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Essential stuff Flashcards

1
Q

A 2-year old Brown Swiss with an abomasal torsion is likely to have which electrolyte abnormalities?

A

Hypochloraemia, metabolic alkalosis, hypokalaemia

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2
Q

What is the dental formula of a cow?

A
  1. 0.3. 3

3. 1. 3. 3

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3
Q

How long is the oestrus cycle in the cow, ewe, sow, mare, queen and pig?

A 
Cow - 21
Ewe - 17
Sow - 21
Mare - 21
Cat - 40-60
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4
Q

What is the dental formula of the dog

A

Permanent
I 3/3 C 1/1 PM 4/4 M 2/3
= 42 teeth in total

Puppies
28 teeth in total
I 3/3 C1/1 PM 3/3 M 0/0

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5
Q

What is the dental formula of a cat?

A

I 3/3 C 1/1 PM 3/2 M 1/1
=30 teeth in total

Kittens
I 3/3 C 1/1 PM 3/2 M 0/0
= 26 teeth in total

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6
Q

A client has just bought a new kitten and asks you when its teeth should erupt as she is concerned it is too young - what do you tell her?

A

No teeth at birth.
Canines through by 4 weeks.
Incisors and premolars through by 5-6 weeks.
All primary teeth usually present and correct by 6 weeks in both kittens and puppies.

Permanent teeth
Incisors and canines usually through at 3 months
Premolars usually coming through at 4 months
Molars usually coming through at 5 months.

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7
Q

Which bacterial species are implicated in periodontal disease?

A

Bacteroides, peptostreptococcus, Fusobacterium are common but literally hundreds of species are possible.

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8
Q

Where are FORLs most commonly found?

A

The lesion is almost always located on the buccal aspect of the tooth and the mandibular third premolars 307 and 407 are most commonly affected.

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9
Q

What is the difference between type 1 and 2 FORLS and how they are treated?

A

type 1 - normal tooth root density and appearance. Periodontal ligament space visible. often associated with general periodontal disease.
Type 2 - roots hard to see, may be replaced by alveolar bone or ghosted, periodontal ligament space is not clear, gingivitis associated with afected tooth rather than general periodontal disease.

tx - extraction. Type 1 require standard extraction with root retrieval.
Type 2 can be treated with coronal amputation. the crown is amputated and no attempt is made to retrieve roots.

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10
Q

How should feline chronic gingivo stomatitis be treated?

A 
10 day course of antibiotic.
Careful scale and polish.
Extract teeth affected by FORLS or periodontal disease.
chlorhexidine gel for owner to apply.
Many persist after treatment. other possibilities include;
Removal of all cheek teeth.
Steroids
Interferon
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11
Q

Why would microcytosis and hypochromia occur in anaemia?

A

Iron deficiency

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12
Q

Describe what tests cane be done to evaluate haemostasis?

A

Evaluating primary haemostasis:
BMBT - small cut in the buccal mucous membranes - which gives a rapid assessment of platelet function, if platelet NUMBER is normal. Normally, bleeding should stop within 3 minutes, and a BMBT of greater than 5 minutes is considered prolonged.

Evaluating secondary haemostasis:
Activated clotting time - ACT is the time taken for 2ml of fresh whole blood to clot in a tube with a contact activator. The normal ACT is 90-120 seconds and

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13
Q

What are the causes of haemolytic anaemia?

A

Immune mediated
DIC, haemangiosarcoma
Babesia
Heinz body - paracetamol, onions, zinc, propylene glycol
Copper toxicity associated with hepatic necrosis in bedlington terriers
In cats also - FELV, mycoplasma haemofelis.

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14
Q

Which factors are dependent upon vitamin K to become active?

A

II, VII, IX and X

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15
Q

What is fibrinolysis?

A

Plasma induced fibrin breakdown - prevents uncontrolled and wide spread clotting. The two most important naturally occuring anticoagulant proteins are antithrombin and protein C. Fibrin degradation products are the end products of fibrinolysis.

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16
Q

How is Von willi brands disease diagnosed/

A

Affected patients have a prolonged BMBT and decreased plasma levels of vwf.
Desmopressin sometimes used as a treatment as it increases levels of vwf.

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17
Q

Which factor is missing in haemophilia A?

A

Factor VIII - a component of the intrinsic pathway of clotting cascade. Affected patients have a prolonged ACT, APt and normal PT.

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18
Q

When should DIC be suspected?

A

If testing reveals thrombocytopenia, elevated FDP, decreased fibrinogen, and prolonged BMBT, ACT, PT and APTT.

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19
Q

What drugs can be used to treat Canine immune mediated thrombocytopenia?

A

Single dose vincristine
Glucocorticoids
Ciclosporin or azathioprine

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20
Q

What is the best protocol for lymphoma?

A

Prednisone, doxorubicin, cyclophosphamide, vincristine

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21
Q

What is the pathogenesis of secondary renal hyperparathyroidism?

A

Increased phosphate - Low calcium
Stimulates PTH
Increased Calcium withdrawn from bone
Recued production of calcitriol in the kidney - impaired intesitnal absorption.

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22
Q

What disease often occurs secondary to exocrine pancreatic insufficiency in dogs?

A

The correct answer is small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO). This occurs because of the loss of antibacterial factors from pancreatic fluid as well as altered intestinal motility and decreased immunity from malnutrition. Concurrent SIBO can often exacerbate clinical signs and complicate therapy for EPI. The other choices listed are not sequela to EPI.

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23
Q

Where do soft tissue sarcomas arise from?

A

fibrous tissue, pericyte of blood vessels, nerve, adipose tissue, synovial cells, skeletal muscle
They are locally infiltrative but

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24
Q

What is a normal norberg angle?

A

> 105

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25
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Type 3 - immune complex disease.

