Extra From Class Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four DAS plans?

A

A: face mask ventilation and tracheal intubation
B: maintain oxygenation - SAD
C: face mask ventilation
D: emergency front of neck access

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2
Q

What is DAS plan A?

A
Face mask ventilation and tracheal intubation
- optimise position
- pre O2
- adequate NMB
- direct/video laryngoscopy (3+1)
- external manipulation (BURP)
- bougee
- remove cricoid
- maintain O2 and anaesthesia
Success --> confirm capno
Fail --> declare failed intubation
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3
Q

What is DAS plan B?

A
Maintain oxygenation: SAD
- 2nd generation 
- change device or size (max 3)
- O2 and ventilate 
Success --> wake, intubate via SAD, proceed on device, Trache/crico
Fail --> declare failed SAD
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4
Q

What is DAS plan C?

A
Face mask ventilation
- if can't - paralyse
- final attempt
- 2 person technique with adjuncts
Success --> wake
Fail --> declare CICO
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5
Q

What is DAS plan D?

A

Emergency front of neck access

  • scalpel bougee
  • call for help
  • 100% O2
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6
Q

How is a scalpel bougee technique performed?

A
Help
100% O2 upper airway
Ensure NMB
Position to extend neck
Laryngeal handshake to ID membrane
Transverse stab with scalpel
Turn blade 90 degree caudal (sharp)
Slide bougee tip along blade into trach
Railroad lubricated 6.0 Parker ET
Ventilate, cuff up and confirm
Secure in place
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7
Q

What is is a scalpel bougee pack?

A

Scalpel size 10
Bougee
6.0 Parker tip
Chlorhexidine swab

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8
Q

How is the scalpel bougee technique handled in a non-palpable neck?

A

8-10cm vertical incision caudad to cephalad
Blunt dissect with fingers to separate tissue
ID and stabilise larynx
Continue as with palpable neck

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9
Q

What is the post op care following a DI?

A
Make airway management plan
Monitor for complications 
Complete airway alert form
Explain to patient
Send report to GP
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10
Q

What is the post op care following cricothyroidotomy?

A

Postpone surgery unless life threatening
Urgent surgical review of site
Document and follow up as in DI

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11
Q

What is the cuff and collar system?

A

On a sleeve index system
Ring placement and diameter is individualised for each gas on the gas hose and bollard connector
Outlet sleeve and corresponding groove on hose can couple

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12
Q

What must you know about the anaesthetic agent in order to make a safe vaporiser?

A

SVP: in order to know what splitting ratio is required

MAC: in order to know range for the dial

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13
Q

How does ET control differ from simply setting a vaporiser?

A

On ET the machine varies the amount of vapour delivered so that the ET is always the same even if the exhaled amount or circulating flow changes. If simply set then the same amount is constantly delivered but may differ in circulation due to changing flow rates. You may deliver much less.

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14
Q

Why is ET better measurement than Fi?

A

ET reflects patient blood level well and is easier to measure.

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15
Q

What are the valves on an ambu bag?

A

End:
+p valve (outside) to relieve
-p valve to entrain
One way valve so gas goes forward when squeezed
Front:
Duckbill valve: open on insp and close once delivered, pulls back on refill to prevent air entrainment and ensure expiratory gases flow out peep valve. One way valve prevents expiratory gas entering bag.

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16
Q

How does the aisys anti hypoxic system work?

A

Programmed not to allow a mix of less than 25% O2
Electronic system
Cannot select a mixture less than 25%
Gas analyser alerts if occurs

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17
Q

What is a total spinal?

A
High dose LA in the CSF causing it to travel high and block vital pathways. Intercostals/diaphragm get blocked
Tingling arms/hands
Dyspnoea
Hypoxia
Hypotension
Blocked nose (sympathetic vasoD)
Reduced conscious state
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18
Q

What is intra osseous?

A
Into bone marrow
Non-collapsible
Systemic venous access
Compares to IV for dosing
For emergencies, difficult IV and paediatrics 
Lasts 24 hours
Can deliver drugs and fluids 
Hand bolus or P bag fluids
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19
Q

What are the general principles to placing an IO?

