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Semester 2 > Exotics and wildlife > Flashcards

Exotics and wildlife Flashcards

1
Q

name 1

A

Trachea

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2
Q

name 2

A

lungs

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3
Q

name 3

A

oesophagus

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4
Q

name 4

A

stomach

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5
Q

name 5

A

gall bladder

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6
Q

name 6

A

liver

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7
Q

name 7

A

colon

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8
Q

name 8

A

testies

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9
Q

name 9

A

kidneys

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10
Q

name 10

A

ureters

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11
Q

name 11

A

coprodeum

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12
Q

12

A

urodeum

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13
Q

13

A

proctodeum

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14
Q

14

A

tail

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15
Q

15

A

vent

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16
Q

16

A

pelvis

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17
Q

17

A

urinary bladder

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18
Q

18

A

small intestines

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19
Q

19

A

spleen

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20
Q

20

A

pancreas

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21
Q

21

A

heart

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22
Q

22

A

thyroid

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23
Q

1

A

coracoid process

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24
Q

2

A

tarsales/ metatarsals

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25
Q

3

A

carpals,metacarpals,phalanges

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26
Q

4

A

acromion process

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27
Q

5

A

scapula

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28
Q

6

A

ulna

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29
Q

7

A

radious

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30
Q

1

A

scapula

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31
Q

2

A

illium

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32
Q

3

A

coracoid process

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33
Q

4

A

acromion process

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34
Q

1

A

small intestine

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35
Q

2

A

spleen

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36
Q

3

A

colon

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37
Q

4

A

kidneys

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38
Q

5

A

cloacal vent

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39
Q

6

A

hemopenis sacs

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40
Q

7

A

bladder

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41
Q

8

A

ducts defernds

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42
Q

9

A

testies

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43
Q

10

A

adreanal glands

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44
Q

11

A

gall bladder

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45
Q

12

A

liver

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46
Q

13

A

heart

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47
Q

14

A

thyroid

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48
Q

15

A

lungs

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49
Q

16

A

parathyroid

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50
Q

17

A

trechea

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51
Q

18

A

stomach

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52
Q

1

A

crrvical vertbrae

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53
Q

2

A

radius

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54
Q

3

A

ulna

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55
Q

4

A

thorcolumbar vertebre

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56
Q

5

A

tibia

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57
Q

6

A

fibula

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58
Q

7

A

sacrum

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59
Q

8

A

caudal vertebre

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60
Q

1

A

trachea

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61
Q

2

A

vent

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62
Q

3

A

cloaca

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63
Q

4

A

ureters

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64
Q

5

A

kidneys

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65
Q

6

A

testes

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66
Q

7

A

small intestine

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67
Q

8

A

pancreas

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68
Q

9

A

gall bladder

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69
Q

10

A

spleen

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70
Q

11

A

stomach

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71
Q

12

A

liver

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72
Q

13

A

oesophagous

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73
Q

14

A

left lung

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74
Q

15

A

right lung

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75
Q

16

A

heart

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76
Q

17

A

thyroid

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77
Q

1

A

ceres

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78