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26
Q

What is the difference between type I, II, III and IV hypersensitivity reactions? give an example of each?

A

Type I - immediate or anaphylactic. usually takes 15 mins or so from antigen exposure. It is mediated by IgE binding to antibody. E.g Asthma, hay fever, biting insects, allergic rhinitis, atopic dermatitis.

Type II - Cytotoxic. Primarily mediated by Igg or Igm antibodies. eg in mycoplasma infection the infectious agents trigger an immune response that destroys those cells as part of the protective mechanism, IMHA, Immune mediated thrombocytopenia, Myasthenia gravis, pemphigus

type III - immune complex hypersensitivity - e.g lupus or rheumatoid arthritis, it is caused by soluble immune complexes, purpura haemorrhagica

Type IV - cell mediated or delayed - Caused by monocytes and a few T cells. e.g autoimmune thyroiditis, keratitis sicca, old dog encephalitis after CD infection

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27
Q

What organ systems does SLE effect?

A 
Polyarthritis
Renal disease
Dermatogical lesions
haemolytic anaemia
thrombocytopenia
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28
Q

Which drugs commonly cause immune mediated polyarthritis?

A

Cephalosporins, penicillins, sulfa drugs

dobermans susceptible to sulphadiazine-trimethoprim reactions.

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29
Q

What is the non surgical treatment for a shoulder luxation?

A

Velpeau
• Medial luxation
– Spica splint
• Lateral luxation

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30
Q

What will be seen on radiography with biceps tendon disease?

A

Osteophytes intertubercular groove

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31
Q

What other structure is damaged in cranial cruciate ligament rupture?

A

Medial menisci

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32
Q

What are the possible treatments for cranial cruciate ligament rupture?

A

Lateral fabella tibia suture, TPLO or tibial wedge osteotomy, Tibial tuberosity advancement, TPLO preferred in larger dogs.

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33
Q

What do collateral ligaments protect agains in the stifle?

A 
Limit
• valgus (medial) stifle motion
• varus (lateral) stifle motion
Limit internal rotation in
EXTENSION
– Laxity of LCL permits slight
internal rotation during flexion
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34
Q

What are the treatment options for a medial patella luxation?

A 
Lateral tibial
crest transposition
• Trochlear wedge /
block recession
• Medial desmotomy
• Lat capsular overlap
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35
Q

What breed is predisposed to lateral patella luxation?

A

FC retrievers

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36
Q

in which toxicity is oxygen therapy contraindicated?

A

Paraquat toxicity

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37
Q

When can intravenous fat emulsion be used?

A

When treating life threatening arrhthmias caused by lipid soluble drugs e.g acute local anaesthetic toxicity.

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38
Q

What is the toxic dose of paracetamol in a dog?

A

200-600mg/kg in dogs

50-100mg/kg in cats

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39
Q

What are the effects of paracetamol toxicity in the dog and cat?

A

Cat - haemoglobin is oxidised to methaemoglobin resulting in cyanosis and chocolate coloured mucous membranes. Haemoglobin is also denatured resulting in heinz body anaemia. Signs include facial and pulmonary oedema, vomiting, ataxia, collapse.
Dog - liver is most susceptible and hepatocellular necrosis leads to liver failure. Methaemoglobin/haemoglobinuria also observed.

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40
Q

What is the treatment of paracetamol toxicity?

A

N - acetylcysteine or S adenosyl methionine

Methylene blue can be used to reduce methaemoglobin to haemoglobin.

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41
Q

What are the signs of NSAID toxicity?

A

vomiting, depression, anorexia, diarrhoea, melena, pupd.

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42
Q

What metabolic derangements occur with etyhlene glycol toxicity?

A

Toxicity is primarily caused by the metabolism of EG, by alcohol dehydrogenase to glycoaldehyde, glycolic acid and oxalate. Severe metabolic acidosis occurs as a result of glycolic acid accumulation, high anion gap, low Hco3. sodium fulorescien in antifreeze solution may be detected by woods lamp.

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43
Q

What is the treatment for ethylene glycol toxicity in dogs?

A

Ethanol in cats or 4methyl pyrazole in dogs

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44
Q

What type of toxin is chocolate?

A

Methylxanthine

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45
Q

How long is the oestrus cycle in the bitch?

A

pro oestrus - 7-10 days
Oestrus 7-10 days
Metoestrus - 63 days
Anoestrus 3-4 months

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46
Q

How long after oestrus signs does ovulation occur?

A

1-3 days, usually 4 days after the onset of vulval softening and the bitches first inclination to stand for the dog - unreliable.

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47
Q

A bitch has a dark green discharge after giving birth, what is this?

A

A normal feature in the bitch - called uteroverdin. IT is reddish brown in the queen. Caused by placental separation around the birth of the first foetus. The placenta of each foetus is usually expelled 5-15 mins after its birth and the uterine horns shorten, although sometimes 2-3 foetuses may be born before their placentas follow.

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48
Q

What is treatment of choice for false pregnancy?

A

cabergoline (galastop)

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49
Q

What can be used to terminate a pregnancy?

A
  • progesterone antagonistAlizin (aglepristone)
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50
Q

What is the difference in treatment before juvenile and adult vaginitis in the bitch?

A

Juvenile - the conidition will lapse eventually, they should just bathe with chlorhexidine, no antibiotics
In adult vaginitis - antibiotics and local treatment needed

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51
Q

What organisms usually cause mastitis in the bitch?

A

Staphs, streps, E coli

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52
Q

Which way does the stomach usually rotate in GDV?

A

Clockwise.
Pylorus moves ventrally and to the left.
180 degrees most common.

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53
Q

Which signalment is apocrine gland adenocarcinoma seen in?

