Exotics Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common nutritional deficiency suspected in reptiles?

A

Metabolic bone disease

Metabolic bone disease is often linked to inappropriate husbandry practices.

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2
Q

Why are nutritional diseases in pet birds often underreported?

A

Many birds die before the problem is detected

Necropsies are frequently not performed, leading to a lack of reported cases.

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3
Q

What are the overarching goals of exotics/wildlife nutrition?

A
  • Growth
  • Overall health (longevity) - Decreases in infectious and non-infectious diseases
  • +/- Breeding success

Many species still lack known exact nutrient requirements.

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4
Q

What are the goals for exotic feeding strategies?

A
  1. Provide a nutritionally balanced diet
  2. Stimulate natural feeding behaviours
  3. Ensuring the balanced diet is consistently consumed
  4. Practical and economical to feed

Buffet style feeding is discouraged! This method often leads to unbalanced diets as animals do not select appropriately.

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5
Q

What are common health issues related to obesity in captive species?

A

Increased strain on the musculoskeletal system and decreased lifespan

Conditions include dystocia, hepatic lipidosis, and dental disease.

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6
Q

Dietary issues can lead to which dental diseases in rabbits?

A

Inappropriate diet leading to spurs, points, or overgrown teeth

Continuous growth of hypsodont incisors can cause dental problems.

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7
Q

What is aflatoxicosis in birds primarily caused by?

A

Chronic ingestion of low levels of toxins in many seed diets

Aflatoxicosis is a condition resulting from exposure to mycotoxins, particularly aflatoxin produced by Aspergillus species.

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8
Q

Which fungus is associated with aflatoxicosis in birds?

A

Aspergillus spp

Aspergillus species are known to produce aflatoxins, which are harmful to birds when ingested.

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9
Q

What type of seeds are commonly associated with aflatoxicosis?

A

Inappropriately stored seeds and pet-grade peanuts

Poor storage conditions can lead to mold growth, increasing the risk of aflatoxin contamination.

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10
Q

What percentage of bird seed contains more than 100ug of aflatoxin?

A

Up to 25%

This statistic highlights the prevalence of aflatoxin contamination in bird feed.

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11
Q

What are the main pathological effects of aflatoxicosis in birds?

A
  • Hepatic fibrosis and cirrhosis
  • Hepatic carcinoma

These conditions are related to liver damage caused by aflatoxin exposure.

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12
Q

What is one key method for preventing aflatoxicosis in birds?

A

Proper food storage

Proper storage helps to minimize moisture and mold growth, which contributes to aflatoxin production.

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13
Q

To prevent aflatoxicosis in bird food, it is important to maintain …

A

low moisture during food storage.

Low moisture levels are essential to prevent the growth of mold that produces aflatoxins.

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14
Q

What types of seeds or nuts should be used to reduce the risk of aflatoxicosis?

A

Human grade seeds/nuts (screened)

Using human-grade products that are screened can help ensure lower levels of aflatoxin contamination.

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15
Q

What type of herbivore are rabbits classified as?

A

Monogastric, hindgut fermenting, concentrate selecting herbivore

This classification indicates their digestive strategy and dietary preferences.

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16
Q

What role do microbes such as Bacteroides spp play in rabbits?

A

They break down fiber in the hindgut

Microbial fermentation is essential for nutrient absorption in herbivores.

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17
Q

Where and how is fiber broken down in the rabbit GIT?

A

Broken down by microbes (bacteroides spp.) in the hindgut.

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18
Q

What is essential for rabbit diet? Why?

A

High fiber - it stimulates normal GI processes

These processes include secretion, digestion, absorption, peristalsis, cell regeneration, and excretion.

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19
Q

What can inadequate fiber content in a rabbit’s diet lead to?

A
  • Fur chewing (barbering)
  • Trichobezoars
  • GI stasis (+ 2° hepatic lipidosis)
  • Lethargy, anorexia
  • Possibly death
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20
Q

What health issues can arise from excessive energy intake in rabbits?

A
  • Obesity
  • Pododermatitis
  • Urinary tract disease
  • Dental disease
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21
Q

What is coprophagy?

A

The practice of consuming feces, common in rabbits and other rodents

This behavior helps maximize nutrient absorption.

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22
Q

How are dietary fibers classified in the hindgut of rabbits?

A
  • Large (indigestible) fibers
  • Small (digestible) fibers

This classification affects how fibers are processed and utilized. Large fibers are directly eliminated as hard feces while small, digestible fibers are collected in the haustra of colon and are sent back to cecum via reverse peristalsis for fermentation.

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23
Q

What happens to large particles of fiber in rabbits? What is their function?

A

They are eliminated directly as hard fecal pellets - mechanically stimulate the motility of cecum and colon.

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24
Q

What happens to small particles of fiber in rabbits?

A

Smaller particles (<0.3mm) collect in haustra of colon and are sent back to cecum via reverse peristalsis for fermentation

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25
Q

What are cecotrophes?

A

Pellets synthesized in the cecum containing concentrated amounts of amino acids and volatile fatty acids

They are crucial for nutrient absorption and are ingested directly from the anus.

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26
Q

What nutrients are cecotrophes high in?

A
  • Vitamin Bs
  • Vitamin K
  • Protein (28%)
  • Lower fiber content compared to normal pellets

Double the protein and half the fiber of a normal pellet.

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27
Q

What protects the nutrients in cecotrophes from stomach acids?

A

The pellet is coated in membrane of
mucus

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28
Q

When is cecotroph ingestion highest?

A

Cecotroph ingestion is highest when rabbits are fed a diet high in nondigestible fiber.

A high fiber diet encourages normal digestive processes.

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29
Q

What diet composition do ferrets require?

