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NCM 217A > Eyes and Vision Problems > Flashcards

Eyes and Vision Problems Flashcards

1
Q

bony structure 4cm, 4 sided pyramid,
surrounded by sinuses

A

Orbit

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2
Q

Sinuses that surround the orbit

A

Ethmoid (medially)
Frontal (superiorly)
Maxillary (inferiorly)

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3
Q

protect the anterior portion of the
eye, multiple glands, including sebaceous,
sweat, and accessory lacrimal glands;
innervated by the oculomotor nerve (CN III).

A

Eyelids

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4
Q

CN III- controls the eyelids

A

oculomotor nerve

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5
Q

3 Layers of tears

A

Lipoid, aqueous, and mucoid

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6
Q

lacrimal gland and the accessory
lacrimal glands;

A

Tears

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7
Q

it comprises of 4 rectus muscles and 2 oblique

A

Extraocular muscles

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8
Q

CN that innervated extraocular muscles

A

cranial nerves (CN) III, IV, and
VI.

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9
Q

barrier and nourishes the eye

A

Conjunctiva

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10
Q

Produce and secrete lubricating mucus

A

Goblet cells

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11
Q

conjunctiva in sclera

A

Blulbar conjunctiva

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12
Q

conjunctiva in eyelids

A

Pelpebral conjunctiva

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13
Q

junction in conjunctiva

A

Fornix

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14
Q

conjunctiva meets cornea

A

Limbus

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15
Q

white of the eye, maintains shape

A

Sclera

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16
Q

color of the sclera in children

A

bluish tinge

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17
Q

color of the sclera in elderly

A

yellowish

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18
Q

main refracting surface of the eye; 5 Layers

A

Cornea

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19
Q

behind cornea,filled with continually replenished supply of clear aqueous humor, which nourishes the cornea

A

Anterior chamber

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20
Q

produced by the ciliary body, related to the intraocular pressure

A

Aqueous humor

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21
Q

normal IOP

A

10-21 mmHg

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22
Q

Consists of Iris, Ciliary Body, Choroid
Iris

A

Uvea

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23
Q

Colored part of the eye, highly
vascularized, pigmented collection of
fibers surrounding the pupil.

A

Iris

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24
Q

dilates and constricts in response to light, round and constrict symmetrically when a bright light shines on them,

A

Pupil

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25
Q

% of the population have pupils that are slightly unequal in size but that respond equally to light

A

20%

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26
Q

parasympathetic NS (pupil)

A

Sphincter pupillae

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27
Q

sympathetic NS (pupil)

A

Dilator pupllae

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28
Q

biconvex structure held in position by zonular fibers, behind pupil and iris.

A

lens

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29
Q

enables focusing for near vision and
refocusing for distance vision.

A

lens

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30
Q

ability to focus and refocus.

A

Accommodation

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31
Q

controls accommodation through the zonular fibers and the ciliary muscles

A

Ciliary Body

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32
Q

a small space between the vitreous and
the iris;

A

posterior chamber

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33
Q

aqueous fluid flows from the posterior chamber into the anterior chamber, from which it drains through the trabecular meshwork into the

A

canal of Schlemm

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34
Q

lies between the retina and the sclera. It is avascular tissue, supplying blood to the portion of the sensory retina closest to it.

A

Choroid

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35
Q

largest chamber of the eye and contains the vitreous humor

A

Ocular fundus

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36
Q

clear, gelatinous substance, composed mostly of water and encapsulated by a hyaloid membrane

A

Vitreous humor

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37
Q

occupies about two thirds of the eye’s volume and helps maintain the shape of the eye; shrinks and shifts with age

A

Vitreous humor

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38
Q

perceived due to gradual loss of gel-like characteristics.

A

Floaters fiber shadows of various cells
and fibers

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39
Q

innermost surface of the fundus, 10 microscopic layers, consistency of a wet tissue paper, neural tissue

A

Retina

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40
Q

pink; it is oval or circular and has sharp margins; point of entrance of the optic nerve into the retina

A

optic disc

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41
Q

area of the retina responsible for central vision

A

Macula

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42
Q

area of the retina responsible for peripheral vision

A

Retina

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43
Q

center of macula, most sensitive area; avascular and surrounded by the superior and inferior vascular arcades.

A

Fovea

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44
Q

2 Important Layers of Retina

A

Retinal Pigment Epithelium (RPE)
Sensory Retina

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45
Q

Layer of retina: absorption of light

A

Retinal Pigment Epithelium (RPE)

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46
Q

Layer of retina: contain photoreceptor cells

A

sensory retina

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47
Q

photoreceptor cells

A

Rods and Cones

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48
Q

night vision/low light/absent in fovea

A

Rods

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49
Q

bright light/color vision

A

Cones

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50
Q

is also known as the second cranial nerve (CN II), transmits impulses from the retina to the occipital lobe of the brain

A

Optic Nerve

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51
Q

leaves the eye and then meets the optic nerve from the other eye at the optic chiasm.