A

90% FEMALE

– 50% metastasised by time of diagnosis

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54
Q

Which signalment is prostatic neoplasia more common in?

A

neutered males

Grave prognosis

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55
Q

At which intercostal space should needle thoracocentesis be performed?

A

6th-8th

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56
Q

What type of virus is panleukopenia?

A

parvovirus

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57
Q

What is the result of infection with panleukopenia virus?

A

Profound and permanent suppression of the immune system - lymphopenia, neutroppenia, thymic atrophy, cerebellar hypoplasia. (ataxia, incoordination, tremors, wide base stance)

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58
Q

How is FIA diagnosed?

A

Giemsa or acridine orange stained blood smears
PCR
Regenerative anaemia with polychromasia and normblasts
AIHA often present resulting in autoagglutination or positive coombs test.

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59
Q

Which antigen is detected on FELV test?

A

p27

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60
Q

Which antigen is detected on the ELISA CITE and SNAP tests for FIV?

A

FIV P24

RIM tests detect envelope protein gp40

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61
Q

Which parasite can transmit mycoplasma haemofelis?

A

Fleas

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62
Q

What is the treatment for FIV infected cats with dermatophytosis?

A

Itraconazole

Griseofulvin can induce severe neutropenia

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63
Q

Which breeds are predisposed to FIP infection?

A

Burmese, persian, birman and bengal

Frequently in cats

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64
Q

How is toxoplasma diagnosed?

A

Detection of oocysts – but usually clinical signs do not develop until after oocyst shedding has ceased.
Following infection with T gondi - Igg seroconversion occurs after 2-4 weeks with peak titres 4-6 weeks, then maintained at high levels for many months or years. IgM titres rise more rapidly following infection and are normally maintained only for a limited period of time so a single high IgM titre demonstrates recent or reactivated infection with T gondi.

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65
Q

What is the treatment of toxoplasmosis?

A

Clindamycin

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66
Q

What is the recommended treatment of tuberculosis in cats?

A

rifampcin, pradofloxacin and clarithromycin for 2 months then rifampicin and pradofloxacin for a further 4 months.

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67
Q

which virus causes infectious hepatitis in dogs?

A

canine adenovirus 1

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68
Q

Which virus causes parvoviral enteritis?

A

CPV2

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69
Q

Which serovars are most commonly implicated in canine leptospira?

A

Icterohaemorrhagica
Canicola

Pomona
Bratislava
Grippotyphosa

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70
Q

What is diagnostic and treatment of choice for leptospirosis?

A

Microscopic agglutination test on serology
Penicillins - immediately stop replication
Elimination of carrier state is achieved by administering tetracyclines/fluoroquinolones

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71
Q

How does leishmaniasis cause disease in dogs?

A

Following infection there is a protracted incubation period. clinical signs tend to result due to hyperglobulinaemia and immune complex deposition and include glomerulonephritis, polyarthritis and uveitis. There may be dry desquamation and alopecia of the head.

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72
Q

What is the treatment of leishmania?

A

Allopurinol and antimonial drugs (meglumine antimonite)

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73
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic test for rabies?

A

Fluorescent antibody test on brain tissue.

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74
Q

Which part of the oesophagus is striated or smooth muscle?

A

In dogs, cattle and sheep, its entire length is striated muscle, whereas in cats, horses and humans, the proximal esophagus has striated muscle and the distal esophagus smooth muscle.

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75
Q

What animals should amitraz not be used in?

A

Horses
Chihuahuas
Cats
It can cause sedation/migraines and hyperglycaemia in humans.

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76
Q

What would a cat with a ventral truncal alopecia with strikingly smooth shining thin and translucent skin raise suspicion of?

A

Feline paraneoplastic alopecia - usually associated with pancreatic and bile duct carcinomas.

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77
Q

If an older cat presents with focal to generalised erythema, exfoliation and malasezzia with some systemic clinical signs such as coughing/anorexia, what may this indicate?

A

Exfoliative dermatitis as a paraneoplastic syndrome due to thymoma. Similar syndromes can be seen with other diseases such as lymphoma, pulmonary tumour, chronic renal failure.

78
Q

In which breed is facial seborrhoea most commonly seen?

A

Persian cats

Thick black greasy and tightly adherent scales over eyes/nose

79
Q

Describe different types of bacterial mediums and what they are used for?

A

LB agar - non selective, non chromogenic, most bacteria appear similar.

Maconkey agar - selective for enterobacteriaciae, lactose fermenters appear pink ( e coli), non fermenters appear white. (salmonella)

Xylose lysine deoxycholate agar - selective for salmonella and shigella. Salmonella can metabolise thiosulphate - produce hydrogen sulphite and turn black in centre.

Blood agar - Used for assessment of haemolysis, especially staphs/streps, Can grow a large no of organisms. Also used for mycobacteria.

Charcoal agar (CCDA) - selective for campylobacter

Eaton’s agar - for mycoplasma

Sabauroud - selects for growth of fungi and inhibits bacterial growth.

80
Q

Which shampoo is good for pruritus?

A

Allermyl

81
Q

How does ciclosporin work?

A

A potent inhibitor of T cells and cytokine production.

Reactions - v, anorexia, gingival hyperplasia, diarrhoea, allergic reactions.

82
Q

What is hydrocortisone aceponate?

A

Cortavance spray. Esters at c17 and c21 ensure rapid absorption. minimisess systemic adverse effects.

83
Q

What is oclacitinib?

A

Apoquel - a targeted JAK1 inhibitor that inhibits expression of IL-31, controlling pruritus.

84
Q

Which antimicrobials are potentially ototoxic?

A

Ticarcillin, polymyxin B, neomycin, tobramycin and amikacin are potentially ototoxic and should be used with care if the tympanic membrane is ruptured.

85
Q

What does cytology of pemphigus foliaceus show?

