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Anaesthesia > An. Tech II > Flashcards

An. Tech II Flashcards

1
Q

Define pneumo peritoneum and the potential complications.

A 
Presence of gas in abdominal cavity. 
Vasovagal
Hypercarbia - acidosis
Emphysema
Capnothorax (gas goes into chest)
CVS depression 
High airway pressure
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2
Q

Why is carbon dioxide the gas of choice?

A

Colourless - view
Non-flammable
Non-toxic
Highly soluble - cleared from body

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3
Q

How can high PaCO2 be managed?

A 
Increase MV to expel more
PCV to manage high P
Consider AL to better manage
Can ask for pneumo release
Recruit more alveoli with PEEP
Increase I:E
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4
Q

What is subcutaneous emphysema and pneumo-mediastinum?

A

Emphysema: gas trapped in skin layer
Mediastinum: gas in central area of chest cavity

Causes: misplaced insufflation needle, anatomical defect, high pressure gas dissects tissue

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5
Q

How is the airway and ventilation managed during laparoscopic surgery?

A 
ET tube 
IPPV - PCV
Avoid gastric distension during bag mask
Treat hypercarbia 
Consider PEEP
Don't use nitrous
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6
Q

What are the criteria for LMA use in laparoscopic procedures?

A 
Not overweight
No reflux
Not long surgery 
Experienced surgeon and anaesthetic 
Second generation should be used to allow gastric drainage. Also have higher pressure seal.
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7
Q

Why is shoulder tip pain experienced?

A

Caused by diaphragm irritation
Small amount of gas may remain and irritate nerves on the diaphragm
Pain will pass as gas clears

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8
Q

What is an anterior resection?

A

Removal of rectum

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9
Q

What is a Hartmans procedure?

A

Removal of sigmoid colon with a colostomy

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10
Q

What is third spacing and the impact on fluid management?

A

Fluid shift into epithelial lined spaces - cannot participate in exchange, oedema
Dissected tissue increases permeability during laparotomy
Don’t fluid overload - encourage fluid to stay intravascular, fluid regime for optimal SV, give albumin if low

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11
Q

What are the mechanisms of heat loss during laparotomy?

A 
No behavioural response
Impaired thermoregulation system 
GA vasodilation
Open exposure - evaporation 
Unwarned fluid/irrigation
Dehydration reduces heat distribution
Limited access for external warming
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12
Q

Methods to minimise heat loss.

A 
Pre op warming
Temp probe
Theatre temp
Only anaesthetic if >36
Use fluid warming
Forced air warmers - wrap head
Warm/humid airway gases
Warmed irrigation 
Wound packing
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13
Q

What is an anastomosis?

A

A cross connection between adjacent tubular structures like bowels
Formed so bowels still function
If cannot form then stoma made

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14
Q

Indications for a NG tube

A

Reduce gastric distension to lower regurgitate risk
Prolonged procedures to drain excess
Evaluation of contents
Post-op drugs or feeding

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15
Q

Risks of NG tube

A 
Lung insertion - pneumothorax, spasm
Coiled tube
Infection
Tube entry to brain
Perforated oesophagus or abscess 
Aspiration
Epistaxis
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16
Q

Equipment for NG insertion

A 
Correct sized NG
Lube
Laryngoscope
Magills?
Catheter tip syringe and bag
NG securing tape
Suction at hand
Checking equipment
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17
Q

How can correct placement of NG be checked?

A

Aspirating and pH test (<6)
Appearance of content
X-ray

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18
Q

What is bone cement implantation syndrome?

A

Methyl methacrylate
Causes hypoxia and CVS collapse
Likely from fat/air embolus or cement toxin itself
Cement causes high intramedullary pressure which can force fat into circulation

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19
Q

How are cementing risks minimised?

A 
Introduce prosthesis slowly
Use suction to drain fat and air
Avoid cement where possible 
Thoroughly lovage the shaft 
Use a venting hole 
Use cement restrictors to reduce pressure
Work cement well to remove vasodilator compounds
Use low viscosity cement
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20
Q

What is reaming and the complications?