Q

2

A

nostrils

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79
Q

3

A

beak/bill

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80
Q

4

A

crevical vertebrae

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81
Q

5

A

coracoid

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82
Q

6

A

clavicle

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83
Q

7

A

ribs

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84
Q

8

A

keel/sternum

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85
Q

9

A

patella

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86
Q

10

A

tibia

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87
Q

11

A

phalanges

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88
Q

13

A

hypotarsus

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89
Q

14

A

fibula

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90
Q

15

A

femur

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91
Q

16

A

pubis

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92
Q

17

A

ischium

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93
Q

18

A

pygostyle

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94
Q

19

A

caudal vertebrea

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95
Q

20

A

illium

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96
Q

21

A

fused thorasic vertebre

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97
Q

22

A

humerus

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98
Q

23

A

radius

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99
Q

24

A

metacarbles

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100
Q

25

A

4th digit

101
Q

26

A

phalanges

102
Q

27

A

adula

103
Q

28

A

fused carples

104
Q

29

A

ulna

105
Q

30

A

scapula

106
Q

12

A

hallux

107
Q

1

A

aorta

108
Q

2

A

gonad

109
Q

3

A

kidney

110
Q

4

A

Proventriculus

111
Q

5

A

spleen

112
Q

6

A

small intestine

113
Q

7

A

large intestine

114
Q

8

A

cloaca

115
Q

9

A

gizzard

116
Q

10

A

duodenum

117
Q

11

A

pnacreas

118
Q

12

A

liver

119
Q

13

A

heart

120
Q

14

A

crop

121
Q

15

A

oesophagus

122
Q

1

A

left lung

123
Q

2

A

stomach

124
Q

3

A

adrenal gland

125
Q

4

A

left kidney

126
Q

5

A

ovary

127
Q

6

A

descending colon

128
Q

7

A

left uterine horn

129
Q

8

A

ceacum

130
Q

9

A

jejunum

131
Q

10

A

liver

132
Q

11

A

heart

133
Q

1

A

decending colon

134
Q

2

A

ovary

135
Q

3

A

right kidney

136
Q

4

A

liver

137
Q

5

A

right lung

138
Q

6

A

heart

139
Q

7

A

stomach

140
Q

8

A

caecum

141
Q

9

A

duodenum

142
Q

10

A

right uterine horn

143
Q

1

A

occipital bone

144
Q

2

A

atlas

145
Q

3

A

axis

146
Q

4

A

cervical vertebrae

147
Q

5

A

throrasic vertebrae

148
Q

6

A

lumbar vertebre

149
Q

7

A

ilium

150
Q

8

A

sacrum

151
Q

9

A

pubis

152
Q

10

A

ischium

153
Q

11

A

caudal vertebrae

154
Q

12

A

tarsal

155
Q

13

A

metatarsal

156
Q

14

A

phalanges

157
Q

15

A

phalanges

158
Q

16

A

carpals

159
Q

17

A

olecranon process

160
Q

18

A

fibula

161
Q

19

A

femur

162
Q

20

A

ulna

163
Q

21

A

radius

164
Q

22

A

humerus

165
Q

23

A

sternum

166
Q

24

A

scapula

167
Q

25

A

nasal bone

168
Q

26

A

maxila

169
Q

27

A

zygomatic bone

170
Q

28

A

frontal bone

171
Q

29

A

parietal bone

172
Q

What is the correct name for the top half of a chelonian

A

carapace

173
Q

where do you take a blood sample in a snake

A

venbtral coccygeal

174
Q

what type of light provides essential UVA/UVB wavelengthes for reptiles

A

fluoresenct tubes

175
Q

what is the most common zoonotic diseases from captive reptiles

A

salmonella

176
Q

reptiles and amphibians can are described as:
a.ectothermic
b.Endothermic
c. warm blooded
D.ectodermic

A

A

177
Q

the lower half of a chelonians shell is called?

A

Plastron

178
Q

how many toes does a rabbit have on its forelimb

A

5

179
Q

what is the space between the incisors and molars of a rodent

A

diastema

180
Q

what are caecatrophes

A

soft pellets

181
Q

what animals belong to the myomorpha

A

mouse like
rats, mice, hamster

182
Q

what aminals belong to the caviomorpha

A

cavy like.
guinea pigs, chinchilla

183
Q

what animals belongs to the sciuromorpha

A

squirl like
squirrels, chipmunks, prairie dogs

184
Q

what causes an increse risk of hypothermia in small mammles

A

they have a small surface area

185
Q

what causes a rats teeth to appear yellow/ orange

A

iron deposits

186
Q

what the the difference between a dog and rat spinal column

A

A dog has 7 lumbar vertebrae – a rat has 6.

A dog has 3 sacral vertebrae (fused) – a rat has 4 (fused).

Rats have more coccygeal vertebrae than dogs – 27 to 31. Dogs usually have around 21 (20-23).

187
Q

Please state 5 housing considerations for Syrian hamsters.

A
  • Hamsters must be housed singularly - The cage should have solid walls if wire walls, they can climb and entrap feet or fall.
  • There should be plenty enrichment
    – as semi fossorial tunnels for exploration and privacy
  • Wheel provided for exercise
  • Environmental temperature 19-23c
  • Bedding should be deep to allow burrowing – peat, wood shavings etc
  • Cotton wool bedding should not be used as may entangle limbs
  • food and water must be checked and refreshed daily (ceramic bowl and dropper bottle)
  • Bedding must be checked and spot cleaned daily as hamsters will hoard food; can go moldy
188
Q

what is a semi-prehensile tail and what small mammal has one

A

mouse- they can partially support the animal

189
Q

what is a fur slip in chinchillas

A

when the fur detaches.

190
Q

please state the differences you would expect to see in a female vs a male chinchilla

A

Male chinchillas have a large gap between the genitalia and the anus while female chinchillas only have a small space.Both male and female chinchillas have three pairs of nipples.