A
Prep skin prior
Consider LA
Appropriate needle
Push needle through skin to bone 
The IO hub has a black line which should be visible above the skin prior to penetrating the bone (good size)
Pull trigger and apply pressure until a change in R is felt 
Remove stylet; needle should be firm
Secure with supplies dressing
Attach flushed EZ connector
Aspirate for marrow/blood
Flush IO before use (ensure no oedema) 
Need pressure bag for fluids
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20
Q

How is an IO placed for proximal tibia?

A
Adult:
3cm below patella
2cm medial along flat aspect
Paed:
1cm below and 1cm medial along flat aspect
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21
Q

How is an IO placed in the proximal humerus?

A

Place patient hand on abdomen to get 90degree at elbow
Palpate for “ball”
Locate surgical neck (ball on tee)
1-2cm higher than the neck is the greater tubercle and this is insertion point
Aim 45 degree down and drill until hub meets skin

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22
Q

What areas can the IO be placed?

A

Antero-medial tibia
Distal tibia
Distal anterior femur
Proximal humerus (superior site for speed and flow rate)

Proximal/distal ends of long bones where spongy bone exists
Sternum not ideal!!!

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23
Q

What are the risks of IO?

A
Extravasation of fluid or drug into tissue 
Compartment syndrome 
Necrosis
Infection
Fracture
Growth plate injury
Fat microemboli
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24
Q

What are the contraindications of IO?

A
Fracture in bone 
Absence of landmarks
Infection at site 
Previous attempt on same bone within 48 hours 
Osteoporosis or other bone disease
Elderly high risk fracture
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25
Q

What is an AED?

A

Delivers electrical energy to heart to simultaneously depolarise cells to allow stable rhythm to establish
Automated external defibrillator

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26
Q

What are the properties of modern AED?

A

DC energy: more effective, less damage, less arrhythmia
Transformers (to increase V) converters (turn AC to DC) and capacitor (store)
Biphasic: electrical current in one direction for set time then reverses for remaining time. Optimal delivery. Uses less peak current so low damage

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27
Q

What is a cheat drain?

A

Into the pleural space
Drains air, blood and reinflates lung
Air tight system with underwater seal allows air exit without re-entry
Chamber kept 100cm below cheat to maintain -P
If lifted, fluid can siphon into chest
Oscillations indicate patency. Absence may indicate blocked, kinked, lost -P or lung has fully re-expanded

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28
Q

How does a paediatric airway and respiratory system differ to an adult?

A
Narrow at cricoid vs glottis
Large structures
Larynx C2-C3 anterior vs C3-C6
Fast/slow and deep/shallow cycle 
7-10ml/kg vs 10ml/kg
Low FRC 
High RR: 24- (age/2)
2x the metabolic rate
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29
Q

How does the paediatric CVS system differ to that of an adult?

A
Higher compliance
Large blood volume (80ml/kg vs 70)
More TBW (75-80% vs 55-60%)
Higher hb >130
Higher HR >60
Lower BP (sys= 80 + (agex2)
Higher CO
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30
Q

Why do paeds desaturated quickly?

A
Reduced alveolar cluster
Underdeveloped intercostals
CC within TV
Low FRC 
High metabolic rate
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31
Q

What other body systems are considered in paeds for anaesthetic?

A
Immature liver and kidney function
Low carb stores so hypoglycaemia occurs
BBB more permeable to agent
Thermoregulation: high SA to volume
Minimal SC fat
Reduced vasoC and shiver mechanism
Brown fat metabolism in infants to produce heat - high energy and O2 use
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32
Q

What are the paediatric emergency drug doses?

A

Suxamethonium
1-2 mg/kg (-3 for IM)

Atropine
10-20 mcg/kg (-30 for IM)

Adrenaline
10 mcg/Kg IV/IM

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33
Q

What is the normal CO2 range?