A

Optic Nerve

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52
Q

The anatomic point at which the nasal fibers from the nasal retina of each eye cross to the opposite side of the brain

A

Chiasm

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53
Q

healthy functioning of the: eyeball, intact visual
pathway

A

Visual Acuity

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54
Q

the colored parts of the eyes, called the irises, usually don’t have enough pigment. This allows light to shine through the irises and makes the eyes extremely sensitive to bright light.

A

Albinism

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55
Q

eye disorder characterized by a complete or partial absence of the colored part of the eye

A

Aniridia

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56
Q

group of eye diseases that can cause vision loss and blindness by damaging a nerve in the back of your eye called the optic nerve; comprehensive dilated eye exam

A

Glaucoma

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57
Q

autosomal recessive inborn error of amino acid metabolism that results in inability to break down homocysteine to cystathionine due to deficiency in the enzyme cystathionine beta-synthase.

A

Homocystinuria

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58
Q

is toxic to cells, so its accumulation can lead to abnormalities in the eye, skeletal system,
vascular system, and central nervous system.

A

Homocysteine

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59
Q

discoloration or displacement of the lens. Lens is defined as luxated (dislocated) when it lies completely outside of the hyaloid fossa, is free-floating in the vitreous, is in the anterior chamber, or lies directly on the
retina.

A

Ectopia lentis

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60
Q

Common clinical manifestation of having homocysteine

A

Ectopia lentis

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61
Q

measure of the ability of the eye to distinguish shapes and the details of objects at a given distance

A

Visual acuity

62
Q

Visual Acuity abv in left eye

A

OS

63
Q

Visual Acuity abv in right eye

A

OD

64
Q

composed of a series of progressively smaller rows of letters, is used to test distance vision.

A

Snellen chart

65
Q

considered the standard of normal vision.

A

20/20

66
Q

If the patient cannot count fingers, the examiner raises one hand up and down or moves it side to side and asks in which direction the hand is moving. This level of vision is known as

A

hand motion (HM)

67
Q

A patient who can perceive only light is described as having

A

Light perception (LP)

68
Q

The vision of a patient who cannot perceive light is described as

A

no light perception (NLP)

69
Q

is a hand-held instrument with various plus and minus lenses. The lenses can be rotated into place, enabling the examiner to bring the cornea, lens, and retina into focus sequentially

A

Direct Opthalmoscope

70
Q

an instrument commonly used by the ophthalmologist to see larger areas of the retina, although in an unmagnified state. It produces a bright and intense light.

A

Indirect Opthalmoscope

71
Q

a binocular microscope mounted on a table. This instrument enables the user to examine
the eye with magnification of 10 to 40 times the real image. The illumination can be varied from a broad to a narrow beam of light for different parts of the eye.

A

Slit lamp

72
Q

The most common color vision test is performed by using

A

Ishihara polychromatic plates.

73
Q

These plates are bound together in a booklet. On each plate of this booklet are dots of primary colors that are integrated into a background of secondary colors. The dots are arranged in simple patterns, such as numbers or geometric shapes

A

Ishihara polychromatic plates

74
Q

Vision is impaired because a shortened or elongated eyeball prevents light rays from focusing sharply on the retina.

A

Refractive errors

75
Q

consists of placing various types of lenses in front of the patient’s eyes to determine which lens best improves the patient’s vision

A

Ophthalmic refraction

76
Q

normal vision

A

Emmetropia

77
Q

(nearsightedness) | Deep eyeballs | Image front of retina

A

Myopia

78
Q

(farsightedness) | Shallow eyeballs | Image beyond retina

A

Hyperopia

79
Q

is the gradual loss of your eyes’ ability to focus on nearby objects; part of aging

A

Presbyopia

80
Q

an irregularity in the curve of the cornea

A

Astigmatism

81
Q

is a general term describing visual impairment
hat requires patients to use devices and strategies in addition to corrective lenses to perform visual tasks

A

Low vision

82
Q

Low vision is defined as a best corrected visual acuity (BCVA) of

A

20/70 to 20/200

83
Q

defined as a BCVA that can range from 20/400 to no light perception.

A

Blindness

84
Q

The clinical definition of absolute blindness is the

A

absence of light perception.

85
Q

is a condition of impaired vision in which a person has a BCVA that does not
exceed 20/200 in the better eye or whose widest visual field diameter is 20 degrees or less.

