Eye Examination Flashcards

1
Q

What is the first step of any eye consultation?

A

Ascertain signalment (several ocular disease more predisposed in certain breeds/inherited) + history (both general and eye focused)

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2
Q

What is the second step of an eye consultation - describe how it is performed and what you would be looking for.

A

Examination under ambient lighting
Distance exam - blink rate, blepharospasm, redness, symmetry, discharge, exophthalmos (observed from above), entropion (observe different head positions)

Close exam - symmetry, protrusion of globe, strabismus, retropulsion, vestibulo-ocular reflex, inspection of eyelid margins, conjunctival fornices and third eyelid.

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3
Q

What is the 3rd step of the eye consultation. What does it assess and what would be a normal reading?

A

Schirmer Tear Test - quantitative assessment of tear film
Perform before local anaesthesia or other topical drops applied

STT 1 - basal + reflex tear production
STT 2 - (if local anaesthesia etc applied) - basal tear production

Normal value >15mm/min
10mm/min-15mm/min = borderline KCS
<10mm/min - confirmed KCS

(Cats range 3-32mm/min, average 17 - can read 0 with stress)

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4
Q

When should sample collection be performed and why?
What collection methods are there?

A

Prior to application of topical agents to eye - can have negative impact on microbial growth.

If eye very painful proxymetacaine can be used as will not affect bacteriology.

Bacteriology collection - sterile cotton tip swab
Cytology collection - cytobrushes or blunt end of scalpel
PCR collection - sterile swab or cytobrush with plain tube.

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5
Q

What neuro-ophthalmic reflexes/responses can be tested in an eye examination?

A

Pupillary Light Response - direct and consensual
Swinging flashlight test - for detection of pre-chiasmal lesions
Dazzle reflex - subcortical reflex, tests visual pathway to level of midbrain
Menace response - (not a reflex as learned response), assess visual pathway up to cortical level

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6
Q

How should the PLR be assessed and which nerves does it involve as the afferent and efferent arms? Which muscle is involved in the PLR?

A

Assess in darkened room

Afferent arm - optic nerve (CN II)
Efferent arm - parasympathetic fibres of occulomotor nerve (CNIII)

Constriction of iris sphincter muscle and relaxation of iris dilator muscle

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7
Q

Why do we see a consensual response when performing a PLR?

A

Due to decussation of nerve fibres at the optic chiasm and pretectal area.

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8
Q

What factors may affect the PLR and is the PLR a test for vision?

A

Factors that may affect the PLR - excitement (adrenergic state), iridial disease (iris atrophy, uveitis, synechiae, neoplasia), increased IOP, optic nerve or higher centre function.

NOT a test for vision - cerebrum is not involved in the PLR pathway. Pupillomotor fibres branch from optic tract before the visual fibres.

PLR can be intact if cortical blindness
PLR being absent does not always indicate blindness e.g iris atrophy

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9
Q

What is the swinging flashlight test and what response should we expect?

A

Used to detect pre-chiasmal deficits
Penlight used to illuminate one pupil then immediately swing to opposite pupil
If pupil of second eye dilates as it its illuminated indicated a blinding lesion in that eye (up to chiasm)
Very small amount of dilatation following constriction can be normal - pupillary escape.

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10
Q

How does the dazzle reflex work and what are the afferent and efferent arms of this reflex?

A

Bright light shone into each eye - should elicit blink.

Afferent - optic nerve (CN II)
Efferent - facial nerve (CN VII)

Visual pathway tested to level of midbrain.

Complete cataracts would still be expected to dazzle if stimulated with bright enough light source.

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11
Q

What are the afferent and efferent arms of the menace response? What extraocular muscles are involved?
What would you expect in a patient with facial paralysis?

A

Learned response - 8-12 weeks, may be absent in excited/nervous patients.

Afferent arm = optic nerve (CN II)
Efferent arm = facial nerve (CN VII) + abducens (CNVI)

Flat hand/finger towards eye - should illicit blink and subtle globe retraction.
Extraocular muscles = orbicularis oculi (for blink), retractor bulbi (globe retraction)

Facial paralysis - absent blink but may see slight globe retraction and transient TEL protrusion.

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12
Q

What are some behavioural tests we can use for vision?

A

Visual tracking - cotton wool dropped in front of patient (subjective)
Visual placing - lift up to exam table slowly, should start to extend one or both legs. Cover individual eyes to assess.
Maze testing - assess navigated obstacles in different lighting conditions

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13
Q

What are the afferent and efferent arms of the palpebral reflex?

