Exotics Flashcards
Which drugs are licensed in the UK for exotics?
HVD and myxomatosis vaccines for rabbits, cyromazine for fly strike in rabbits, gentamicin and fusidic acid eye drops for rabbits, fentanyl/fluanisone for small mammal anaesthesia, isoflurane for exotic animal anaesthesia, enrofloxacin for infections in all exotic animals.
What is the analgesia of choice in birds?
Kappara receptors - butorphanol. NSAIDS
What is the analgesic of choice in small mammals?
Buprenorphine, tramadol at home. NSAIDS
Analgesic of choice in reptiles?
Butorphanol/morphine. NSAIDS
What is the spectrum of activity of enrofloxacin?
Aerobic bacteria only.
What are the most common type of bacteria in reptile and bird infections?
Gram negative aerobes. up to 50% have anaerobic bacteria involved.
Which animals should not be given fenbendazole?
Overdose in reptiles and birds leads to radiomimetic lesions (pancytopenia, GI haemorrhage) at normal dosages stress bars will occur on growing feathers.
Which animals should not be given IVERMECTIN?
Chelonians - can enter CNS and lead to depression and death
Which animals should you use metronidazole with caution?
Causes nervous signs if overdosed in birds and indigo snakes can only tolerate lower dosages.
Which animals is fipronil contraindicated in?
Rabbits
Which animals should itraconazole not be used in?
Grey parrots (or a lower dose) - causes an idiosyncratic reaction in grey parrots.
What species does encephalitozoon cuniculi affect?
Rabbits
What should you feed hedgehogs?
cat food or proprietary hedgehog diet
What is haemoproteus?
The protozoa are intracellular parasites that infect the erythrocytes. They are transmitted by blood sucking insects including mosquitoes, biting midges (Culicoides), louse flies (Hippoboscidae) and tabanid flies (Tabanidae). Infection with this genus is sometimes known as pseudomalaria because of the parasites’ similarities with Plasmodium species.
What is amidostomum spp?
A gizzard worm that affects birds
How long should snakes be starved for prior to anaesthesia?
48 hours minimum
How long should lizards and chelonians be starved for prior to anaesthesia?
24 hrs
How long should passerines and small psittacines be starved for?
Just long enough to empty the crop. they have a high metabolic rate so may require assisted feeding once awake. in larger psittacines can do 4 hours.
How long should you starve myomorphic rodents before surgery
dont starve. high metabolic rate & no vomiting.
How long should you starve hystricomorphic rodents?
1-2 hrs to ensure a clear pharynx
How long should you starve rabbits before anaesthesia?
don’t need starved - remove food immediately after premed.
How long should you starve ferrets before anaesthesia?
4-6 hours.
What water parameters should be tested from an aqaurium?
Temperature (at home), salinity, pH, chlorine/chloramines and nitrogenous compounds.
What is the optimum pH for pet fish?
The majority can be kept within a range of 6-8. A high pH may indicate elevated levels of ammonia and a low pH chlorine from tap water.
What are chlorine and chloramine used for?
Used in domestic water supp.ies to disinfect against bacteria and algae. both are toxic to fish. (0.2-0.3mg/l). Its toxicity will depend on the other water parameters such as pH, temperature and dissolved oxygen. chlorine is unstable and will be removed if left in an open container for 24 hours. Chloramine is more stable and will require addition of compounds or carbon filter in order to be removed.
What is the primary end product of protein catabolism and what is this converted into in fish?
Ammonia - excreted by fish through gills and kidneys. Bacteria use ammonia as an energy source. ammonia is then converted to nitrite and further to nitrate by other bacteria. Ammonia is toxic to fish and should be kept
What factors in a tank may increase ammonia levels?
Overcrowding, immature or damaged filters, excessive food or decomposed plant material.
What is the most commonly used anaesthetic drug in fish?
MS222. When used it should be buffered using sodium bicarbonate.
What is velvet disease?
A flagellate piscinoodinium pillulare is the causative againt. it imbeds in the gills, skins and fins. it cause discomfort to the fish and reduced feeding and the fish have a velvet or gold like appearance. Immersion in salt baths is a treatment option.
What is white spot? (ich)
Ichthyophthirius multifillis is a ciliate that penetrates the host’s kin creating a white spot. The disruption caused leads to secondary bacterial infection. The free swimming stages of the parasites are susceptible to treatment. the parasites life cycle is 3-7 days at 24-26C. Treatment options include formalin/malachite green and salt.
How can mycobacterium cause disease in fish?