A

Enlarges the size of the hole leaving smooth sides for ease of prosthesis insertion
Fat embolism syndrome: respiratory, neurological and petechial rash
ARDS

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21
Q

Maximum tourniquet time and risks of time extending?

A

Arm: 90min
Leg: 120min

Pain wind up
Ischemia
Toxic build up
Emboli formation

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22
Q

What can happen on tourniquet release?

A

Sudden bradycardia and hypotension

Washout of metabolic waste causes this

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23
Q

How is tourniquet inflation based on BP?

A

Helps to ensure adequate prevention of blood flow and reduce injury

Arm: systolic + 50
Leg: 2x systolic

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24
Q

What’s the diagnosis of compartment syndrome?

A

Occurs when circulation and tissue in a closed space is compromised by increased pressure resulting in ischemia and necrosis
Needle and transducer into compartment
If within 30mmHg of diastolic pressure it’s confirmed

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25
Q

Cause, risk and treatment of compartment syndrome.

A

Limb injury, limb surgery, tourniquet, crush, mal positioning, hypotension, haemorrhage, oedema, drugs

Test pressure, keep limb at heart level, fasciotomy and splint limb, ensure hydration and oxygen

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26
Q

What is a serious bone infection and ways to minimise?

A

Osteomyelitis

Sterile
AB prophylaxis
Pre op wash
Remove any FB
Stringent wash out
Frequent change dressings
Minimal OT movement, masks
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27
Q

How does Lloyd Davis differ from lithotomy?

A 
Lloyd Davis (trendelenberg with legs apart) is supine with legs flexed and head down 30 degrees. Legs in stirrups
Lithotomy is supine, legs apart, flexed in stirrups but no head down.
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28
Q

Why move patients legs simultaneously with Lloyd Davis and lithotomy?

A

To prevent torsion of the spine and large vessels. Also reduce incidence of muscle, nerve and soft tissue injury. Nerve is lumbosacral plexus

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29
Q

What equipment should be available for a pregnant patient?

A 
DI equipment
RSI
Care with moving and positioning - tilt?
Care with drugs!!
Consider thiopentone and antacids
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30
Q

Why might hypotensive anaesthesia be requested during ear surgery?

A 
Allows bloodless operative field
Improves view
Potent opioid cover, head tilt up, hypotensive drugs
Aim MAP 50-60
Consider art line
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31
Q

How can hypotensive anaesthesia be achieved?

A 
Remifentanyl infusion
Beta blockers
Vasodilators
Labetalol increments
Alpha adrenergic agonist
High dose inhalation agent
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32
Q

Why is nitrous oxide contraindicated in ear surgery?

A

Causes raised middle ear pressure which can damage compromised structures and lift grafts. It can also cause pain, hearing loss and bleeding. This is due to rapid diffusion of nitrous into air contained spaces. Nitrous also has high PONV which could cause post op damage from raising pressures

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33
Q

Why is PONV common after ear surgery and how can it be managed?

A

Ear contains vestibular system which communicates to brain regarding dizziness, balance, nausea and vomiting. Any disturbance can trigger the system. Prophylactic antiemetic should be given during op and charted for post op.
Raised middle ear pressure also contributes as does hypotension.

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34
Q

Why are nasal mucosa preps used prior to surgery?

A

Vasoconstrict vessels to prevent bleeding and therefore enhance the surgical view

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35
Q

What are common Nadal mucosal agents?

A 
Cocaine paste
Adrenaline 
Xylometazoline
Co-phenylcaine
Moffet's solution (cocaine, adrenaline and sodium bicarbonate)
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36
Q

Justify the use of throat packs.

A

Absorb blood, irrigation and secretions
Stop airway irritation
Prevents pooling
Ensure removed!!

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37
Q

Strategies to prevent throat pack retention

A

Stickers
Verbal communication
Nurses count
Accept only when seen

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38
Q

Why is reverse trendelenberg used for nasal surgery?

A

Allows blood and secretions to run out of the space and be collected in throat pack

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39
Q

Why is nasal packing used?

A

Reduce bleeding and stops it from going down throat
Keeps altered structure open and prevents their collapse

Remind patients to mouth breathe

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40
Q

How can increased laryngospam risk be managed in nasal patients?