A

35-45

> 45 is hypercarbia
<35 is hypocarbia

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34
Q

What can cause a high CO2?

A
Hypoventilation
Hyperthermia/sepsis
Tourniquet release
High CO
Bronchial intubation
Soda lime exhausted
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35
Q

What can cause a low CO2?

A

Hyperventilation
Reduced CO (caution not treading to arrest/PE)
Hypothermia
System leak

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36
Q

What can cause an inclined plateau on CO2 trace?

A

Obstructive lung disease
Blocked airway/tube
Aspiration, spasm, anaphylaxis

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37
Q

What can cause a raised CO2 baseline?

A
Exhausted like
Rebreathing
Sticky valves
Insufficient FGF 
Excessive dead space
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38
Q

What can cause decreasing co2?

A

PE
Cardiac arrest
Tamponade

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39
Q

What does oesophageal and bronchial intubation look like on CO2?

A

Oesophageal:
Small ETCO2 dropping off

Bronchial:
A bifid wave noticed in phase III

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40
Q

What are the phases of CO2 tracing?

A

1 is the baseline and is end inspiratory phase
2 is the upstroke and is expiration
3 is the alveolar plateau
0 is the downstroke and is the beginning of next inspiration

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41
Q

What are the problems and considerations for prone patients?

A

High IOP
Difficult airway access
Risk optical nerve/retinal damage resulting in blind
Reduced abdominal compliance limiting diaphragm movement
High airway pressure/reduced vent
Neutral neck position
Neutral shoulders and elbow position
Pressure: genitals, breasts, knees, feet, nose and eyes

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42
Q

What are the problems and considerations for patients in lithotomy or Lloyd Davis position?

A
Reduced perfusion to legs
Increased venous return
Pooling/DVT legs
Compartment syndrome legs
Pressure: peroneal, sciatic nerves
Hips should be >90 degrees to body
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43
Q

What are the problems and considerations for patients in lateral position?

A
Care with lower shoulder - axillary roll for brachial plexus
Front and back support at hips to protect and away from abdomen
Support upper arm in neutral position
Lower arm in neutral/safe position 
Pillow between knees
Pad lower foot
Neutral neck 
Limited airway access
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44
Q

What are the problems and considerations for patients in beach chair position?

A
Air embolism
Stroke/brain injury hypoxic 
BP reading inaccurate: head is higher than heart 
Neutral and strapped head/neck
Limited airway access
Ensure eyes well taped
Arm supports padded and at correct height
Sciatic nerve
Pooling/DVT in legs
Reduced venous return
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45
Q

What are the problems or considerations when a patient is head down?

A

Good venous return
Good brain perfusion
Aspiration protection

Reduced ventilation/high pressures
Low FRC, atelectasis, V/Q mismatch
Likely regurgitation
High ICP/IOP

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46
Q

What are the problems and considerations for head up positions?

A

Optimal lung compliance

Low CO
Brain injury risk
DVT/pooling in legs
Air manolis M

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47
Q

What is the range for a cuff pressure monitor?

A

14-24 cmh2o

Keep below 30

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48
Q

Why are uncuffed tubes better in paeds historically?

A

The narrowest point of the paed airway is the cricoid cartilage and this is where the cuff sits. If damage occurs then swelling could occur I.e causing narrowing of the already narrowest point!! Small airway means small swelling causes closure.
In an adult the narrowest point is the cords and the cuff sits below this therefore doesn’t matter so much

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49
Q

Why is PCV best for paediatrics?

A

(12-15cmH2O)
Less trauma risk
Compensate for a leak around an uncuffed tube

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50
Q

What is the chest depth, bpm and joules for CPR?

A

1/3 chest
100 bpm
200J (360 next shock)

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51
Q

What are the differentials to MH?

A

Sepsis
Thyroid storm
Drug use
Inadequate anaesthesia

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52
Q

How do you change gas cylinder?