191
Q

Please state two common blood sampling sites used in rabbits.

A

Cephalic vein (I/V)Saphenous (I/V)Jugular vein (I/V)

192
Q
  1. Describe FOUR ways that the avian skeleton is adapted for flight.
A

Hollow bones filled with air spaces
Air sacs
Bones are fused together for strength and support
Keel bone allows for large muscle attachment.

193
Q
  1. Explain why the avian neck is longer and more flexible than a Mammals.
A

To allow preening (flexibility)
Aids in flight
These animals may head bob when they walk or during courtship.

194
Q
  1. ‘Many of the larger bones of the Avian Skeleton are ‘Pneumatic’ explain what this means.
A

Hollow bones which can be fused together to create a lighter body weight for flight and allow gas exchange using air sacs

195
Q
  1. What is the function of the ‘KEEL’ in the skeleton of an avian?
A

For muscle attachment (pectoral) to aid strong flight muscles.

196
Q
  1. What is the function of the ‘Coracoid’ bone in the avian skeleton.
A

The coracoid is a stout strong bone that connects the cranial edge of the sternum to the shoulder joint complex

197
Q
  1. Give THREE examples of different shapes of feet for a range of birds and give an example of what each shape is used for.
A

Perching - digits can flex and extend – psittacines
grasp pray – large talons and powerful phalanges - raptors
wading – long phalanges – wading species such as Heron
webbed – water foul such as ducks for swimming

198
Q
  1. List FIVE bones that are found on the wing of a bird.
A

Radius
Ulna
Carpal bones
Carpo-metacarpus
Digits

199
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the ‘Craniofacial hinge’ that is found in the head of a bird?
A

Found Between the upper beak and the skull. This increases the mobility of the beak during feeding.

200
Q
  1. What is the ‘Pygostyle’ of a bird?
A

The caudally placed fused vertebrae which support for tail feathers & rudder

201
Q
  1. What is the Enzyme that some birds have in their saliva?
A

Birds lack digestive enzymes in the saliva hence why they have a gizzard to mechanically breakdown food. Saliva acts to lubricate food.

202
Q
  1. How do birds break down their food in the Oral Cavity?
A

Tearing meat
Cracking seeds
Straining feed particles
Spearing and probing

203
Q
  1. The birds Oesophagus is thin walled and distensible. Why?
A

Lined with stratisfied epithelium containing mucous glands – this helps futher lubricate food. Aids in peristalsis – smooth muscle wave like movement to ensure food reaches stomach(s).

204
Q
  1. Give at least THREE functions of the Crop?
A
  • Stores food
  • prevents birds having to feed multiple times a day (safety from predators)
  • reduces feeding time
  • lubricate feedstuffs
  • can be used to regurgitate crop milk to feed young (in some species)
205
Q

ame and describe the function of a birds two stomachs

A

Proventriculus
* Glandular stomach.
* Contains gastric enzymes
* Initiation of chemical digestion.
* Indigestible material regurgitated into pellets in raptors.

Gizzard
* Muscular stomach, made up of striated muscle allowing the grinding of food.
* Store of grit which aids in digestion
* Varies depending on bird size and species
* Seed and insect eating birds have stronger muscles in the gizzard.
* Some birds have no gizzard (carnivorous birds)

206
Q
  1. Why do captive birds have to be fed ‘Grit’ to aid their digestion
A

During digestion, the muscles of the gizzard contact, which causes any stones that have been ingested to rub against each other. This friction grinds the food eaten by the bird into smaller, more manageable particles

207
Q
  1. Name Two species of birds that have a Gall Bladder.
A

Ducks and Geese – a lot of bird species lack a gall bladder ie pigeons, doves, parrots.

208
Q
  1. In the Large Intestine, what is the purpose of the Caecae. What kinds of birds have them better developed than others?
A

Birds who eat plant material (have a high fibre diet) have more developed Caecae (Caecum). This is the sight of bacterial fermentation of fibre sources.

209
Q
  1. What happens to the birds Urine before it is expelled from the body?
A

Urine is known in birds as urates. Before urates are expelled from the body they are combined with faecal matter. It is then expelled via the cloaca along with faeces. It appears white and chalky and faeces should appear brown in colour.

210
Q
  1. Describe the location of the Choanae (singular choana).
A

Choana is the area within the anterior mandible that splits the respiratory tract from the digestive tract.