A

Due to irritation from blood running down throat
Anaesthetist should use suction/catheter under laryngoscope to remove majority
Extubate deep or well awake
PACU should monitor closely, provide continued low suction and keep patients on their side, head down

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41
Q

What are the airway options for laser surgery of the cords?

A

Jet ventilation with low oxygen percent and TIVA
Intermittent bursts to maintain saturation
Laser tube if airway needs securing
30% O2 best choice
SV patient using high pressure oxygen eg opti flow

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42
Q

What are the causes of airway fires?

A

Plastic/rubber ignite under heat
Antiseptic solutions are flammable
Ignition due to oxygen in high conc
Laser heat

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43
Q

Immediate treatment of airway fire

A 
Flood with saline
Reduce/stop oxygen
Remove tube
Ventilate with 100% oxygen
Perform laryngoscope to remove debri
Reintubate or perform tracheostomy
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44
Q

Strategies to minimise fire risk

A 
Correct equipment eg laser tube
Low oxygen
Laser small bursts only
Jug of water
Soaked swabs on surrounded tissue
No skin prep or ensure dried
Adequate smoke evacuator
Pre test laser
Ensure no leak around cuff
If >30% o2 then metal suction and wait 1 min
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45
Q

Describe jet ventilator

A

Device with cannula which connects to the airway
Can select oxygen % and pressure
Trigger allows gas flow
High flow oxygen creates Venturi effect entraining air
Expiration is passive

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46
Q

What are the pre use checks of a jet ventilator

A 
Check oxygen/air contents
Check pressure adjustable and on correct setting
Check trigger function
Check connection to cannula 
Test cannula with gas flow
Check for any leaks
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47
Q

Why is a tonsil post op bleed potentially lethal?

A

Large amount of blood loss - hypovalaemia
Aspiration risk from blood in stomach
Laryngoscope and intubation becomes exceptionally difficult - blood and oedema
Residual anaesthetic effects?

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48
Q

What are the anaesthetic considerations for a bleeding tonsil?

A 
Get help - senior
RSI 
DI trolley, video scope, f/o
Gastric tube remove stomach blood once secure
Consider residual anaesthetic 
Lots of suction - consider catheter
Hb check
Consider intubation in left lateral/head down
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49
Q

What is the surgical tonsil position?

A 
(Rose position)
Supine with bolster under shoulders to extend head and neck 
Optimal view
Allows boyles Davis gag
Reduced secretions down airway
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50
Q

What is the post tonsillectomy position?

A

(Side lying position)
Left lateral and head down
Facilitate drainage and allows visual cue of bleeding
Reduces airway irritation

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51
Q

What’s a coroners clot?

A

Retained clot in nasopharynx which can be aspirates and close off the airway. Potential from any ENT procedure. Must be checked via laryngoscope and deemed clear

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52
Q

What are the anaesthetic consideration for FB in lungs?

A 
Rigid bronchoscope
Inhalation induction 100% O2
Topicalise cords
Jet vent or intubate
Consider drying agent
Allow SV where possible 
IPPV only if obstruction in lower airway
53
Q

Why are trauma patients considered unfasted?

A

Sympathetic stimulation from high stress causes a halt in the parasympathetic ie digestion
Opioids delay gastric emptying

54
Q

How should patient belongings be handled if police involved?

A

Remove with gloves
Separate sealed, labelled bags
Details regarding where each item located
Ensure not further damaged

55
Q

Why must care be taken inserting nasal devices in a head injury?

A

In case of a base of skull fracture
Could allow device to intrude into brain tissue
Any other injuries which may have disrupted the normal nasal path

56
Q

Why must BP and IV be kept away from previous breast surgery side?

A 
Always if have had node clearance
Puts patient at risk of lymphoedema 
BP will change fluid placement and compromise drainage
IV fluid will collect in limb
Keep away - consider feet/legs
57
Q

What must be considered when arms are out on boards?

A

No more than 90 degrees
Brachial plexus injury
Strain/tear shoulder structures

58
Q

What are the risks of long surgeries?