A
Slowly close valve
Release remaining P and close 
Wipe new cylinder; clean hands
Check content via label
Ensure cylinder restrained
Check regulator valve matches cylinder 
Remove seal and crack cylinder 
Check intact heat detection tag 
Ensure regulator clean and attach it 
Open slowly to full position then closed one quarter turn
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53
Q

What is the process for body fluid exposure and needle stick injury?

A
Report to coordinator
Wash area with soap and water
Obtain testing kit
Complete the form
Test staff members blood
Test patients blood (CONSENT)
Complete lab forms for tests - send
Complete accident form 
Entry in patients notes
(If known HIV+ contact infectious diseases for prophylaxis)
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54
Q

What is an example of isbar?

A
Identify
Self, patient and site 
Situation
What is going on? (DI)
Background 
Clinical background (op, stats) 
Assessment
What do I think problem is
Recommend
What I recommend, assign responsibility, any risks
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55
Q

What are the 10 standard precautions?

A
Hand hygiene
Gloves 
Gown/apron
Face protection (mask, goggle)
Care with sharps
Respiratory hygiene/cough etiquette
Environmental cleaning
Linen
Waste management
Reprocessing reusables
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56
Q

What are three examples of supine?

A

Mastectomy
AAA
Appendix

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57
Q

What are three examples of lateral?

A

Lobectomy
THJR
Nephrectomy

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58
Q

What are three examples of prone?

A

Spinal fusion/decompression
Posterior fossa surgery
Percutaneous stone removal
Achilles’ tendon repair

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59
Q

What are three examples for beach chair?

A

Total shoulder replacement
Craniotomy
ORIF humerus

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60
Q

What are three examples of Lloyd Davis?

A

Hartmans
Anterior resection
Vaginal hysterectomy

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61
Q

What are three examples of lithotomy?

A

Haemorrhoidectomy
TURP
Ureteroscopy

62
Q

Draw a circle circuit.

A

-

63
Q

What is normal Hb?

A

115-155 g/L

64
Q

What is normal ACT?

A

80-120 seconds

>480 for bypass

65
Q

What is normal CVP?

A

0-8 mmHg

66
Q

What is normal glucose?

A

4-8 mmol/L

67
Q

What is normal INR?

A

0.8-1.2

The higher the number the thinner the blood

68
Q

10 things to consider for a known MH case.

A
First on list
TIVA
Remove triggers
Flush machine
Replace consumables
Vapour free filter
Keep high flows for 90min
MH box in theatre
Insert temp probe
Team awareness/plan
69
Q

10 things to consider for blood administration.

A
Consent
X match sent?
Correct form complete
2 person checking
Product correct, in date, viable
Warming
Filter
Document correctly
Rate of infusion
Standard precautions:glove, biowaste
70
Q

Who is susceptible to latex allergy?

A
Healthcare workers
Cerebral palsy
Spina bifida
Atopic people
Allergy to banana, kiwi, avocado
71
Q

What are physical indicators?

A

Part of the steam steriliser

Record readings from inside

72
Q

What are chemical indicators?

A

Patches/tape which are heat or chemical sensitive and change colour when the conditions are met

Eg Bowie Dick in the steam steriliser

73
Q

What are biological indicators?

A

Inoculated strip on non-pathogenic bacteria with similar life conditions to those harmful

74
Q

What are methods of disinfection?

A

Thermal wash:
Jets of hot water/soap

Chemical:
Eg glutaraldehyde

Pasteurisation:
High heat

75
Q

Why hand hygiene before and after glove use?

A

Maybe punctured
Hot and moist hands breed organisms
Can contaminate upon removal

76
Q

When do gloves need changing?

A

Between procedures
Between patients
When defected
When going from dirty to non-contaminated area (patient to drug trolley)

77
Q

Why use gowns or eye protection?

A

If in close contact occurs

When splashes of fluids may occur

78
Q

What are transmission based precautions?

A

To be used in addition to standard precautions when a patient is confirmed or suspected to be colonised by organisms transmissible via contact, droplet or airborne routes

79
Q

What are contact precautions?