A

Afferent arm = ophthalmic and maxillary branches of trigeminal nerve (CNV)
Efferent arm = facial nerve (CN VII) + abducens (CN VI)

Centre of upper lid - supraorbital nerve (ophthalmic branch)
Lateral canthus = lacrimal nerve (ophthalmic branch)
Medial canthus = trochlear nerve (ophthalmic branch)
Centre of lower lid = zygomatic nerve (maxillary branch)

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14
Q

What does the corneal reflex test? What are afferent and efferent arms?

A

Corneal reflex = wisp of cotton wool onto cornea, should elicit blink response

Afferent = ophthalmic branch of trigeminal nerve (CNV)
Efferent = facial nerve (CN VII) + abducens (CN VI)

Blink via orbicularis oculi and retraction by retractor bulbi.

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15
Q

What areas are we examining with focal illumination +/- magnification?

A

Adnexa + ocular surface + anterior segment

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16
Q

What are the principles of parallax when observing cataracts? What shape are anterior vs posterior cataracts?

A

Anterior capsular/cortical cataracts - move away from examiner
Posterior cataracts - move with examiner

Anterior = upright Y
Posterior = inverted Y

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17
Q

What is lentodonesis/phacodonesis vs iridodonesis?

A

Lentodonesis/phacodonesis = wobble of lens during movement of globe
Iridodonesis = wobble of iris with movement of globe

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18
Q

Why do we do both indirect ophthalmoscopy and direct ophthalmoscopy?

A

Indirect - wide overview of fundus (locate lesions)
Direct - magnified view of fundus, examine areas of interest in more detail.

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19
Q

What are we looking for with distant direct ophthalmoscopy?

A

Lesions of clear ocular structures of anterior segment. Can be used to distinguish nuclear sclerosis from cataract formation.

20
Q

What drug do we use for dilation of the pupil and how long should we wait after application before examining the fundus? Which cases may need more than 1 application to achieve dilation.

A

0.5% tropicamide - applied 20 mins before fundus examination
May need more than 1 application with microphthalmia, uveitis or heavy pigmentation of iris.

21
Q

Why is atropine not routinely used for pupil dilation for examination of the fundus?

A

Long duration of action (up to 5 days), can cause excessive salivation in feline patients.

22
Q

What type of view does close direct ophthalmoscopy provide?

A

Upright but magnified image (approx 15x) - assessment of fundus but only in small segments

23
Q

How does panoptic close direct ophthalmoscopy compare to normal close direct ophthalmoscopy?

A

Panoptic - wider field of view than normal close direct still maintaining magnification.

24
Q

What are the two types of indirect ophthalmoscopy?

A

Monocular vs Binocular (head mounted with LED light source)

25
Q

What are the benefits of binocular indirect ophthalmoscopy vs monocular ophthalmoscopy?

A

Stereopsis - light from fundus split by series of prisms to travel to both of observers eyes at once. More depth perception compared to monocular ophthalmoscopy.
Hands free for practitioner - one hand for condensing lens and other can stabilise patient head.

26
Q

Which condensing lenses are most appropriate for small animal use?

A

20D/30D condensing lenses

27
Q

What does the refractive power of a condensing lens determine?

A

Determines field of view and level of magnification
Field of view increases with dioptre strength whilst level of magnification decreases.

28
Q

Describe the function of the types of beam on a slit lamp.

A

Full beam = generalised view of adnexa, cornea, anterior chamber, iris and pupil. Can be used for dazzle reflex.

Slit beam = focal illumination, depth of lesions within transparent structures. Reflection towards examiner = raised lesion, away = defect (e.g ulcer)
Aqueous flare detection (uveitis)
Retroillumination - thin slit beam shone through pupil and iris or lesion, observed away from light beam - thin areas transilluminate.

29
Q

What type of dye is fluorescein and what type of tissue does it adhere to?

A

Fluorescein = water soluble dye
Changes to green in slightly alkaline conditions e.g pre-corneal tear film
Adheres to hydrophilic tissues (exposed corneal stroma)
Does not adhere to hydrophobic structures (intact corneal epithelium/descemet’s membrane)

30
Q

Why are fluorescein strips preferred over drops and why should fluorescein stain be flushed after application?

A

Strips preferred as do not overload the eye
Should be flushed to avoid pooling/false positive uptake.
Should be applied to dorsal conjunctiva and not touch cornea itself to prevent false positives.

31
Q

What does the seidel test check for and how is it performed?

A

Seidel test - assessment for perforation
Fluorescein applied, forced blink.
Leakage seen as dark rivulet diluting green corneal film, gradually expands.
If unsure if wound stable gentle pressure applied to globe via upper eyelids then recheck.

32
Q

How is the tear film breakup time assessed and what does it evaluate? What is a normal value?