A 
Normothermia
Pressure injury
DVT
Cuff pressure
Eye care
Fluid management
Rotate monitoring
59
Q

Why might papaverine be used in plastics?

A

Can be applied directly to vessels to prevent then spasming thereby allowing careful and precise surgery. Ensures perfusion at site so improving tissue survival

60
Q

What is the TURP solution and why?

A

Glycine 1.5% in water

Dis tends bladder and irrigates dissected tissue away

61
Q

What is the treatment of TURP syndrome?

A 
Stop surgery
Stop fluids
Secure airway if needed
Treat seizures
Give furosemide
Check Na and Hb
Give hypertonic saline and diuretic 
Admit to ICU/HDU
62
Q

What is the common urology AB?

A

Gentamicin slow IV
It’s an aminoglycoside gram negative

Often followed by cefuroxine 8 hourly

63
Q

What is artheroscleroma?

A

Plaques or lesions on arterial walls causing narrow and hard wall
Usually from injury which gets infected
Plaques may grow and impede flow

Risk: MI, IHD, sudden death, stroke,

64
Q

Why is arterial clamping times?

A

Prevents blood flow so prolonged time could cause ischemia and tissue death. Timer helps to prevent

Usually up to 1 hour

65
Q

What are the anaesthetic considerations during clamping?

A

Ensure cardiac output monitoring
Don’t heat lower body
May get proximal hypertension
Metabolic acidosis may develop - ABG and MV inc
Begin fluid to increase CVP to prep for de-clamp
Monitor urine as renal failure possible

66
Q

What are the anaesthetic considerations at de-clamping?

A 
Reverse heparin 
Prepare for cvs instability 
Watch for sudden hypotension- adrenaline 
Manage effects of metabolic wastes 
Potential for bleeding
67
Q

How is perfusion still maintained during aortic clamping?

A

Prescribed time
Bypass and cannulation flow back into femoral vessels
Hypothermia preserves by slowing down metabolism

68
Q

What are the anaesthetic options for a carotid?

A

Cervical plexus block with sedation

GA with ET - perfusion monitor

Art line

69
Q

Why is warming reduced during clamping?

A

Can increase metabolism thereby increasing ischemia

Non-moving circulation increases burns risk

70
Q

What’s an AV fistula and what care must be taken with monitoring?

A

Arteriovenous fistula
Connection between artery and vein for haemodialysis
BP away as could cause clot to form or rupture
Cannulate away to prevent damage

71
Q

What are the conditions of a cardio version?

A

Must have a TOE or on anticoagulant for certain time. NIBP and sats. Sedate
AF, atrial flutter

72
Q

Three reasons for elective Caesarian

A

Placenta pre via
Pre eclampsia
Genital herpes

73
Q

What may cause an emergency Caesar?

A 
Irregular fetal HR
Prolapsed cord
Amniotic fluid embolus 
PPH 
Poor contractions won't open cervix
Baby position
Sick mother
74
Q

What’s the positioning for a pregnant patient and why?

A

Left lateral tilt
Baby weight compresses inferior vena cava and aorta causing CVS compromise
Reduces onset of early hypotension following spinal

75
Q

Why are pregnant women high risk airways?

A

Pressure on organs creates reflux
High progesterone delays gastric emptying
Higher oxygen demand due to baby metabolism also
Reduced compliance from baby
Reduced oesophageal sphincter time
Total body water increases causing oedema
Overweight and large breasts

76
Q

What are the laryngoscopes for obstetrics?

A

Kessel: 110 manipulate around chest

Polio: 135 as above

Video laryngoscope

77
Q

What is Mendelson syndrome?

A

Peptic-aspiration pneumonia

Chemical pneumonitis caused by aspiration during anaesthesia particularly in pregnancy

78
Q

What is the recommended ranitidine dose for obstetrics patients?

A

150mg oral 12 and 2 hour pre op

79
Q

How does syntocin work?

A

Stimulates uterine smooth muscle to contract by triggering calcium release
Rhythmic contractions of upper uterus
Stimulates cells surrounding mammary alveoli facilitating breast feeding

80
Q

Differentiate neonate, infant and child.