A

Spread by direct or indirect contact with patient or environment

MRSA
Scabies
Excessive wound drainage
Noro or rotavirus

80
Q

What are droplet precautions?

A

Spread by close respiratory or mucus membrane contact with respiratory secretions

Flu
Pertussis
Meningococcal

81
Q

What are airborne precautions?

A

Remain infectious over long distances when suspended in air and transmitted by inhaling those airborne particles

Chicken pox
Measles
TB

82
Q

What are isolation precautions?

A

For patients who are immune suppressed

Eg bone marrow transplant patients

83
Q

What is the PPE for contact precautions?

A
Anti microbial soap or alcohol hand rub
Gloves 
Gown
Red linen bag (water soluble liner)
Infectious waste - inside room
Alert receiving area
Disinfect environment
84
Q

What is the PPE for droplet precautions?

A
Normal soap or alcohol hand rub
Gloves
Gown as per standard precautions
Surgical mask on entry and exit
Red linen bag
Infectious waste - inside room
Disinfect environment 
Alert receiving area - pt wear mask
85
Q

What is the PPE for airborne precautions?

A
Normal soap or alcohol hand rub
Gloves
Gown per standard precautions 
Particulate respirator mask (N95) on prior to entry and remove after leaving Normal linen
Normal waste
Alert receiving area - pt wear mask
Normal environment cleaning
86
Q

What is the PPE for protective isolation?

A
Normal soap or alcohol hand rub
Gloves
Gown as per standard
Don't need mask
Normal linen
Normal waste
Alert receiver - pt wear N95 
Clean equipment before use
87
Q

What are some other points to consider in transmission precautions?

A
Minimise entry/exit
Minimum people
Minimum equipment 
Minimise time in the room 
Have a 'clean' helper
88
Q

What is the general rule for where to put on and remove PPE?

A

Put on outside and remove inside prior to leaving
Except for N95 mask
Hand hygiene before exit
If transporting body fluid, wait and remove in sluice room

89
Q

What is important about the N95 mask?

A

It must be fitted correctly

Ensure this prior to entering room and do not remove until exited

90
Q

What is the sequence for PPE on?

A

Gown
Mask
Goggle
Glove

91
Q

What is the sequence for PPE off?

A

Glove (treat outside of glove as dirty, roll into a ball)
Goggles (remove by ends of handles)
Gown (unfasten and pull away from neck touching inside only, turn inside out and roll up)
Mask (only touch the ties)

92
Q

What solution should be used for cleaning?

A

Disinfection only required for contact or droplet precautions
Use presept or chlorwhite

93
Q

What is MRSA?

A

Methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus
Skin and mucus mems
May cause infected skin lesions
Any patient having a procedure should be screened
Decolonisation treatment exists
Hospital elsewhere within 2 years treated as precautions
3 sets of swabs must be clear (24hr between)

94
Q

What is ESBL?

A

Extended spectrum beta-lactamase producing organism
GI inhabitants
Inactivates penicillin
Low risk (standard precautions)
High/mod risk: any incontinence, stoma, catheter, large wounds, trache
Any ESBL klebsiella - high risk

95
Q

What is VRE?

A

Vancomycin resistant enterococci

Intestine inhabitants

96
Q

What is the age of consent?

A

Not defined
Must be competent and have the capacity to do so and it is assumed that near 16 they are
Depends on procedure, risks and maturity of person

97
Q

Why is subtenon better than peribulbar?

A

More appropriate in long axial length and anticoagulated patients

98
Q

How long should hand hygiene take?

A

30s ABHR

60s soap and water

99
Q

What’s the default P setting for jet vent?

A

1 bar or 15 psi

1 bar = 100 kPa
(1 kPa = 10 cmH2O)

100
Q

What’s the amps for a manual nerve stimulator?

A

About 70 mA

30-80 mA in Oxford

101
Q

What can be done if the spinal or epidural for a Caesarian section is not sufficient?