A

Neutrophils, acanthocytes, no bacteria

86
Q

How does cutaneous lupus present

A

Affects the nasal planum causing loss of the cobblestone appearance, swelling, depigmentation, erosions, ulcers, crusting.

87
Q

What is acanthosis nigricans?

A

Seen in dachshunds and other breeds that develop raised hyperpigmented plaques, esepcially in the axillae and ventral abdomen.

88
Q

Which drugs are most active as chemotherapeutic agents against mast cell tumours?

A

Vinblastine, prednisolone and CCNU.

89
Q

How can you tell if a nystagmus is due to peripheral or central lesion?

A

Fast phase away from lesion.
Horizontal and rotatory nystagmus, usually peripheral disease.
Vertical nystagmus usually central. Central can also have horizontal or rotatory.

90
Q

What stain should be used to diagnose cryptococcus neoformans and blastomyces infection?

A

India ink

91
Q

What do the S1-s4 heart sounds represent?

A

s1 - It is caused by the sudden block of reverse blood flow due to closure of the atrioventricular valves, i.e. tricuspid and mitral (bicuspid), at the beginning of ventricular contraction, or systole.

s2 -It is caused by the sudden block of reversing blood flow due to closure of the semilunar valves (the aortic valve and pulmonary valve) at the end of ventricular systole and the beginning of ventricular diastole.

S3 is thought to be caused by the oscillation of blood back and forth between the walls of the ventricles initiated by blood rushing in from the atria. The third heart sound is the result of the addition of more blood into a partially filled ventricle thus creating turbulence and sound waves.

s4 -It is a sign of a pathologic state, usually a failing or hypertrophic left ventricle, as in systemic hypertension, severe valvular aortic stenosis, and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. The fourth heart sound is the result of atrial contraction. Although S4 is labelled the fourth heart sound; if present; it will be heard at the start of the cardiac contraction cycle.

92
Q

What is cheyne stokes respiration?

A

Periods of hyperventilation which taper off gradualy to periods of apnea of variable duration. When respiration resumes gradually accelerates to the point of hyperventilation.

93
Q

What is cushings reflex?

A

Increased ICP decreases cerebral perfusion pressure and cerebral blood flow inducing cerebral ischaemia, which triggers a sympathetic response causing elevated heart rate and systemic extracranial vasoconstrition to push more blood in the brain and improve its perfusion - reflex systemic hypertension which stimulates the carotid baroreceptors which in turn will slow down the heart rate - reflex bradycardia.

94
Q

Which drugs may induce seizures? or should be avoided in epileptic animals?

A

Acepromazine

metoclopramide, penicillin, chloramphenicol, enrofloxacin, estrogens or testosterone

95
Q

What are the signs of listeria monocytogenes infection in sheep and other ruminants? What does CSF analysis show? What is the treatment?

A

Head itlt, pathologic nystagmus, facial paralysis, masseter m paralysis. Spinal fluid analysis shows mononuclear pleocytosis. penicillin for 1-2 weeks.

96
Q

How can you localise the lesion in a spinal cord of a dog?

A

Ataxia with intact reflexes present in all 4 limbs : c1-c5

ataxia in all limbs, Decreased reflexes in thoracic limbs, present in pelvic limbs c6-t2

Thoracic limbs normal, pelvic limb ataxia with intact reflexes t3-l3

Thoracic limbs normal, reflexes decreased decreased in pelvic limbs - LS intumescence

Reflexes absent in all four limbs - Diffuse LMN

97
Q

What is the cause of hyperthyroidism in cats?

A

98% are a functional adenoma which may be unilateral or bilateral. the remaining 2% are due to thyroid neoplasia.

98
Q

What is the renal threshold for glucose in dogs and cats?

A

10-12mmol/l in dogs, 12-14mmol/l in cats. After this hypreglycaemia induces glucosuria and osmotic diuresis, hence polyuria and compensatory polydipsia.

99
Q

What is fructosamine and how long is its half life?

A

It is produced by the irreversible glycoslyation of albumin in proportion to surrounding glucose levels. its half life is 1-2 weeks.

100
Q

List the types of insulin available and their duration of action.

A

Canininsulin 4-8 Hrs
Neutral soluble insulin 4-10 hrs
Protamine PZI insulin 8-30 hrs
Glargine insulin 20-24 hrs.

101
Q

What is the somogyi effect in diabetes?

A

Insulin induced hypoglycaemia - rapid decline in blood glucose followed by a rebound hyperglycaemia due to the counter regulatory response. these animals will be hyperglycaemic most of the day and the hypoglycaemia may be very transient, so patients appear as if they have insulin resistance unless a detailed blood glucose curve is examined.

102
Q

What are the clinical biological changes with any gastric outflow obstruction?

A

e.g pyloric stenosis - hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis.

103
Q

What is the treatment of crypto in dogs?

A

No effective treatment in dogs - paromomycin has been used with success but associated with renal failure in cats and may not stop shedding.

104
Q

What are the clinical signs of trichomoniasis and how is it treated?

A

Trichomonas foetus colonizes surfaces of colonic mucosa. Seen in cats especially young cats in group housing - large bowel diarrhoae without other systemic signs, may be self limiting after several months. Trophozoites may be seen on direct fecal examination. Ronidazole is effective.

105
Q

What is the treatment for coccidiosis in dogs?

A

Sulfadimethoxine or trimethoprim sulfa for 10-20 days.

106
Q

What is the average life span of a canine Platelet?

A

8-12 days

107
Q

A female cockatiel is presented to your clinic for lethargy and poor condition. A thorough history reveals that she has produced an egg every three days for the past 3-4 weeks. Which of the following drugs is used to help stop chronic egg laying in this bird?