A

Neonate less than 4 weeks

Infant less than 1 year

Child 1-12 year

81
Q

How is temperature regulated and maintained in infants?

A

Achieve heat by metabolism of brown fat. This is found on back, shoulders legs and thoracic vessels. High amount of energy used in process. Prem babies don’t have brown fat

82
Q

Why is fluid balance so important in paeds?

A

Have small total volume so overload easily

High water turnover meaning daily losses are high. A small loss can become dehydration

83
Q

What is the paed fasting guidelines?

A

Clear fluid including electrolyte drink: 2hr
Breast milk: 4hr
Food and formula: 6hr

84
Q

Why is dead space important in paeds?

A

Volume that doesn’t participate in gas exchange
Small TV so dead space makes big difference
Can cause inc PaCO2 and if too large the CO2 won’t be able to clear at all
Minimal dead space needed

85
Q

What are the formulas for tube size, tube depth and body weights?

A

Age/4+4

Lip: age/2+12
Nostril: age/2+15

Agex2+9

86
Q

Why extubate paediatrics deep?

A

High rate of laryngospam due to irritation

Remove tube deep but breathing prevents this from happening

87
Q

What is a peribulbar block?

A

Needle through skin near inferior orbital rim
Needle advanced parallel to globe and injected
Pressure device helps spread local

88
Q

What is a subtenon block?

A

Conjunctiva is lifted and incised and dissected between sclera and capsule
Needle advanced following globe shape and injected

89
Q

What are complications of eye blocks?

A 
Perforated globe
Trauma
Nerve damage
Bleeding
Iv injection
Chemosis 
Central retinal artery occlusion
Infection
90
Q

What is IOP important in open eye injury?

A

A raise in IOP may cause extrusion of humerus, bleeding or lens prolapse. Normal activities may cause a rise
May cause a reflex where bradycardia results

91
Q

What is an occulocardiac reflex?

A

Relates to parasympathetic activation from traction or compression on the eye and causes bradycardia

92
Q

How are burn severity classified?

A

By which skin layer is affected and the appearance

1-4

93
Q

What is the rule of mines?

A 
Method to assess surface area of burn for a second and third degree burn 
4.5% each side head
18% front trunk (9 top/9 bottom) 
18% back trunk (9top/9 bottom)
9% each arm
18% each leg 
1% genitals
94
Q

What are the anaesthetic consideration for burns patient who inhaled smoke?

A 
Assume carbon monoxide poisoning
High flows O2
Low TV and high PEEP
Don't overdo fluid
Watch for bronchospasm 
Prepare for DI 
manage temp
95
Q

What are options for tube tie and monitoring with burns?

A

Don’t monitor over burns alternatives: ear probe, art line

Tube: tie with suture to incisors, maxillary screws, bandage face first, orthodontic bracket

96
Q

Why aren’t depolarising relaxants used in burns?

A

Cause skeletal muscle to release potassium
Burns cause skin release of potassium resulting in hyperkalaemic state already
Can cause arrest

97
Q

What are common problems with burns patients?

A

Dehydration, hyperkalaemic, oedema, hypotension, hypovalaemia, hypothermia, infection, contractures, systemic inflammatory response syndrome and multiple organ dysfunction syndrome

98
Q

What is the purpose of bypass?

A

Replaces function of heart and lungs while heart is arrested to allow optimal surgical field

99
Q

Why is heparin used on bypass?

A

Ensure clots cannot form when blood is in contact with the surfaces of the bypass machine and tubing

100
Q

What test can measure heparin and the desired levels?

A

Act: activated clotting time
>480secs for bypass
Assess baseline prior to bypass, ensure correct amount for bypass and tested again to ensure returned to normal

101
Q

What is the antagonist of heparin and how does it work?

A

Protamine

Binds to heparin resulting in harmless salt so cannot block the clotting cascade anymore

102
Q

What are the purposes of cardioplegia?

A

High in potassium
Arrests the heart
Myocardial cooling which preserves the tissue
Added sodium bicarbonate
Reduces ionic disturbances and acidosis which occurs from ischemia

103
Q

What are the risks of a sternotomy?