A

TFBUT - assessment of quality of tear film (poor meibomian gland function or reduced ocular mucin production)

Fluorescein applied, forced blink, eyelids held open and seconds counted until uniform layer of fluorescein starts to break apart.
20 seconds average in dog, 17 seconds in cat
<20 seconds suggests unstable tear film

33
Q

What does the Jones test assess? How performed?

A

Assessment of nasolacrimal patency
Fluorescein applied to cornea as normal - timed until appearance at nares (usually within 5-14 minutes)
Check oropharynx as well as accessory openings (brachycephalics + cats)

34
Q

What does Rose Bengal stain show? Which types of cases is it useful for?

A

Shows dead/devitalised cells, more sensitive than fluorescein for subtle corneal epithelial disease
Good for herpesvirus/keratitis cases - dendritic ulcer detection
Also good for early KCS/qualitative tear film deficiencies with reduced mucus.

35
Q

What is fluorescein angiography used for. Why is it not commonly used.

A

Used to detect fundic lesions not visible on fundoscopy.
Fundus camera detects flow of fluorescein solution injected IV
Normal eye - does not penetrate healthy endothelium of retinal/choroidal vessels
Diseased eye - excessive leakage of fluorescein leakage
Sedation/GA required - generally research technique as costly and often able to visibly see lesions by time of presentation.

36
Q

What is the normal IOP range for small animals and what is it measured in?

A

10-25mmHG (millimetres of mercury)

37
Q

What are the 3 types of tonometer?

A

Schiotz tonometer
Applantation tonometer (Tonopen)
Rebound tonometer (Tonovet)

38
Q

How do you use the Schiotz tonometer?

A

Indents corneal surface with small plunger protruding from footplate. Cornea has to be in a horizontal plane to use
Not suitable for severe corneal ulceration/surface pathology.

39
Q

How does an applanation tonometer work?

A

Measures force required to flatten cornea and converts to IOP value
Proxymetacaine applied before use
No pressure on neck, eyelids or globe - falsely elevates IOP
Tip cover - not too tight or too loose and calibrate once daily
Only readings within 10 per cent coefficient variable should be considered.

40
Q

How does a rebound tonometer work?

A

Measures speed at which probe is decelerated upon impact with the cornea.
Higher the IOP the faster the deceleration
Probe held 4-8mm from cornea and 6x readings taken
Must be in upright/horizontal position so not ideal for recumbent animals.

41
Q

What does retinoscopy measure? When is it most commonly performed?

A

Refractive state of eye
Emmetropic - normal sighted
Myopic - short sighted
Hyperopic - long sighted
Astigmatic - variation in refraction

Most usually referral for foldable lens replacements post phacoemulsification - occasionally performance problems in working dogs

42
Q

What does electroretinography measure (ERG)? What is it used for? What different patterns are there?

A

ERG measures light potential produced by the retina as a measure of retinal function.
Used for investigation into causes of blindness where fundus appears normal (SARD’s/optic neuritis)/ pre-cataract surgery.

Flash ERG - photoreceptor function
Pattern ERG - function of retinal ganglion cells of inner retina in glaucomatous conditions.

43
Q

When may ocular centesis (aqeous/vitreous samples) be indicated and what are the risk/complications?

A

Indications - differentiating neoplasia, infectious diseases and sterile inflammatory conditions
Can perform cytology, protein measurement, culture, antibody titre/PCR. Also occasionally delivery of therapeutics.
BLIND/POOR PROGNOSISS FOR VISION ONLY

Risks/complications - intraocular haemorrhage, uveal inflammation (breakdown of blood-aqueous barrier), lens damage (phacoclastic uveitis)

44
Q

How would you perform aqueocentesis?

A

Lateral recumbency with horizontal ocular surface
Prep povidone iodine 1:50 solution + drape eye
Local anaesthetic applied over 1-2 mins
Sterile procedure - gloves worn
Speculum placed and conjunctiva grasped
Dorsolateral quadrant used
27/30 gauge needle - 1-2mm posterior to limbus through conjunctiva/sclera
0.1-0.2mls aqueous extracted.
Needle slowly withdrawn and conjunctival site pinched with forceps.

45
Q

How would you perform vitreocentesis?

A

Positioning/prep same as for aqueocentesis
Needle placement site pas planta of ciliary body to minimise damage to posterior segment
25/27 gauge needle
0.1-0.3mls extracted

46
Q

What type of tubes would you use for ocular centesis samples?

A

Plain - cytology, smears, serology, culture or PCR
Low cellularity so does not clot
Do not use EDTA tubes - sample too small.

47
Q

What steps of the ophthalmic exam should be avoided if there is a risk of rupture (desmetocoele) or corneal perforation?

A

STT
Tonometry
Do not disturb any aqueous clots