A

Leuprolide acetate is a gonadotropin releasing hormone (GNRH) analog and will shut down the production of reproductive hormones in birds, thus, will often stop ovulation in the laying hen. Female birds are capable of producing eggs (infertile) without the presence of a male, just as chickens do.

108
Q

How will serum biochemistry show up in pancreatitis?

A 
Hyperglycaemia
Gross lipaemia
Azotaemia
Elevations in ASLT, SAP, bilirubin
Hypocalcaemia
109
Q

What is the specific marker for exocrine ancreatic insufficiency?

A

TLI

110
Q

What does triaditis involve in the cat?

A

Inflammatory bowel disease
Pancreatitis
Cholangiohepatitis

111
Q

Where are cobalamin and folate absorped?

A

Cobalamin - Absorbed in ileum in small intestine. often low in EPI/ disease affecting small intestine.

Folate - absorbed in the jejunum. It may be elevated if there is excessive bacteria in the intestine synthesizing it but it can be deficient if it isn’t well absorbed. other B vitamins can be lost with the water lost in diarrhoea.

112
Q

What is the difference between ALT, AST, AP and GGT?

A

ALT - alanine aminotransferase - liver specific, found in hepatocytes, values represent damage in last 24 hours.

AST - aspartate aminotransferase - not liver specific, also found in skeletal muscles,

AP - alkaline phosphatase - synthesised in hepatocyte/bile caniculi membrane, increased circulating values associated with synthesis not release. Switched on by bile stasis and secondary bile acids formation. other iso enzymes include bone iso enzyme and corticosteroid induced.

GGT - used more in cats where it is a relatively sensitive method of assessing cholestasis. not liver specific and found in muscle cells as well.

113
Q

Which drugs are licensed for exotic animal species?

A

HVD and myxomatosis for rabbits
Cyromazine for fly strike in rabbits
Gentamicin and fusidic acid eye drops for rabbits
Fentanyl/fluanisone for small mammal anaesthesia
Isoflurane for exotic animals
Enrofloxacin for all
Imidacloprid for ferrets

114
Q

Which drugs are potentially toxic/ should be avoided in exotic species?

A

Fenbendazole overdose in reptiles and birds leads to radiomimetic lesions at normal dosages stress bars will occur on growing feathers.

Ivermectin can enter the CNS in chelonians and lead to depression and death.

Metronidazole causes nervous signs if overdosed in birds and indigo snakes can only tolerate lower dosages.

Fipronil is contraindicated in rabbits

Intraconazole also causes an idiosyncratic reaction in grey parrots a lower dose should be used or avoided completely.

115
Q

What electrolyte abnormalities would be expected in haemoabdomen?

A

hyponatremia, hypochloremia, hyperphosphatemia, azotaemia, hyperkalaemia

116
Q

If concerned about the liver function of a neonatal foal, which antibiotic does not undergo extensive hepatic metabolism?

A 
The correct answer is ampicillin. Ampicillin is excreted by the kidneys and without hepatic metabolism. All other answer choices undergo extensive hepatic metabolism before being excreted.
(Chloramphenicol
 Rifampin
 Erythromycin 
 Trimethoprim)
117
Q

What is the cause of velvet disease in fish?

A

A flagellate piscinoodinium pillulare - it imbeds in the gills, skins and fins

118
Q

What is the cause of white spot in fish?

A

Ichthyophirius multifilis - a ciliate that penetrates the hosts skin creating a white spot, the disruption caused leads to secondary bacterial infection. the free swimming stages of the parasites are susceptible to treatment.

119
Q

What is columnaris disease?

A

Caused by flavobacterium columnare - it has an affinity for gills, skin and fins. the erosive/necrotic lesions (whitish plauqes) with a red periphery) may lead to systemic diseas.e Tx with oxytetracycline in the water.

120
Q

What is saprolegnia?

A

The most common water mold disease in fresh water fish. It is primarily a secondary invader. wounds stress and fall in water temperature may predispose. Saprolegnia invades epidermal tissue usually initially around the head or fins with white cotton wool like appearance.

121
Q

What is the dental formula for rodents?

A

1/1 0/0 0/0 3/3

122
Q

Which antibiotics can cause enterotoxaemia if given orally in guinea pigs/rabbits?

A 
PLACE
Penicilins, ampicillin
Lincosamides
Aminoglycosides
Cephalosporins
Erythromycin
123
Q

Which enzyme do guinea pigs lack to synthesise vitamin C?

A

L -gluconolactone oxidase

124
Q

What is the most common neoplasm of hamsters?

A

Melanomas/melanocytomas
Then epitheliotropic lymphoma
then hamster papovavirus (cutaneous epitheliomas)

125
Q

What is a chin rash an early presenting sign of in ferrets?

A

Distemper virus infection

126
Q

What are the clinical signs of adrenal gland disease in ferrets?

A

Bilateral symmetrical alopecia, pruritus, vulval sweling in females. castrates males may show signs of male sexual behaviour. Plasma androgens, oestradiol or hydroxyprogesterone levls may be raised and all these should be assayed.

127
Q

What is aleutian disease of ferrets?

A

It is caused by parvovirus. Causes posterior ataxia, paresis, paralysis, tarry faeces, malaise, weight loss. no treatment or vaccine available.

128
Q

What could be the cause of overgrown claws/beak in a bird?

A

Malnutrition, high protein diets, liver disease

129
Q

What should aquatic zoo birds be supplemented with?

A

Vitamin B1 and Vitamin E

130
Q

Which ocular hypotensive agents can be used in the management of glaucoma?

A

Prostaglandin analogues - tiopically eg latanaprost - causes miosis and should be avoided in glaucoma secondary to uveitis/anterior lens luxation - only used for primary glaucoma. Rapid reduction in IOP achieved by increasing outflow through the unconventional uveoscleral pathways.