The two main mycobacterium involved are M marinum and M fortuitum. Mycobacterium can be present in the environment and asymptomatic in fish but can also manifest as localised non healing ulcers or internal granulomas. A range of non specific clinical signs may be noted such as emaciation and anorexia. It can be confirmed via PCR, ZN stains or culture. fish should be culled as it has a zoonotic potential.
What is saddle back/columnaris disease in fish?
Flavobacterium columnare (a common gram negative bacterium) has an affinity for gills, skin and fins. The erosive/necrotic lesions may lead to systemic disease. it is likely to be a naturally occuring bacterium. Physical injury, low oxygen and high nitrite are risk factors for disease development.
What is saprolegnia?
The most common water mold disease in fresh water fish. it is primarily a secondary invader. wounds, stress and fall in water temperature may all predispose to infection. Saprolegnia invades epidermal tissue usually around the head or fins with white cotton wool like appearance. Currently malachite green is the most effective treatment.
Which species of tortoise may normally have an ocular discharge?
Red footed tortoises
What is the most common parasite in snakes?
External mite - phionyssus natricus. can infect both snakes and lizards.
What should the background temperature of the vivarium be?
21C.
Which bacteria do reptiles shed?
Salmonella/campylobacter.
What is the maintenance rate for fluid therapy in reptiles?
30mls/kg/day.
What levels should sodium and urea be kept at in reptiles?
below 140mmol/L in well hydrated chelonians and they will have a value of urea less than 2.1mmol/l if well hydrated.Values up to 20mmol/l have responded to bathing alone.
Why should ivermectin not be used in chelonians?
It can enter the central nervous system and cause paralysis by activation of GABA receptors.
what animals is coccidiosis a common parasite in? what is the treatment?
Common in bearded dragons - isospora sp. these cysts have two sporocysts each containing four sporozoites. toltrazuril given daily by mouth for 3 days is a suitable treatment.
What species are oxyurids found in?
Commonly found in lizards and chelonians. large burdens can develop due to their direct life cycle, but small burdens require no treatment. Anorexia, obstruction and rectal prolapse have been clinical signs reported. The eggs are D shaped with thin walls.
What species are ascarids commonly seen in? how can they be treated?
Chelonians. the adults can be up to 10cm long and can lead to intestinal impaction, vomiting and death. commont ypes have direct life cycles. the eggs are thick walled with scalloped edges. fenbendazole is an effective treatment for worms. lower doses given over a few days are safer than a single high dose.
What species are ciliates commonly identified in?
In chelonian faecal smears and many of these can be evident in high numbers in sick chelonia due to secondary overgrowth. Many are commensals such as balantidium sp or nytcotherus sp. if the chelonian is sick and high numbers are identified then treatment should be given. Metronidazole is a suitable treatment.
What reptile species is cryptosoridium recognised in and how does it cause disease?
Cryptosporidium serpentis in snakes and C saurophilum in lizards. it snakes it infests the stomach leading to hyperplasia of the mucous glands and hypertrophy of the stomach itself. this causes a mid body swelling and regurgiation and emaciation. The parasite life cycle is speeded up after feeding. in lizards it causes small intestinal tract disease and leads to a wasting condition. it is particularly common in leopard geckos. The diagnosis is made by a ZN stain of the faeces or a regurgitated meal.
Which antibiotics are suitable for bacterial infections in reptiles?
Enrofloxacin - bactericidal, effective against aerobes. Good activity against pseudomonas.
Aminoglycosides - risk of nephrotoxicity.
Ceftazidime - third generation cephalosporin with excellent anti pseudomonal activity. it is bactericidal and kills aerobes and anaerobic bacteria. Anaerobic bacterial resistance is low. Metroidazole can be used in combination with other agents as it has no aerobic activity
What pathogens is PCR available for in chelonians?
two common pathogens in chelonia - herpes virus and mycoplasma. Ocular nasal or orab swabs and flushes are acceptable samples.
What is GI transit time in chelonians?
21 days
What ET tubes should be used in tortoises?
Their trachea is made of solid tracheal rings and the trachea bifurcates very proximally. So short uncuffed ET tubes should be used.
What is the trachea of squamates like?
They have a simple glottis at the base of the tongue. The trachea of squamates has incomplete rings like a mammal. Et tubes should be uncuffed and length needs to be appropriate based on spcies.
What is the cause of stomatitis in snakes?
A commonly presenting condition in snakes and can be due to inappropriate husbandry like bite wounds, or interaction with transparent surfaces. Secondary to immunosuppressive viral conditions. severe cases can develop septicaemia or pneumonia as an extension of the initial condition. Infections with bacterial and fungal agents are common. topical treatment with silver sulphasalazine is possible even in the mouth.
which pathogens are usually associated with Runny nose syndrome in tortoises?