211
Q
  1. State the two main anatomical structures of the Urinary System and state the major component of nitrogenous waste excreted.
A

Urates – (urea) nitrogenous waste material.

Main components of the urinary system – kidneys and cloaca (no true urinary bladder)

212
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the Rods and Cones in the retina of a birds eye?
A

Rod cells are light-sensitive and more dominant in nocturnal birds like Owls that need good low-light vision.

Cone cells are used for daylight color vision and are the dominant photoreceptor in most bird species.

213
Q
  1. Explain why the position of the birds Eyes in the head will vary from species to species.
A

An evolutionary adaptation enables birds to have a wider field of view, allowing them to scan their surroundings quickly and detect potential prey or predators. Depending on the species and their behaviours will depend on the eye position.

214
Q

Identify the key differences of digestion in rabbits compared to canines.

A

Rabbits are monogastric herbivores meaning they are hindgut fermenters. Canines are omnivores and have a relatively short GI tract – digestion in mainly main up of mechanical and enzymatic digestion.
Mechanical digestion in the mouth – rabbits grind laterally, dogs ‘chew’ using large masseter muscles.
Dogs have a relatively short GI tract – The rabbit GI tract is long in comparison.
In dogs Digestion begins during mastication via enzymes secreted by the salivary glands . These enzymes are found throughout the digestive tract and continue to break down food. In rabbits’ food is initially ground down mechanically using the cheek teeth and mixed with saliva. In the stomach only soluble fibers can be digested enzymatically. Long indigestible fibers are passed into the caecum to undergo bacterial fermentation.
Rabbits have a well-developed Caecum in order to ferment plant material dogs do not possess a Caecum
Canines pass faeces via the rectum. Rabbits also pass faeces via the rectum but carry out coprophagy. Caecotrophs are nutrient dense pellets eaten directly from the anus – they undergo digestion a second time in order to extract essential vitamins and amino acids.

215
Q

Describe the key differences between the feline and avian skeleton.

A

Instead of forelegs the birds have wings
* Adapted with reduced number of bones (fused bones)
* Fusion of some bones compared to felines
* Thinner bones. Internal bony braces maintain strength
* Hollow bones (pneumatic) filled with air spaces
* Air sacs extend into some bones (example humerous)
* Keel adapted for muscle attachments for flight in avians compared to felines.
* Birds have a keratinised beak no teeth, which is lighter than the feline jaw and associated dentition.
* Synsacrum is fused in avians to support landing, this is not the case with felines.
* Uncinate process on ribs for muscle attachments and aid respiration.

216
Q

where do you take a blood sample from a tortoise

A

dorsal tail vein

217
Q
  1. What questions would you ask the owner about the rabits eating habits?
A
  • What is the current diet?
  • Is fresh water supplies and how is it given (bowls/bottle)
  • Is there hay supplies/how much
  • How much concentrate is given daily, is it all eaten?
  • How much fruit and veg is given daily?
  • How many rabbits in the hutch/enclosure?
  • Has the rabbit been seen eating?
  • Weight, when was it last checked?
  • Any changes in behaviour-lethargy, signs of pain or distress
218
Q
  1. What is the risk of the rabbit that hasn’t been eating?
A
  • Goes into gut stasis if anorexia prolonged. This can be very serious. This can happen if the rabbit hasn’t eaten in more than 12 hours.
219
Q
  1. What is the dental formula for a rabbit?
A
  • I 2/1 C0/0 PM3/2 M3/3 x2 =28
220
Q
  1. What is a suitable diet for a rabbit?
A
  • Fibre-should make up the majority of the diet-fresh grass or hay (a bundle the same size of the rabbit daily as a guideline)
  • Minimum amount of concentrate (1 egg cup a day)
  • Fresh fruit and veg for example broccoli, cabbage, cauliflower, Spinach, parsley
  • Muesli diets can encourage selective feeding so best to avoid.
221
Q
  1. Describe what caecotrophy is?
A
  • Passing of food through alimentary canal twice, soft pellets taken directly from anus and night. This process maximises absorption of nutrients and bacterial fermentation.
222
Q
  1. What dental adaption do rabbits have?
A
  • Open rooted teeth, teeth grow constantly through their lives. Need to ensure suitably worn down by eating lots of grass or hay.
223
Q
  1. What foods could be used to entice a rabbit to eat?
A
  • Dandelions, broccoli, spinach, parsley
224
Q
  1. What nursing intervention could we carry out to ensure the rabbit didn’t go into gut stasis and how would we carry this out?
A
  • Provide the rabbit with food via syringe or tube using a slurry of rabbit food or using a specific recovery diet for rabbits.
  • Thick mixture 1:1, minimum amount should be 10mls per Kg every 4 hours (5x a day)
225
Q

a. State five possible signs of dehydration in the guinea pig (5 marks)