Osmotic diuretics - mannitol systemically.

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors - Systemically - eg dorzolamide or applied topically as a single drop.

131
Q

What are the clinical signs of paramyxovirus in snakes?

A

Sudden death
Respiratory signs or neurological signs.
Resp signs, regurgitation and other GI signs are possible. Histopath shows fairly typical proliferation of type II pneumocytes within the lung and occasionally eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies.

132
Q

What are the clinical signs of inclusion body disease?

A

It is a common condition affecting boas and pythons. Recently identified in colubrid snakes and vipers. it produces eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies in snakes and is believed to be a retrovirus. Clinical signs vary from regurgitation, neurological or weight loss. Inclusion bodies in kidneys, liver, CNS, pancreas. Transmission thought to be linked to snake mite.

133
Q

What is the treatment of Encephalitozoon cuniculi?

A

Fenbendazole for 4 weeks. Glucocorticoids may also be given to reduce inflammtion

134
Q

When may hyperglycaemia be found in rabbits?

A

Found with stress and pain. persistent hyperglycaemia sometimes observed with terminal gut stasis.

135
Q

which drugs should not be used in rabbits?

A

Fipronil
Tilmicosin
Kaolin or montmorillonite clay
Loperamide

136
Q

What stain is used to detect mast cells

A

Toludine blue

137
Q

What stain is used to detect haemosiderin?

A

Pearls prussian blue

138
Q

Which structures cross the guttoral pouch of a horsE?

A

cranial nerves 7, 9, 10, 11, & 12 all cross the medial pouch as well as the sympathetic trunk and internal carotid artery. The external carotid artery crosses the lateral pouch.

139
Q

What is seen in a CSF tap of a lamb with meningitis?

A

Neutrophilic pleocytosis

140
Q

What is methylmalonic acid?

A

MMA accumulates in the plasma of cobalt deficient sheep as a result of reduced vitamin B co enzyme activity.

141
Q

What is the ram to ewe ratio for natural service, sponging, teaser rams, melatonin?

A

Natural service 1:40/50
Teaser 1:20/30
Sponging 1:10
melatonin 1:40

142
Q

What are the KEY facts of chlamydial abortion

A

LATE ABORTIO N. STILL BORN OR WEAK LAMBS. Last 2-3 weeks. Rarely any impending signs. Causes Placentitis.
On smears - ZN stain - Clusters of red bodies against blue background. Surviving lambs from aborted ewes abort during their first pregnancy. Isolate. Treat with oxytet. Vaccinate unexposed ewes.

143
Q

What are the key facts in toxoplasma abortion?

A

Life cycle involving rodents and cats. Barren ewes if infection in early pregnancy. abortion/stillbirths if late pregnancy. Normal if infected >120 days or when empty. Lambs may be mummified. Necrotic cotyledons with white spots. Ewes clinically normal.

144
Q

What are the key facts in campylobacter abortion?

A

Abortion in final 6 weeks of pregnancy. Carrier ewes. Spread by birds. No venereal spread. Comma shaped bacteria on smears of foetal stomach contents.

145
Q

What are the key facts with salmonella abortion?

A

May have enteric or generalised ill health in ewes, septicaemia or may have no clinical signs. Often rotten, autolysed lambs. some ewes sick with metritis afterwards. If S dublin/typhimurium - sick and pyrexic ewes may die of septicaemia before they abort and have profuse diarrhoea, stinking lambings with emphysematous lambs. Culture on Macconkey Agar.

146
Q

What are the key signs seen with border disease abortion?

A

Day - late abortions or normal survivers.

147
Q

What are the key facts with listeria abortion in sheep?

A

Uncommon. Third trimester. Associated with feeding poor silage with a ph >5.

148
Q

What is the most common cause of mastitis in goats?

A

Coagulase positive staphylococci.

149
Q

What is coenurosis cerebralis?

A

The cystic stage of taenia multiceps tapewrom.

150
Q

What is beta mannosidiosis of goats?

A

An autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease of anglo nubians.

151
Q

Name a neuromuscular blocker given to a dog?

A

The correct answer is atracurium. Atracurium is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker. Other neuromuscular blockers include pancuronium, d-tubocurarine and succinylcholine. Succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker. Fentanyl is an opioid. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist. Edrophonium and neostigmine are cholinesterase inhibitors used to reverse neuromuscular blockers.

152
Q

What fluids should you give a cow with an abomasal torsion/volvulus and why?

A

A cow with abomasal torsion is accumulating chloride in the forestomachs, which results in hypochloremia and metabolic alkalosis. This in turn leads to hypokalemia as potassium rushes into cells when all available hydrogen ions leave the cells. The treatment of choice is thus IV saline (154 meq/L Na and 154 meq/L Cl) plus potassium.

153
Q

What is the difference between sensitivity and specificity?

A

test sensitivity is the ability of a test to correctly identify those with the disease (true positive rate), whereas test specificity is the ability of the test to correctly identify those without the disease (true negative rate).

154
Q

What metabolic derangements are most likely in a foreign body obstruction?

A

Proximal GI obstruction has typically been associated with hypochloremia, hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis, whereas more distal GI obstruction is associated with metabolic acidosis. In a study in dogs, hypochloremia and metabolic alkalosis were the two most common changes regardless of the site of GI obstruction. Hyperlactatemia and hemoconcentration (increased PCV and total solids) are also frequently identified.

155
Q

How many 3-rooted permanent maxillary teeth are in the mouth of a dog?

A
  1. The 3-rooted permanent teeth in the maxilla of a dog are P4, M1, and M2. There are no 3-rooted permanent mandibular teeth in the dog.
156
Q

Sympathetic innervation of the bladder is provided by the ________.