Mycoplasma agassizzi - horsfield have a higher incidence. Transmission via oculo nasal discharge. testing possible on PCR of conjunctival or choanal swabs. Positive means positive for life and recrudescence possible. Herpes virus is aso a common pathogen and can be found concurrently with mycoplasma. Latency is a common feature and recrudescence after a number of years is possible.
How do snakes with septicaemia commonly present?
Many present as anorexic and have a flushed reddening on their ventral scales. Blood culture can be performed and this should be assessed alongside haematology. Many septic snakes can seed infection into other sites around the body. This can lead to spinal osteoarthritis.
What is paramyxovirus?
Ophidian PMV can cause three presentations. Acute infection presents as sudden death. minimal signs are noted by the owner. Respiratory or neurological signs are possible. the incubation period can be up to 10 weeks. some snakes become chronically infected leading to immune suppression. respiratory signs, regurgitaion and other Gastrointestinal signs are possible. Some animals remain healthy for up to 10 months after exposure. there is a serological test possible.
What does histopathology show with paramyxovirus of snakes?
Proliferation of type II pneumoncytes within the lung and occasionally eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies can be seen.
What is inclusion body disease in snakes?
A common condition affecting boas and pythons. it produces eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies in the snakes and it is believed to a retrovirus. Clinical signs can vary from neurological disease, regurgitation or weight loss. Neurological disease is more common in pythons. The kidneys, liver, cns and pancreas are good sites to find them. in pythons the CNs is the best site. Transmission has been linked with the snake mite ophionyssus natricus.
How long is the life cycle of the snake mite?
13-19 days which allows numbers to increase dramatically.
What is the treatment of snake mites?
Ivermectin made into a spray formulation or fipronil as a wipe and spray the environment.
What is nutritional secondary hyperarathyroidism?
Due to lack of dietary calcium, imbalances in calcium to phosphorus or hypovitaminosis D. Clinical signs commonly include a soft compressible jaw or shell and lack of truncal lifting, ventral deviation of the carapace in chelonians and thickening of he plastrocarapacial bridge. Hemipenile prolapse is a common finding. fractures of the limbs are common and marked deviations of the limbs leading to difficulty ambulating. Uvb light, phosphate binders, oral and systemic calcium gluconate is the treatment.
What is the cause of Yellow fungal disease in bearded dragons?
Chrysosporium annamorph of nannisiopsis viresii
What is the cause of fatty liver disease?
Fatty infiltration - can be physiological in the case of breeding females or after hibernation.
What is the treatment of fatty liver disease?
Treatment rests on supportive care with the addition of anabolic steroids, carnitine, methionine and possibly thyroid supplementation.
What is the treatment of renal disease in reptiles?
Allopurinol ( an xanthine oxidase inhibitor) can reduce the production of uric acid allowing proteins to be excreted as xanthine and hypoxanthine. fluid therapy and phosphate binders may also be indicated.
What are the characteristics of rat and mouse urine?
Usualy proteinuric.
What may gerbil urine normally contain?
Acetone, bilirubin, glucose and protein.
What is the normal pH for herbivorous species such as guinea pigs and chinchillas?
Herbivorous species have alkaline urine. guinea pigs is 9.0 and chinchillas is 8.5.
which species have a large tympanic bullae?
Chinchillas
Which species have an os penis?
Rats and mice
What is the maintenance fluid rate for guinea pigs, chinchillas and other rodents?
100ml/kg/day
Which site should be used for intraosseous fluids in rodents?
Trochanteric fossa or tibial crest into tibia.
Which multivitamin supplements should be given to rodents when caecotrophy isnt present?
Vitamins B And K. Vitamin C supplementation 50mg/kg PO q24h for all guinea pigs with any illness.
Are rodents able to vomit?
No
Which antibiotics can be associated with antibacterial enterotoxaemia if given orally?
Penicillins, ampicillin Lincosamides Aminoglycosides Cephalosporins Erythromycin, spiromycin
What is a red oculonasal discharge in a rodent?
Porphyrin stained secretion from the harderian gland that occurs in stress/illness.
What is the treatment for respiratory disease in rodents?
Antibiosis,oxygen, nebulisation with mucolytics, bronchodilators, NSAIDS, vitamin C, antibiotics.
What is the cause of urolithiasis in guinea pigs?
Diets high in calcium and oxalate, bacterial infections with streptococcus pyogenes, proteus mirabilis and E coli.
Which factors may lead to increased incidence of flystrike?
Obese old guinea pigs susceptible as cannot reach anus to eat soft mucus covered caecal pellets, dental disease.
What is the most common cause of torticollis in guinea pigs?