A

Legal blindness

86
Q

a is a group of eye diseases that can cause vision loss and blindness by damaging a nerve in the back of your eye called the optic nerve

A

Glaucoma

87
Q

direct mechanical theory in glaucoma

A

suggests that high IOP damages the retinal layer as it passes through the optic nerve head

88
Q

Indirect ischemic theory

A

suggests that high IOP compresses the microcirculation in the optic nerve head, resulting in cell injury and death

89
Q

silent thief of sight”, blurred vision or “halos” around lights, difficulty focusing, difficulty adjusting eyes in low lighting, loss of peripheral vision, aching or discomfort around the eyes, headache are clinical manifestations of what?

A

Glaucoma

90
Q

is glaucoma curable using medical management?

A

No

91
Q

for glaucoma, laser burns are applied to the inner surface of the trabecular meshwork to open the intratrabecular spaces and widen the canal of Schlemm.

A

Laser Trabeculoplasty

92
Q

for pupillary block glaucoma, an opening is made in the iris to eliminate the pupillary block.

A

laser iridotomy

93
Q

for chronic glaucoma are used to create an opening or fistula in the trabecular meshwork to drain aqueous humor from the anterior chamber to the subconjunctival space into a bleb.

A

Filtering procedures

94
Q

is the standard filtering technique used to remove part of the trabecular meshwork.

A

Trabeculectomy

95
Q

usually bilateral, but one eye may be more severely affected that the other

A

open-angle glaucoma

96
Q

open-angle glaucoma: optic nerve damage, visual field defects, IOP > 21 mmHG, possible ocular pain, headache, and halos

A

Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAC)

97
Q

open angle glaucoma: IOP < or equal 21mmHg. Opic nerve damage, visual fields defects

A

Normal tension glaucoma

98
Q

open angle glaucoma: Elevated IOP, oculat pain or headache

A

Ocular hypertension

99
Q

obstruction in aqueous humor outflow due to the complete or partial closure of the angle from the forward shift of the peripheral iris to the trabecula. The obstruction results in an increased IOP.

A

Angle-closure (pupillary block) glaucoma

100
Q

Angle-closure (pupillary block) glaucoma: rapidly progressive visual impairment, periocular pain, conjunctival hyperemia, and congestion

A

Acute angle-closure glaucoma

101
Q

Angle-closure (pupillary block) glaucoma: transient blurring of vision, halos around lights; temporal headaches and/or ocular pain; pupil may be semidilated.

A

Subacute angle-closure glaucoma

102
Q

Angle-closure (pupillary block) glaucoma: Progression of glaucomatous cupping and significant visual field loss; IOP may be normal or elevated; ocular pain and headache

A

Chronic angle-closure glaucoma

103
Q

This condition has clinical manifestations of: Painless, blurry vision, dimmer perception of surroundings, light scattering

A

Cataracts

104
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: NO NON—SURGICAL treatment cures cataracts or prevents
age-related cataracts.

A

True

105
Q

Inherited as autosomal dominant traits and manifest when the person is about 20 years Decreased vision due to: irregular corneal surface and corneal deposits.

A

Corneal Dystrophies

106
Q

formation of blisters that cause pain and discomfort on rupturing

A

Keratopathy

107
Q

a condition characterized by a conical protuberance of the cornea with progressive thinning on protrusion and irregular astigmatism

A

Keratoconus

108
Q

the most relevant to common retinal disorders.

A

Two innermost layers, the sensory retina and the retinal pigment epithelium (RPE)

109
Q

refers to the separation of the RPE from the sensory layer; four types: rhegmatogenous, traction, a combination of rhegmatogenous and traction, and exudative

A

Retinal detachment

110
Q

retinal detachment: is the most common form. In this condition, a hole or tear develops in the sensory retina, allowing some of the liquid vitreous to seep through the sensory retina and detach it from the RPE

A

Rhegmatogenous detachment

111
Q

Retinal detachment: caused hemorrhages and fibrous proliferation associated with diabetic retinopathy, vitreous hemorrhage.

A

Traction detachment

112
Q

Retinal detachment: are the result of the production of a serous fluid under the retina from the choroid. Conditions such as uveitis and macular degeneration may cause the production of this serous fluid.

A

Exudative retinal detachment

113
Q

sensation of a shade or curtain coming across the vision of one eye, cobwebs, bright
flashing lights, or the sudden onset of a great number of floaters, no pain.

A

Retinal detachment

114
Q

The retinal surgeon compresses the sclera (often with a scleral buckle or a silicone band to indent the scleral wall from the outside of the eye and bring the two retinal layers in contact with each other.

A

Scleral buckle

115
Q

intraocular procedure in which 1- to 4- mm incisions are made at the pars plana.

A

vitrectomy

116
Q

A vitrectomy is an intraocular procedure in
which 1- to 4- mm incisions are made at the pars plana. One incision allows the introduction of a light source, and another incision serves as the portal for the vitrectomy instrument.