A

The correct answer is hypogastric nerve. The pudendal nerve is innervated by the somatic nervous system and the pelvic nerve has parasympathetic innervation to the bladder. The pelvic nerve also gives branches to the descending colon and erectile tissue of the penis or clitoris. The pudendal nerve also gives branches and becomes the perineal nerve along with providing innervation to the external genital organs. The sciatic and obturator nerves do not innervate the bladder. The sciatic nerve is the largest nerve in the body and comes off of L6, L7, and S1. This nerve has two main branches the tibial and common peroneal nerves. The obturator nerve arises from L4, L5, and L6. It is responsible for innervating the external obturator muscle, pectineus, gracilis, and adductor muscles.

157
Q

What is the duration of estrus in sheep?

A

24-36 hrs

158
Q

A 3 month old foal presents to you with a cough. On your exam, you note that the horse has a respiratory rate of 50, temperature of 103 F (39.4 C), and has wheezes on auscultation. You also note abdominal tucking on inspiration. You perform a transtracheal wash and find gram positive pleomorphic rods on cytology. What is your diagnosis?

A

The correct answer is Rhodococcus (Corynebacterium) equi. The signalment and clinical signs are most consistent with Rhodococcus equi infection. The pleomorphic gram positive rods on cytology make this clearly the best choice. The pleomorphic rods of Rhodococcus are often said to look like Chinese letters, so keep this in mind if you are shown cytology on the exam. Another helpful diagnostic tool is the presence of single or multiple abscesses within the lung fields observed via thoracic radiography or ultrasonography.

159
Q

Which blood tube is used for the assessment of activated partial thromboplastin time and prothrombin time?

A

Sodium citrate

160
Q

What are plain blood tubes used for?

A 
Serology
Biochemistry
Electrolytes
Some hormones
Therapeutic levels
161
Q

What are EDTA tubes used for?

A 
Haematology
PCV
Blood smear
PCR tests
PLASMA:
ACTH
PTH
PTHrP
162
Q

What are lithium heparin tubes used for?

A 
Biochemistry
Electrolytes
Hormones
Lead
Some virology
Haematology (exotic spp)
163
Q

What are fluoride oxalate tubes used for?

A

Glucose

164
Q

What are sodium citrate tubes used for?

A 
PT
APTT
Fibrinogen
D-dimer
Coagulation factors
165
Q

What is the earliest that rectal palpation can be diagnosed in the mare?

A

The correct answer is day 20. By day 20-30 the vesicle forms as a ventral bulge and thinning to the side of the bifurcation of the uterus. The fetus is usually not palpable until about day 90-120. Ultrasound can be used to diagnose pregnancy as early as 11-14 days. However, we want to know about “rectal palpation”.

166
Q

How can you tell the difference between eosinophilic plaques, granulomas and uclers?

A

The image and description are most consistent with a collagenolytic granuloma. Feline eosinophilic granuloma complex consists of 3 separate clinical sydromes:

1) The collagenolytic granuloma (also known as eosinophilic granuloma or linear granuloma) usually occurs on the nose, chin, oral cavity (as in this case), or caudal thighs. The lesions are typically raised and ulcerative or nodular as seen here.
2) The eosinophilic plaque occurs most frequently on the abdomen and medial thighs but can appear other places. They appear as single or multiple, raised, red, often ulcerated lesions of varying size (0.5-7 cm). They frequently have a cobblestone appearance and unlike eosinophilic ulcers, these are often pruritic. This condition is histopathologically similar to miliary dermatitis and is usually associated with underlying allergy.
3) The eosinophilic ulcer (also known as indolent ulcer) typically occurs on the upper lip and may be unilateral or bilateral. They often have a characteristic central area of yellow to pink tissue with a slightly raised circumferential edge

The underlying cause of eosinophilic ulcers and collagenolytic granulomas are unknown, although an underlying allergic cause such as arthropod bites and/or cutaneous hypersensitivity have been suggested.

Treatment of collagenolytic granulomas is also controversial so it is unlikely that you would be asked about treatment of this disorder on a board exam aside from knowing that you should attempt to identify and remove/treat underlying allergy or biting arthropod problems. Some cases respond to antibiotic therapy but most require glucocorticoid therapy.

167
Q

How do you test for Von williebrands disease?

A

Dobermans have increased incidence of have Type 1 vWD. In this type, there is a reduced presence of functional von Willebrand factor. This factor is crucial in initial clot formation and attracts platelets and allows them to bind to exposed subendothelium after injury. A buccal mucosal bleeding test should result in a clot in less than 4 minutes in normal dogs. An abnormal result warrants further investigation to confirm the presence of vWD in order to take the appropriate measures prior to surgery.

168
Q

what would happen to calcium and phosphorus in vitamin D toxicity?

A

Hyperphosphataemia, hypercalcaemia

169
Q

Why would ALP be raised?

A

cholestatitc disease, cushings disease, hyperthyroidism, glucocrticoids in dogs, puppies have higher ALP (bone). Produced in bone, liver, gut non specific

170
Q

Why may AST be raised?

A

Liver disease
muscle inflammation or necrosis
RBC haemolysis.
Present in hepatocytes, muscle and RBCs. as a result, AST levels can be elevated with muscle inflammation or necrosis.

171
Q

Why may anion gap be increased?

A

Normal is 15-25. Metabolic acidosis in the presnece of an increased anion gap indicates a loss in Hc03- with no subsequent increase in cl-. Metabolic acidosis with normal anion gap occurs when CL increases thus maintaining the normal gap - when hco3 is lost, this acidosis is hyperhcloremic acidosis. Causes include diarrhoea, renal tubuler acidosis

172
Q

What is the difference between a degenerative and regnerative left shift?

A

Degenerative left shift is a left shift in which segmented neutrophils outnumber mature neutrophils.
A regenerative left shift is where mature neutrophils outumber segmented neutrophils.