Oitis media/interna due to streptococcus infection. Symptoms include head tilt, circling, rolling, nystagmus.
What is pregnancy toxaemia? which animals does it usually affect?
Most commonly seen in obese pregnant guinea pigs, but obese males and non pregnant females can also succumb. Two forms occur, a toxic form in obese pregnant animals where foetal displacement causes impaired uterine blood supply followed by ischaemia, foetal death and DIC and a true metabolic form initiated by a stressor such as fasting or transport.
What enzymes do guinea pigs lack ?
L gluconolactone oxidase necessary to synthesise vitamin C from glucose.
What are the clinical signs of hypovitaminosis C in guinea pigs?
Roughneed hair coat, scaling of pinnae, lethargy, weakness, anorexia, unsteady gait, painful locomotion, wasting, gingival haemorrhage, loose death, loose foul smelling faeces. subclinical scurvy often presents as hypersalivation.
What is the cause of wet tail in hamsters?What are the symptoms?
Lawsonia intracellularis. Common condition generally affecting 3-8wk old hamsters but can be seen in adults. Clinical signs include lethargy, anorexia, weight loss, abdominal pain and watery foul smelling diarrhoea. Rectal prolapse and intussusception often ensue. thickened bowel loops can be palpated. Death is common. On PM - mucosal hyperplasia, hypertrophy of muscle layers and presence of an intracellular curved bacillus.
What are the other causes of diarrhoea in rodents/ hystricomorphs?
Diet change in guiea pig and chinchilla, E coli in young rodents, Salmonella in all rodents - acute often haemomorrhagic, yersinia pseudotuberculosis in all rodents. clostridium spiriforme - normally present in small numbers but proliferate in certain situations, coccidiosis usually secondary to poor husbandry,
What is tyzzers disease?
Caused by clostridium piliforme - it causes peracute death or acute diarrhoea and death in weanlings. Diagnosis is on PM - necrotising hepatitis, enlarged mesenteric LNs and thicened ileum. Tx usually unsuccessful.
What can rabbits transmit to guinea pigs if housed together?
Rabbits often carry bordetella bronchiseptica and it is not pathogenic in this species, but is pathogenic to guinea pigs.
What are the clinical signs of mycoplasma pulmonis infection in rats?
Dyspnoea, rattling respiratory sounds, sneezing, rhinitis, red tears (chromodacryorrhea) and adopting of sick rodent posture, laboured breathing
What are the clinical signs of cystic ovarian disease in guinea pigs?
Non pruritic alopecia, abdominal enlargement, infertility. Usually bilateral, may be painful on palpation.
What is the treatment for cystic ovarian disease in guinea pigs?
Ovariohysterectomy is indicated, use of Human chorionic gonadotrophin hormone has also been used to temporarily resolve the condition. percutaneous drainage may also be possible under anaesthesia.
What are the clinical signs of diabetes mellitus in guinea pigs?How is this diagnosed and what is the treatment?
Reduced appetite, depression, anorexia, weight loss, PUPD, cataracts. Serum fructosamine should be measured to confirm diagnosis. Treatment consists of high fibre diet. Insulin therapy rarely indicated and spontaneous recoveries are common. glipizide titrated to clinical signs.
What is cavian leukaemia?
Lymphosarcoma associated with type C retroviral infection in guinea pigs. clinical signs include rough hair coat, lymphadenopathy.
What is the most frequently reported cutaneous neoplasm in hamsters?
Melanomas, then epitheliotropic lymphoma then hamster papovavirus (most likely cause of transmissible lymphoma)
should rodents be fasted prior to anaesthesia?
no - they cannot vomit
Where do mice and rats loose most heat from during anaesthesia?
The tail
What is the analgesic of choice in rodents?
buprenorphine - longest lasting 8-12 hours.
How should rodents be castrated?
A bilateral scrotal incision is the most common approach. Closed technique leaving tunica intact is preferred. Prescrotal approach is preferred as it is easier to keep the surgical site sterile. Males should be kept separate from entire females for 6 weeks post op.
What is an alternative to surgical neutering in rats?
Implantation with gonadtrophin releasing hormone agonist deslorelin.
What are the most common types of mammary gland neoplasia in rats? what is the treatment?
Mammary gland neoplasia is common in both male and female rats, the majority tends to be benign (fibroadenomas) but they rapidly increase in size. In mice and gerbils they tend to be malignant (adenocarcinoma/fibrosarcoma) and in mice may be predisposed to by strain of mammary tumour viruses. Treatment is surgical removal with as wide margins as possible.
What type of ear mites are common in ferrets?
Otodectes cyanotis