A
  • Fluffed up (1).
  • Sunken eyes (1).
  • Skin tenting (1).
  • Hard abdomen (1).
  • Tacky mucous membranes (1).
226
Q

b. State the most likely route for administering fluid therapy in the case of mild dehydration in guinea pigs. (1 mark)

A
  • Sub-Cutaneous (1).
227
Q

c. Describe what nursing interventions you would implement if the guinea pig is diagnosed with hypothermia. (4 marks)

A
  • Provide the guinea pig with an additional heat source (1). Ensure the heat source cannot be chewed and result in injury, electrocution or burn the animal (1).
  • Ensure the correct environmental temperature is appropriate for this species (1).
  • Monitor the animal for any signs of hyperthermia to ensure the animal does not become too hot (1).
228
Q

b. Describe what nutritional advise you would give to a new rabbit owner regarding appropriate feeding. (7 marks)

A
  • Fibre should make up the majority of the diet (80%) (1) – fresh hay and/or grass (1). They should be fed a bundle of hay the size of the rabbit per day as a guide (1).
  • The rabbit should be supplemented with vegetables making up 15% of the diet (1). Such as cabbage, cauliflour, carrot, spinach, broccoli, parsley (1).
  • A small amount of concentrate/pellets should make up 5% of the diet (1). Always follow manufacturers guidelines OR RSPCA states 1 egg cup per kg of rabbits weight as a guide (1).
229
Q

a. Describe how you would restrain a Chinchilla for a general examination. (4 marks)

A
  • Dim the lights, reduce noise
  • Pick up calmly and quickly
  • minimal restraint-one hand around the pectoral girdle behind front legs
  • the other cupped underneath the hind legs supporting the chinchilla’s weight
  • hold firmly.
230
Q

b. Explain what information you would provide to this owner on housing their chinchilla. (10 marks)

A
  • Space requirements – minimal enclosure should be greater than 2 cubic metres
  • They need vertical height to climb
  • Will often gnaw through wood
  • Their fur damages easily so at least some of the cage bottom should be wire to prevent build up of moisture /make sure there is plenty of deep litter
  • Provide a nest box lined with hay or straw.
  • Provide a dust bath – 30 minutes a day to keep fur in good condition.
  • Environmental temp 10-15 / humidity 70%
  • Part of a branch to chew, ramps to climb and a drainpipe in which to hide in times of stress add to their quality of life
  • Can be kept singly, pairs, or mixed-sex groups
  • To prevent breeding neuter both sexes. - males at 5-6 months, females at 6-7months
231
Q

c. When handling chinchillas you have to be very careful. State what chinchillas are susceptible to with incorrect handling. (1 mark)

A
  • Fur slip.
232
Q
  1. Describe the structure of the avian lung. (6 marks)
A

 Small compared to mammalian.
 Compact and more rigid than mammalian
 Primary, secondary and tertiary bronchi (parabronchi)
 The parabronchi make up the bulk of lung tissue and this is where gas exchange takes place.
 No diaphragm to assist with breathing unlike mammalian species.
 Lungs are attached to vertebrae and ribs, bright red and very vascular and inelastic.

233
Q
  1. Explain the function of the avian cloaca. (3 marks)
A

 Connects the digestive tract, the urinary tract and the genital tract, allowing the elimination of waste via one orifice.
 Copradeum – largest part where the rectum empties
 Urodeum – ureters and genital ducts empty.
 Proctodeum – shortest part empties into the vent controlled by the external syphincter. B Lymphocytes are produced here in relation to humoral immunity.
 Vent external opening of the cloaca where the vent is located. Can differ in shape.

234
Q
  1. Which bone is part of the pectoral girdle. (1 mark)
A

a. Coracoid

235
Q
  1. Which of the following is most commonly used for provided intravenous fluid therapy to a rabbit. (1 mark)
A

d. Marginal ear vein

236
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a clinical sign of scurvy in guinea pigs. (1 mark)
    a. Reduced appetite
    b. Anaemia
    c. Gingivitis
    d. Diarrhoea
A

D

237
Q

describe the factors that should be considered when preparing hospital accommodation for the ferret

A

Escape proof
Housed away from rabbits, cats- can be placed in dog ward
Environmental temperature in hospital is appropriate

238
Q

describe the basic nutritional requirements of ferrets.