173
Q

What is a neutrophilic leukoctosis?

A

A marked leukocytosis which involves immature neutrohils (Segmented) and a left shift. Seen in pyometra, pyoabdomen, pyotherax, as wel as uncertain mechanism in haemolytic anaemia.

174
Q

When are macrocytic normochromic anaemias most commonly seen in cats?

A

Myelodysplasias eg cats with felv.

175
Q

What are the causes of normocytic normochromic anaemias?

A

Erythroid aplasia - renal failure, anaemia of chronic disease, estogen toxicity, hypothyroidism.

176
Q

When would schistocytes be seen?

A

Diseases where fibrin is deposited in small vessesls (microangiopathic disease). the rbc passing through are sheared leading to schistocytes. Splenic torsion, heartworm disease with caval syndorme, splenic haemangiosarcoma, DIC.

177
Q

When are spherocytes seen?

A

Occur in approx 80% of IMHA cases. they occur because antibodies attach to the RBC and macrophages then ingest portions of the membrane thus cauisng the cell to become rounder and smaller. spherocytes cannot be identified in cats.

178
Q

What are ghost cells, why are they found in IMA?

A

Antibodies attach to the RBCs and complement is activated, holes are punched in rbcs causing the contents to spill out leaving just the membrane shell. in IMHA.

179
Q

Which joints communicate in the equine hock?

A

The proximal intertarsal joint communicates with the tibiotarsal joint, and therefore, disease of the proximal intertarsal joint can be considered possible disease of a high-motion weight-bearing joint.
For the most part, the distal intertarsal and tarsometatarsal
joints do not communicate with either
the proximal intertarsal or tibiotarsal joints.

180
Q

What are the classical typical findings with ragwort toxicity on histopathological examination?

A

Megalocytosis
Periportal fibrosis
Biliary hyperplasia
Occlusion of central eins

181
Q

What may electrolytes show in a horse with kidney disease?

A 
Sodium decrease
chloride decrease
calcium increase
phosphate decrease
potassium increase
182
Q

What is the cause of equine cushings disease?

A

PPID - due to the overproduction of POMC peptides from pars intermedia. the resultant increase in adrenocorticotrophin levels, coupled with the possible potentiating effects of other POMC peptides e.g endorphins, insulin like molecules on ACT, causes dysregulated cortisol secretion.

183
Q

What are the clinicaal signs of PPID?

A

Hirsutisum/ hair coat changes/ sweating/laminitis/fat redistribution, weight loss, PUPD - cortisol antagonism of ADH receptors in kidney, decreased ADH secretion via impingement in pars nervosa.

184
Q

How can PPID be diagnosed?

A 
clinical signs only - hirsutism
Basal glucose - usually high 
Basal ACTH - seasonal variation
TRH response test - very sensitive
DST - 50% specificity
185
Q

What metabolic derangements are seen with abomasal torsion/volvulus?

A

A mild metabolic alkalosis with hypochloremia and hypokalemia are common. The hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis is due to abomasal hypomotility, continued secretion of hydrochloric acid into the abomasum, and the partial abomasal outflow obstruction, with sequestration of chloride in the abomasum and reflux into the rumen. Hypokalemia is due to decreased intake of feeds high in potassium, sequestration of potassium in the abomasum, and dehydration

186
Q

When would hypokalaemia occur?

A

Gastrointestinal losses: Causes include vomiting of gastric contents (the loss of chloride enhances K+ excretion in the kidneys, promoting the hypokalemia), abomasal stasis (e.g. vagal digestion or atony), outflow obstruction or torsion, and diarrhea. Diarrhea in horses and cattle often produces a hypokalemia. Severe diarrhea and vomiting in dogs and cats can also result in hypokalemia. Saliva is potassium-rich and disorders such as choke in horses and cattle can result in hypokalemia.

187
Q

What electrolyte imbalances will a foal with uroperitoneum have?

A

Hyperkalaemia, azotaemia, hyponatraemia, hypochloraemia, metabolic acidosis.

188
Q

What forms the round ligaments & falciform ligament of the bladder?

A

2 umbilical arteries - become round ligaments of bladder
1 umbilical vein - becomes round ligaments lying within the falciform ligament

Urachus - connects foetal bladder to allantoic cavity.

189
Q

What are curshmanns spirals?

A

Curshmann’s spirals, which are inspissated mucus plugs, may also be visible on cytology
and are suggestive of RAO

190
Q

What metabolic derangements are seen with pre pyloric vomiting and post pyloric vomiting?

A

pre pyloric - metabolic alkalosis, hypovolaemia, hypokalaemia, hypohcloraemia, hypernatraemia

post pyloric - metabolic acidosis, hypovolaemia, hypokalaemia, ypochloraemia, hypernatraemia

191
Q

What is the vaccination protocol for puppies?

A

1st vaccine from 6 weeks old with a second vaccine at minimum of 10 weeks old ( 8& 10 weeks)
Nobivac DHPPI and lepto are given at both vaccinations. then annual booster using DHPPI and lepto 2.

Canine parvovirus
Canine distemper virus
Leptospirosis
Infectious canine hepatitis.
Kennel cough intra nasally - parainfluenza and bordetella bronchiseptica.

at 2nd booster - just Pi and Lepto
at 3rd booster - DHPPI and lepto

192
Q

What are kittens vaccinated for?

A

Feline panleucopenia
Feline herpes virus
Feline calicivirus
Feline leukaemia virus*.

1st at 8 weeks second at 11 weeks (3 weeks in between). Nobivaca used for feline panleucopenia, feline herpes, feline calicivirus and FELV.
Annual vaccination of Novicav tricat and FELV.

FINALS (Copy) (15 decks)

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