A 
Infection
Arrhythmia - stimulus 
Stern all instability - move when cough etc
Brachial plexus injury from retraction
Blood pressure surge - stimulus 
Lung or heart trauma
104
Q

How can sternotomy risks be reduced?

A

Deep anaesthesia
Potent opioid cover
Deflate lungs (vent off)

105
Q

Why are patients cooled during bypass and what temperature?

A

Reduces myocardial metabolism to preserve tissue health during ischemia
Also other body parts
28-34 degrees

106
Q

Why are cardiac patients kept intubated and ventilated post op?

A

High risk complications

Ventilator assists venous return and reduces work of the heart and strain from stress

107
Q

What is tamponade and the treatment?

A

Fluid or gas accumulates in pericardium compressing the heart thereby reducing its ability to fill and contract
Ultrasound guided needle aspiration
Surgical thoracotomy

108
Q

What are four inotropes used in cardiac surgery?

A

Dobutamine: increase CO and treat shock
Noradrenaline: treat severe hypotension
Digoxin: treat arrhythmia
Calcium: improve contractility

109
Q

Describe swan ganz including position and methods of measurement.

A 
Pulmonary artery catheter
Floats in PA
Can detect heart failure, sepsis, drug effects, mixed venous oximetry, CO, RA P, RV P and filling P of LA. 
Can be transduced to show waveform
Thermodilution
110
Q

What is quiet lung surgery?

A

Collapse of operative lung using DLT

Optimal surgical field and reduces complications

111
Q

What equipment is needed to place a DLT?

A

F/O with accessories - guide and confirm placement
Clamp - shut each tube to check placement with auscultation and chest rise
Syringes - 3ml bronchial
Stethoscope - listen

112
Q

What is the purpose of a chest drain in cardio-thoracic surgery?

A

Allows blood, fluid and gas to escape
Keeps clear field
Prevents post op TP or tamponade
Helps reinflate collapsed lung

113
Q

What is the problem with a cheat drain disconnect?

A

Air may enter pleural space causing pneumothorax and contamination

Keep clamped and take an X-ray if disconnected

114
Q

What is the significance of raised ICP in head injury?

A

May indicate internal bleed and pressure on the brain

Emergency surgery

115
Q

What is coughing avoided in neurosurgery?

A

Increases venous pressure which increase ICP which could cause injury or undo surgery

116
Q

What’s a first degree heart block?

A

Delay in conduction between atria and ventricles

Prolonged PR

117
Q

What is a second degree mobitz type one ECG?

A

The PR interval increases until a QRS complex randomly is missed

118
Q

What is a second degree mobitz type two block?

A

PR interval remains consistent but some QRS are blocked

119
Q

What is a third degree heart block?

A

No conduction between atria and ventricles
Regular P and regular QRS but no relationship
Random complexes

120
Q

What are ventricular ectopics?

A

Wide, bizarre QRS complex

121
Q

What are premature atrial ectopics?

A

Ectopic P wave before next sinus beat

P looks different

122
Q

What is a junctional rhythm?

A

P wave either not seen, inverted or hidden by QRS

Comes from junctional area and not normal SA node

123
Q

What is a supraventricular tachycardia?

A

Normal QRS with a rate above 160bpm

124
Q

What is an atrial flutter and atrial fibrillation?

A

Flutter: atrial rate around 300bpm with saw toothed appearance, regular QRS

Fib: 400bpm with wavy line, irregular QRS

125
Q

What is VT and VF?

A

VT: wide QRS, P not seen, may be pulse less

VF: no obvious complexes, wavy line

126
Q

What rhythms are shockable?

A

VF and VT

127
Q

What is precordial thump?

A

Useful in pulse less VT if defibrillator not available

Single sharp blow to mid sternum

128
Q

Why use a swan ganz in cardiac?

A

Diagnose heart failure, sepsis, shock, tamponade

Drug therapy analysis

Analysis of each section of the heart

129
Q

What is dobutamine used for in cardiac?

A

Treatment of acute heart failure brought on from surgery

Beta1 agonist

Anaesthesia (8 decks)

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