A

Pars Plana Vitrectomy

117
Q

is the most common cause of visual loss in people older than 60 years of age in
developed countries; 2 types: dry and wet

A

Age-related macular degeneration (AMD)

118
Q

Type of AMD: presence of drusen, outside of macula: no symptom, within macula: vision blurring

A

Dry (Non neovascular and non exudative)

119
Q

Type of AMD: may have an abrupt onset. Patients report that straight lines appear crooked and distorted or that letters in words appear broken.

A

Wet (neovascular, exudative)

120
Q

are given to patients to use in their
homes to monitor for a sudden onset or distortion of vision

A

Amsler grids

121
Q

is the leading cause of blindness among children and young adults, especially male trauma victims.

A

Ocular trauma

122
Q

a common cause of corneal abrasion

A

Contact lens wear

123
Q

ocular pain on exposure to light)

A

Photophobia

124
Q

edema of the conjunctiva

A

Hemorrhagic chemosis

125
Q

hemorrhage within the chamber)

A

Hyphema

126
Q

complete removal of the eyeball and part of the optic nerve

A

Primary enucleation

127
Q

an inflammation created in the uninjured eye by the affected eye that can result in blindness of the uninjured eye

A

Sympathetic ophthalmia

128
Q

are prescribed to reduce inflammation

A

topical corticosteroids

129
Q

is a deficiency in the production of any of the aqueous, mucin, or lipid tear film components; most common complaint in dry eye syndrome is a scratchy or foreign body sensation

A

Dry eye syndrome, or keratoconjunctivitis sicca

130
Q

is an effective agent that increases tear production and is used once daily

A

Cyclosporine ophthalmic emulsion (Restasis)

131
Q

(inflammation of the conjunctiva)

A

Conjunctivitis

132
Q

is the most common ocular disease worldwide. It is characterized by a pink appearance (hence the common term pink eye) because of subconjunctival blood vessel congestion.

A

Conjuctivitis

133
Q

may be unilateral or bilateral, but the infection usually starts in one eye and then
spreads to the other eye by hand contact.

A

Conjunctivitis

134
Q

3 Types of Conjunctivitis

A

Microbial, Allergic, Toxic

135
Q

Conjunctivitis: is almost always self-limiting, lasting 2 weeks if left untreated; most common causative microorganisms are Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Staphylococcus aureus;

A

Acute bacterial conjunctivitis

136
Q

includes trachoma is treated with
broad-spectrum antibiotics are administered topically and systemically.

A

Chlamydial conjunctivitis

137
Q

conjunctivitis: not responsive to any treatment. Cold compresses may alleviate some symptoms

A

Viral

138
Q

Acute suppurative infection of the glands of the eyelids caused by Staphylococcus aureis.

A

Hordeolum (stye)

139
Q

Sterile inflammatory process involving chronic granulomatous inflammation od the meibomian glands,

A

Chalazion

140
Q

Chronic bilateral inflammation of the eyelid margins .here are two types: staphylococcal and sebortheic. Staphylococcal type is usually ulcerative and is more serious due to the involvement of the base of hair follicles. Permanent scarring can result.

A

Blepharitis

141
Q

is the removal of the entire eye and part of the optic nerve.

A

Enucleation

142
Q

involves the surgical removal of the intraocular contents through an incision or opening in the cornea or sclera

A

Evisceration

143
Q

the removal of the eyelids, the eye, and various amounts of orbital contents. It is indicated in malignancies in the orbit that are life threatening or when more conservative modalities of treatment have failed or are inappropriate.

A

Exenteration

144
Q

dynamics of ocular pharmacokinetics

A

absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion

145
Q

conjunctival sac can hold only:

A

50 uL

146
Q

prevent high ocular tissue concentration of most ophthalmic medications because they separate the bloodstream from the ocular tissues and keep foreign substances from entering the eye, thereby limiting a medication’s efficacy.

A

Blood–ocular barriers

147
Q

pupil dilation

A

Mydriasis

148
Q

is the main objective of the
administration of mydriatic and cycloplegic agents

A

Mydriasis, or pupil dilation,

149
Q

administered to paralyze the iris sphincter.

A

Cycloplegic medications

150
Q

medications to control ocular hypersensitivity reactions.

A

Antiallergy Medications like corticosteroids

151
Q

used to cleanse the external lids to maintain lid
hygiene, to irrigate the external corneal surface to regain normal pH (eg, in chemical
burns), to irrigate the corneal surface to eliminate debris, or to inflate the globe
intraoperatively

A

Ocular Irrigants and Lubricants-

152
Q

The extraocular muscles

A

4 rectus: superior rectus, inferior rectus, lateral rectus, and medial rectus muscles; 2 oblique: superior and inferior oblique

NCM 217A (3 decks)

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