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TERM 3- Postmidterm > Extra Misc. Questions > Flashcards

Extra Misc. Questions Flashcards

1
Q

describe HSV make-up

A

Group I- dsDNA, enveloped

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2
Q

define Acronym for Group I/II viruses

A

‘Happy / Pap’

  • Enveloped: HBV (partial dsDNA), HSV, Pox (cytoplasm)
  • Naked: Parvo (ssDNA), Adeno, Papilloma, Polyoma
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3
Q

describe Polio make-up

A

Group IV- ssRNA (+), naked

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4
Q

define Acronym for Group III/IV viruses

A

‘Chirping CFTR’

  • Enveloped: coronavirus, flavivirus, togavirus, retrovirus
  • Naked: calicivirus, hepevirus, reo-/rota-virus (dsRNA), picornavirus
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5
Q

define Acronym for Group V viruses

A

Note- ssRNA (-), all enveloped — ‘bad prof’

bunya, arena, delta (defective), paramyox (fusion), rhabdo, orthomxyo (nucleus), filo

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6
Q

describe HIV make-up

A

Group VI- ssRNA(+) retrovirus, enveloped

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7
Q

explain function of gp120, gp41, p24 in HIV

A
  • gp120: VAP, binds CD4+ and co-receptor
  • gp41: hydrophobic element is exposed upon gp120 binding => fusion with membrane
  • p24: capsid protein (used in early Dx)
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8
Q

describe make-up of HBV

A

Group VII partial dsDNA, enveloped

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9
Q

HBV binds mucosal cells and hepatocytes via (1). HBV is effective because once it enter the nucleus, (2) occurs

A

1- HBsAg

2- ssDNA randomly anneals to host genome => oncogenesis

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10
Q

define genetic reassortment, phenotypic mixing, antigenic shift, antigenic drift

A
  • Reassortment: RNA combinations in nucleus
  • Phenotypic mixing: new virons that express new protein combination
  • Shift: entire event that results in new HA protein in human population (pandemic)
  • Drift: random pt mutations that occur normally (annual epidemics)
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11
Q

list the 2 flagellates and 1 ciliates of intestinal protozoa

A

flagellates: giardia lamblia, trichomonas vaginalis
ciliates: balatidium coli

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12
Q

list the 2 flagellates blood/tissue protozoa

A
  • leshmania (sand fly)

- trypanosoma (tsete fly - African sleeping sickness / American kissing bug - chaga’s)

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13
Q

in cestodes:

  • head = (1)
  • segments = (2)
A

1- scolex

2- proglottids

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14
Q

Candida has the following unique characteristics

A

pseudohyphae and budding yeast

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15
Q

____ is the most common AIDS defining disease

A

Pneumocyctis jiroecii (PCP)

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16
Q

narrow / low-angle branching hyphae indicates…

A

aspergillus

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17
Q

list the enveloped DNA viruses

A

(Happy Pap –> HHP part)

Note all are dsDNA: herpes (linear), hepadna (circular), poxvirus (linear)

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18
Q

list the naked DNA viruses

A

(Happy Pap –> PAPP part)

  • parvo (ssDNA, linear)
  • adeno (dsDNA, linear)
  • papilloma, polyoma (dsDNA, circular)
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19
Q

list the ssRNA(-) viruses, are the enveloped or naked

A

(BAD PROF)- all are enveloped

  • bunya (seg) or borna (lin)
  • arena (seg)
  • delta
  • paramyox (lin)
  • rhabdo (lin)
  • orthomyoxo (seg)
  • filo (lin)
20
Q

list the dsRNA and ssRNA(+) viruses, distinguish enveloped or naked

A

(CAP FaCT = ssRNA (+))
Naked = CAP: calci, astro, picorna
Env. = FCT: flavi, corona, toga

dsRNA = reo/rota, Naked

21
Q

retroviruses are (enveloped/naked) and include these two types: (2)

A

1- enveloped

2- lentavirus (HIV), oncovirus

22
Q

list some viruses that enter via fusion

A

(enveloped)

HSV, HIV, paramyxovirus

23
Q

list some viruses that enter via endocytosis and acidification

A

(enveloped)

influenza

24
Q

list some viruses that enter via direct entry across plasma membrane

A

(naked)

poliovirus

25
Q

list some viruses that enter via endocytosis (only)

A

(naked)

parvovirus

26
Q

In granuloma formation:
-macrophages secrete (1) to attract Th1
-Th1 secreted (2) to attract more macrophages
(process repeats until target cells are walled off)
-these microbes usually share (3) feature

A

1- IL-12
2- IFN-γ
3- microbes avoids endo-lysosomal fusion

27
Q

describe APS

A

(autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome)

-self-Ags not presented via surface medullary thymic epithelial cells, involves AIRE

28
Q

X-linked immunoglobulinemia is a defect in (1) and people are susceptible to (2)

A

1- BTK (Bruton’s Tyrosine Kinase)

2- extracellular + fungal infections

29
Q

class switching requires ___ cell

A 
Th cell (CD4+): CD40L activating CD40 on B cell
(note CD28 (T) binding B7 (B) activates T cell)
30
Q

compare hippocratic to non-hippocratic oaths

A
  • Hippocratic: Pts best interest 1st

- Non-hippo: balance Pt interest and societal issues

31
Q

intracellular organisms are usually dealt with by the following cells….

A

NK cells, Th1 cells

32
Q

fungal and extracellular organisms are usually dealt with by….

A
  • Th17 cells

- complement via B cells or innate immune system

33
Q

highlight events and markers of pro-B cell

A
  • H chain recombination starts (RAG1/2)
  • H chain ‘J’ junctional diversity via tDt

-CD19 on surface

34
Q

highlight events and markers of pre-B cell

A
  • H chain recombination ends - L chain recombination starts (RAG1/2)
  • cytoplasmic µ
  • CD20 on surface
  • pre-BCR on surface
35
Q

highlight events and markers of immature B cell

A

-L chain recombination ends (RAG1/2)

  • IgM on surface
  • BCR on surface (+ tolerance induction)
36
Q

what are the surface markers of mature B cells

A

IgM, IgD

37
Q

compare IgM and IgD

A
  • only differ in Constant H chain: same in variable H chain and constant/variable L chain
  • occurs via alternate splicing
38
Q

IgG class-switching is mediated by….

A

IFN-γ

39
Q

discuss changes in IL-2R once T cell is activated

A

IL-2Rβγ (low affinity) –> IL-2Rαβγ (high affinity)

40
Q

list some sources of superAg

A

staph exfoliating, shock; Strep pyogenic

41
Q

what is the major factor of type 1 hypersensitivity desensitization

A

Th2 —> Th1 response

42
Q

hematuria and high bilirubin indicates type ___ hypersensitivity

A

type 2

43
Q

___ cell is most associated with autoimmune diseases

A

Treg

44
Q

describe ALS

A

(autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome)

-defect in FAS/FASL apoptosis signaling

45
Q

what are the types of AR-SCID

A

ADA > PNP

46
Q

Leishmania are in (1) state in sand flies and (2) state in humans

A

1- promastigote

2- amastigote

47
Q

Trypansomes (American and African) are in (1) state in Reduviid Bug/Tsetse Fly and in (2) state in humans; (3) is the intermediate phase before human infection

A

1- epimastigote
2- trypomastigote
3- metacyclic trypomastigote
Note- American type may convert from trypomastigote to amastigote within humans

TERM 3- Postmidterm (11 decks)

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