A

Ferrets are carnivores
High protein, high fat diet
Feed twice daily
Can be fed commercial ferret food or cat food. Not dog food as too low in protein

239
Q

a. Please list the most common sites of intravenous injections in a snake.

A

Ventral coccygeal (tail) vein
Cardiac puncture-in species over 300g, needle inserted into ventricular apex and syringe allowed to fill passively according to cardiac cycle (slow HR and low BP means little leakage after sample)
Jugular cut down

240
Q

Describe the procedure to give an Intravenous injection to a snake

A

Use ventral tail vein
Insert needle in the midline about 1/3 of the tail length from the cloaca at 75° angle
Advance it slowly until you hit the vertebrae
Pull out slightly while drawing back on the plunger until you get blood back
Administer your medication

241
Q

Before handling and restraining an avian patient for an examination, what must you ask yourself beforehand?

A
  • What state is the bird in? i.e. is it in respiratory distress
  • Is the bird used to handling?
  • Do you actually need to handle it, birds are very susceptible to stress accosciated with handling
242
Q
  1. Describe the differences of dentition of a lizard in comparison to a dog.
    (9 Marks)
A

Lizards have four rows of teeth (1),
one to each jaw which is similar to dogs (1).
Their teeth are all peg-like in shape (1),
whereas dogs have incisors, canines, premolars, and molars (1).
Lizard’s teeth are continually replaced (1),
whereas, dogs have deciduous teeth which are replaced by their permanent teeth at roughly 6 months of age (1).
Lizards do not have fangs (1),
whereas dogs have canines (1).
Some lizards also have hollow teeth allowing venom from the sublingual venom glad ooze through them (1).

243
Q
  1. Describe the process of respiration of the bird in comparison to cats. (8 marks)
A

Birds do not possess a diaphragm (1) to aid with respiration where cats do.
Bird have four stages to their respiration cycle. On first inspiration air is taken in by the nasal cavity and divided into two streams (1).
Air travels to the caudal air sacs and a small amount to the lungs (1).
On first expiration air is moved from the posterior air sacs to the lungs (1).
During second inspiration air moved to the cranial air sacs. Finally, on second expiration air is moved out of the cranial air sacs and expired (1).
Cats posses a diaphragm (1). During inspiration the diaphragm contracts and raises/expands the rib cage (1).
On expiration the muscles relax causing the ribs to fall and the diaphragm to return to a relaxed position (1).

244
Q
  1. Describe the key structures of the reproductive system of a male snake in comparison to a male dog.
A

Snake Dog
 Testes Testes
◦ Cranial to each kidney Lie externally in the scrotum
◦ Enlarge in breeding season
◦ Each testis has a vas deferens Each testis has a vas deferens
◦ Empties into the urodeum Has a prostate gland
 Hemipenes Single penis
◦ Only one used at a time (hemipenis)
◦ Lie inverted when at rest, evert when engorged with blood
◦ Have barbs or spines No barbs
◦ Dorsal groove Has a bone within it i.e.Os penis

245
Q

a. Please describe a non-invasive approach that could be used to correct the hydration status of a tortoise.

A

Bathe in warm water to allow fluid absorption through the cloaca.

246
Q

b. Please state how you would decide if this tortoise requires additional nursing intervention to correct its nutritional status.

A

Reptiles require additional nutritional intervention if they have lost more than 10% of their body weight. This would rely on the owner having taking an accurate body weight reading prior to hibernation and a further weight being taken on admission to the hospital.

247
Q

What are is the functions of a birds air sacs

A

They function as bellows to create a unidirectional flow of air through the lungs, maximising oxygen extraction.

Reservoirs of air
Warmth and moisture
Thermoregulation
Buoyancy for water birds
Extend into bones

248
Q

describe the process of inspiration for birds

A

1st Inspiration
Air taken in through nasal cavity
Travels to larynx then trachea
Trachea to syrinx
Divided into 2 streams
Travel to posterior caudal air sacs and a small amount to the lungs.

1st Expiration
Air is moved from posterior air sacs to the bronchi in lungs and then on to blood capillaries where carbon dioxide and oxygen is exchanged.

2nd Inspiration
The air moves to the cranial air sacs

2nd Expiration
Air moved out of the cranial air sac via the syrinx to the trachea, larynx and out the nasal cavity.

Semester 2 (4 decks)

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