Q

Separate aircraft taking off from the same runway or a parallel runway separated by less than ______ feet (See FIG 3−9−4):
1. Heavy, large, or small behind super − __ minutes.
2. Heavy, large, or small behind heavy − __ minutes.
a. 2,500 / 3 / 2
b. 2,000 / 3 / 2
c. 2,500 / 2 / 3
d. 2,000 / 2 / 3

A

a. 2,500 / 3 / 2

56
Q

Separate an aircraft behind another aircraft that has departed or made a low/missed approach when utilizing opposite direction takeoffs or landings on the same or parallel runways separated by less than ______ feet by the following minima:
1. Heavy, large, or small behind super − __ minutes.
2. Heavy, large, or small behind heavy − __ minutes
a. 2,500 / 3 / 2
b. 2,500 / 4 / 3
c. 2,000 / 4 / 3
d. 2,000 / 3 / 2

A

b. 2,500 / 4 / 3

57
Q
  1. Separate aircraft departing from an intersection on the same runway (same or opposite direction takeoff), parallel runways separated by less than 2,500 feet, and parallel runways separated by less than 2,500 feet with the runway thresholds offset by 500 feet or more, by ensuring that the aircraft does not start take-off roll until the following intervals exist after the preceding aircraft has taken off:
    NOTE−
    Apply paragraph 3−9−6, Same Runway Separation, subparagraph f to parallel runways separated by less than 2,500 feet with runway thresholds offset by less than 500 feet.
    (a) Heavy, large, or small behind super - 4 minutes.
    (b) Heavy, large, or small behind heavy - 3 minutes.
A
58
Q

There are two categories of airspace or airspace areas
a. permissive & non-permissive
b. Regulatory & Nonregulatory
c. formal & informal
d. controlled & uncontrolled

A

b. Regulatory & Nonregulatory

Regulatory (Class A, B, C, D and E airspace areas, restricted and prohibited areas); and
Nonregulatory (military operations areas [MOA], warning areas, alert areas, controlled firing areas [CFA], and national security areas [NSA]).

59
Q

Within two categories of airspace, there are four types
a. Controlled, Uncontrolled, & Regulatory, Nonregulatory
b. Special use, Other airspace, formal & informal
c. Regulatory, Nonregulatory, formal & informal
d. Controlled, Uncontrolled, Special use, and Other airspace

A

d. Controlled, Uncontrolled, Special use, and Other airspace

60
Q

When overlapping airspace designations apply to the same airspace, the operating rules associated with the more restrictive airspace designation apply.
b. For the purpose of clarification:
1. Class A airspace is more restrictive than Class B, Class C, Class D, Class E, or Class G airspace;
2. Class B airspace is more restrictive than Class C, Class D, Class E, or Class G airspace;
3. Class C airspace is more restrictive than Class D, Class E, or Class G airspace;
4. Class D airspace is more restrictive than Class E or Class G airspace; and
5. Class E is more restrictive than Class G airspace.

A
61
Q

Generally, that airspace from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL 600 is class
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

A

a. A

62
Q

Generally, that airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation’s busiest airports in terms of IFR operations or passenger enplanements. The configuration of each Class __ airspace area is individually tailored and consists of a surface area and two or more layers (some Class __ airspace areas resemble upside-down wedding cakes), and is designed to contain all published instrument procedures once an aircraft enters the airspace
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

A

b. B

63
Q

Generally, that airspace from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower, are serviced by a radar approach control, and that have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enplanements.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

A

c. C

64
Q

Generally, Class __ airspace extends upward from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower. The configuration of each Class __ airspace area is individually tailored and when instrument procedures are published, the airspace will normally be designed to contain the procedures.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

A

d. D

65
Q

Class __ airspace is controlled airspace that is designated to serve a variety of terminal or en route purposes
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

A

e. E

66
Q

Aircraft on the ground given a steady green
a. cleared for takeoff
b. cleared for taxi
c. cleared to land
d. cleared to cross; proceed; go

A

a. cleared for takeoff

67
Q

Aircraft in flight given a steady green
a. cleared for takeoff
b. cleared for taxi
c. cleared to land
d. cleared to cross; proceed; go

A

c. cleared to land

68
Q

Movement of vehicles, equipment, and personnel given a steady green
a. cleared for takeoff
b. cleared for taxi
c. cleared to land
d. cleared to cross; proceed; go

A

d. cleared to cross; proceed; go

69
Q

Aircraft on the ground given a flashing green
a. cleared to taxi
b. return for landing
c. not applicable
d. cleared to land

A

a. cleared to taxi

70
Q

Aircraft in flight given a flashing green
a. cleared to taxi
b. return for landing
c. not applicable
d. cleared to land

A

b. return for landing

71
Q

Movement of vehicles, equipment, and personnel given a flashing green
a. cleared to taxi
b. return for landing
c. not applicable
d. cleared to land

A

c. not applicable

72
Q

Aircraft on the ground given a steady red
a. stop
b. give way to other aircraft and continue circling
c. not applicable
d. don’t move

A

a. stop

73
Q

Aircraft in flight given a steady red
a. stop
b. give way to other aircraft and continue circling
c. No landing clearance
d. Go around

A

b. give way to other aircraft and continue circling

74
Q

Movement of vehicles, equipment, and personnel given a steady red
a. stop
b. give way to other aircraft and continue circling
c. not applicable
d. don’t move

A

a. stop

75
Q

Aircraft in flight given a flashing red
a. collision is imminent
b. airport unsafe–Do not land
c. go around
d. give way to other aircraft and continue circling

A

b. airport unsafe–Do not land

76
Q

Aircraft on the ground given a flashing red
a. taxi clear of landing area or rwy in use
b. airport unsafe–Do not land
c. clear taxiway/rwy
d. give way to other aircraft and continue circling

A

a. taxi clear of landing area or rwy in use

77
Q

Movement of vehicles, equipment, and personnel given a flashing red
a. taxi clear of landing area or rwy in use
b. airport unsafe–Do not land
c. clear taxiway/rwy
d. give way to other aircraft and continue circling

A

c. clear taxiway/rwy

78
Q

Movement of vehicles, equipment, and personnel given a flashing white
a. return to starting point on airport
b. not applicable
c. give way to other aircraft and continue circling
d. clear taxiway/rwy

A

a. return to starting point on airport

79
Q

Aircraft on the ground given a flashing white
a. return to starting point on airport
b. not applicable
c. give way to other aircraft and continue circling
d. clear taxiway/rwy

A

a. return to starting point on airport

80
Q

Aircraft in flight given a flashing white
a. return to starting point on airport
b. not applicable
c. give way to other aircraft and continue circling
d. clear taxiway/rwy

A

b. not applicable

81
Q

Aircraft in flight given an alternating red & green
a. return to starting point on airport
b. general warning signal–exercise extreme caution
c. give way to other aircraft and continue circling
d. clear taxiway/rwy

A

b. general warning signal–exercise extreme caution

82
Q

Aircraft on the ground given an alternating red & green
a. return to starting point on airport
b. not applicable
c. general warning signal–exercise extreme caution
d. clear taxiway/rwy

A

c. general warning signal–exercise extreme caution

83
Q

Movement of vehicles, equipment, and personnel given an alternating red & green
a. return to starting point on airport
b. not applicable
c. general warning signal–exercise extreme caution
d. clear taxiway/rwy

A

c. general warning signal–exercise extreme caution

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