A

Prior to start:
Either re-site an epidural or repeat the spinal. Otherwise try the other technique or GA
Intra op:
N2O, IV opioid, surgical infiltration or GA

102
Q

Why is GTN useful in obstetrics?

A

It relaxes the uterus making surgery easier

103
Q

What are the bougee sizes?

A

14 Fr
10 Fr
6 Fr

104
Q

What is in the sign in?

A

Lead by anaesthetist
Before induction

Confirm pt, procedure, site and side
Allergies
Difficult airway
G&amp;S/blood available
Special equipment available
105
Q

What is in the time out?

A

Lead by surgeon
After position; before incision

Team introductions
Reconfirm pt, procedure, site and side
Correct imaging
Other drugs
Intra-op DVT prophylaxis
Concerns/anticipated events
106
Q

What is in the sign out?

A

Lead by nurse
Before patient leaves

Count correct
Correct procedure recorded
Specimens labelled/sent
Post operative DVT
Equipment issues
Concerns for post-op management
107
Q

What is in the obstetric sign in?

A

Lead by anaesthetist after OT arrival (nurse for cat1)

Patient confirms ID, procedure, consent
Category displayed
NICU called
Allergies
Difficult airway
G&amp;S or blood available
108
Q

What is in the obstetric time out?

A

Lead by surgeon before incision

Team intro
Reconfirm pt and procedure
AB given?
Concerns or anticipated events

109
Q

What is in the obstetric sign out?

A

Lead by nurse before pt leaves

Counts correct
Correct procedure recorded
Specimens labelled/sent
Post-op VTE prophylaxis
Equipment issues
Post-op concerns
110
Q

How do u fit an N95 mask?

A

Wash hands
Cup in hand and place on face - under chin to nose
Top elastic on then bottom one
Mould metal around nose
With hands covering front of mask perform leak test by breathing out sharply and feeling for any leak around nose or sides. Reposition/pinch nose piece and repeat seal test

111
Q

What is the alternate oxygen control?

A

Turns on when there is an electronic gas mixer failure. It has an independent pathway via the vaporiser to the circle with gas being controlled by the alternate flowmeter manually. AA may be useable depending on the nature of the failure.
Also use in an ASD screen fail
Automatic and manual activation

112
Q

What is HIV and the precautions?

A

Human immunodeficiency virus
Transmission via blood/body fluid

Standard precautions

113
Q

What is hepatitis and the precautions?

A

Inflammation of the liver
Viral
Transmission via blood/body fluid or faeces

Standard precautions
Contact for type A incontinence

114
Q

What is CJD and the precautions?

A

Creutzfeldt -Jacob disease
Affects brain tissue
Transmission via contact with CNS tissue
Normal reprocessing; yellow waste; disinfect

Mask, glove, apron with yellow gown over, visor

115
Q

What are the common problems with one lung ventilation?

A

A shunt
Hypoxia

Adjust settings to optimise O2 and CO2
PEEP to lung to optimise
Ongoing hypoxia not appropriate

116
Q

What products cannot be put through the rapid infuser?

A

Platelets and cryoprecipitate

117
Q

What are arytenoids and faucial pillars?

A

Arytenoids are cartilage which help cords move

Faucial pillars are muscle folds which help swallowing

118
Q

What is bipap?

A

Bilevel positive airway pressure

Set level on pressure on inspiration with less pressure on expiration so expiring is easier

119
Q

What do u need for an epidural?

A
Sterile PPE 
Spinal tray
Skin prep
LA, syringe and filter needle 
Saline
2xIV3000 and mefix
120
Q

How is laryngoscope blade cleaned?

A

Disassembled
Thermal wash
Autoclave

121
Q

What is hellp?

A

Associated with pre eclampsia

Haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets

122
Q

How does Das for obstetrics differ?

A

RSI
2+1 for plan A
Plan B is SAD (Max. 2) or face mask
Plan C is CICO (exclude laryngospasm first)

123
Q

What are some factors which determine whether to proceed or wake an obstetric patient?

A
Maternal condition
Fetal condition
Expertise of anaesthetist
Obesity
Surgical risks
Fasting status
124
Q

What are the general steps to Das extubation?

A
Plan
Prepare
Low risk (awake or deep) or high risk algorithm 
(Awake only or postpone/Trache)
Recovery HDU / ICU
125
Q

What does RACE stand for?

A

Rescue/remove
Activate alarm
Confine
Extinguish/evacuate

126
Q

What is allens test?

A

To assess arterial supply prior to cannulation

Hand is held up and clenched for 30 seconds
Both arteries are occluded
Hand open - should appear blanched
Ulnar pressure released while maintaining radial pressure
Colour should return otherwise don’t cannulate this radial artery

127
Q

What is on the anaesthetic assistant MH task card?

A
MH box
Art line
CVL
Soda lime
Restock drugs
128
Q

Trauma set up

A

See notes

129
Q

Obstetric set up

A

See notes

130
Q

Paediatric set up

A

See notes

131
Q

Regional block set up

A

See notes

132
Q

MH case set up

A

See notes

133
Q

Write out the MTP algorithm

A

See notes

134
Q

What is the standard for SOP?

A

Work within SOP
Responsible for the safety of others

ANZCA/NZATS
Promote quality assurance
Practise that protects from harm

135
Q

What is the standard for professionalism?

A

Responsible for own practice
Promote equality

Comply with HDC, treaty and cultural needs

136
Q

What is the standard for roles and responsibilities?

A

Provide dedicated professional, technical and clinical assistance.

Work in partnership
Systematic approach

137
Q

What is the standard for Professional development?

A

Be committed to CPD

Attend education
Member of professional group

138
Q

What are the four nzats standards?

A

Professionalism
SOP
Professional development
Roles and responsibilities

139
Q

What is critical, semi-critical and non-critical?

A

Critical: penetrates the skin, membranes or vascular network or parts normally sterile - STERILISE
Semi: contact with membranes/body fluid - DISINFECT/STERILISE (ours!!)
Non: touched in tact skin only

140
Q

10 considerations for MRSA

A
Last on list
Signs outside OT
Alert PACU
Reduce equipment in room
Reduce people in room
Get a clean helper
PPE on before contact; off before exit 
Yellow waste
Water soluble linen bags
Disinfect environment
141
Q

What is in a suxamethonium ampoule?

A

100mg in 2ml

50mg/ml

142
Q

What is in a atropine ampoule?

A

600mcg in 1ml

143
Q

What is in an adrenaline ampoule?

A

1mg in 1ml

OR

1mg in 10ml (100mcg in 1ml)

144
Q

Why are the blood universals the way they are?

A

RBC is O-
These have no surface antigens for the recipient to attack

Plasma is AB
These have no antibodies that will attack the recipient

145
Q

How long can fluids be in the warmer and what’s the purpose of the outer packet?

A

2 weeks

To show that it hasn’t been tampered with

146
Q

Why is CJD extra concerning and what should be done regarding cleaning?

A

It has prions which are very hard to destroy

Destroy all instruments and consumables

147
Q

What is high vs low level disinfection?

A

Low level cannot kill mycobacterium

High level will kill everything except the spores

148
Q

What’s the process for unconsented emergency blood?

A

Two doctor consent but should attempt to obtain the views of the patient

149
Q

What are the steps to a blood product check prior to transfusing?

A

Two person check:
- Patient ID
Wrist bracelet against the consent and product form
- Consent
Consent is correct and agreed
- Blood product
Correct patient, product, type, batch number, expiry date and looks good

150
Q

What does the guardian of the box do?

A

Signs to receive the box on the card attached
Checks the forms match the ID on the box
Selects products for checking

151
Q

How long do charcoal filters last and what’s the flush time for preparation vs crisis?

A

12 hours

Machine preparation flushing is 10 L/min

Crisis flows are 15 L/min

152
Q

What are the ‘during CPR’ considerations?

A
IV/IO
Airway adjunct
Oxygen
Capnography
Minimise interruption