A

High quality protein (>35%) and fat (>20%) diets required.

Low carb and fibre (<5%).

Ferrets are obligate carnivores and need a diet rich in animal protein and fat.

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30
Q

What is the average transit time of food in adult ferrets?

A

3 hours

This rapid transit time is due to their short gastrointestinal tract.

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31
Q

What is the average transit time of food in ferret pups?

A

1 hour

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32
Q

Describe the features of the ferret GIT.

A
  • Short GIT
  • No cecum
  • No ileocolic valve
  • Spontaneously secrete hydrochloric acid
  • Minimal gut flora and few brush border enzymes
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33
Q

What is the maximum time interval ferrets should eat?

A

3 hours

Ferrets eat small meals often, contrasting with many other carnivores that gorge every few days.

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34
Q

What happens to ferrets’ food consumption in winter?

A

20-30% increase

This seasonal increase is normal and helps prepare for energy needs.

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35
Q

What regulates ferret food consumption and weight?

A

Daylight, changes seasonally.

It is inhibited by artificial lighting.

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36
Q

What type of food should be avoided in a ferret’s diet?

A

Diets/treats with sugars and high fiber

These can lead to health issues such as urolithiasis.

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37
Q

Fill in the blank: Ferrets are ________ carnivores.

A

obligate

This means they must eat animal-based diets to thrive.

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38
Q

What is the average number of meals ferrets consume when food is provided ad lib?

A

10 meals/day

This frequent feeding aligns with their natural eating habits.

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39
Q

List the types of animal protein sources appropriate for ferrets.

A
  • Mice
  • Rats
  • Chicks
  • Crickets and mealworms
  • Egg (raw or cooked)

These are common food items in a ferret’s diet.

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40
Q

What is the impact of artificial lighting on ferrets’ food consumption?

A

Inhibits feeding

Natural daylight regulates their food intake.

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41
Q

What type of diets are recommended for ferrets?

A
  • Raw diet (fresh, whole food items)
  • Freeze-dried carnivore diets
  • Ferret-specific diets (e.g., Oxbow, Wysong)

These diets help meet their nutritional needs effectively.

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42
Q

True or False: Seasonal obesity in ferrets is harmful.

A

False

Seasonal obesity is considered normal and ferrets typically return to a slim shape in spring.

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43
Q

What should be the first three food ingredients in a ferret’s diet?

A

Animal protein products

This ensures a high-protein diet essential for their health.

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44
Q

What dietary issues arise from feeding ferrets cheap, dry dog/cat kibble? What do these diets contain?

A

High in fibre and carbs, use of plant proteins.

  • Urolithiasis risk increases (plant protein)
  • Association with or exacerbation of insulinomas

These components can lead to health problems.

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45
Q

How should ferrets be fed early in life?

A

Need to be fed a variety of nutritious foods. Variety of food tastes, textures, smells, and different protein sources as juveniles so their diet has more flexibility as an adult.

Food preferences are set early in life (first few months).

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46
Q

What is a common inappropriate food for ferrets?

A

Sugary treats

These can negatively impact their health and well-being.

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47
Q

What condition is associated with feeding ferrets dog kibble?

A

Pancreatic disease (insulinomas)

This highlights the importance of proper dietary choices for ferrets.

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48
Q

What is an insulinoma?

A

A pancreatic islet beta cell tumor that produces insulin indiscriminately.

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49
Q

In which animal species is insulinoma very common?

A

North American ferrets.

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50
Q

What age range is most affected by insulinoma in ferrets?

A

2-8 years.

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51
Q

What percentage of all neoplasia cases in ferrets does insulinoma represent?

A

Approximately 25%.

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52
Q

What type of diet is associated with a higher incidence of insulinoma in ferrets?

A

High carbohydrate diet (kibble and treats).

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53
Q

How does the incidence of insulinoma differ between North America and other regions like the EU, Australia, and New Zealand?

A

Insulinoma is uncommon in the EU, Australia, and New Zealand due to a low carbohydrate diet.

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54
Q

What are some clinical signs of insulinoma in ferrets?

A
  • Acute hypoglycemia
  • Chronic lethargy
  • Hind end ataxia and weakness
  • Nausea (hypersalivation and pawing at mouth)
  • Depression
  • Star gazing
  • Rarely seizures.

Clinical signs are episodic and worsen with time.

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55
Q

What fasting blood glucose levels indicate a presumptive diagnosis of insulinoma?

A

Very low fasting blood glucose levels of 3.3 to 3.6 mmol/L (normal is 35-250 mmol/L).

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56
Q

What leads to reduced neurological signs and symptoms in suspected insulinoma cases?

A

They lessen after a meal or IV glucose.

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57
Q

What diagnostic methods are typically not helpful for diagnosing insulinoma?

A

Diagnostic imaging, unless the tumor is very large.

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58
Q

What provides a definitive diagnosis for insulinoma?

A

Surgical biopsy and histology.

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59
Q

What is the role of glucocorticoids in the treatment of insulinoma?

A

They boost hepatic gluconeogenesis and decrease tissue uptake of insulin.

Prednisone is commonly used.

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60
Q

What is a common glucocorticoid used in the treatment of insulinoma?

A

Prednisone (0.5 to 2 mg/kg BID).

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61
Q

What is the function of diazoxide in insulinoma treatment?

A

It inhibits pancreatic insulin release.

Effective but very expensive - Usually only started once prednisone dose reaches 2mg/kg (max dose).

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62
Q

What dietary changes are recommended for ferrets with insulinoma?

A
  • High protein
  • Low carbohydrate diet
  • No sweet treats
  • Food available all the time.
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63
Q

How should clients manage hypoglycemic episodes in ferrets?

A

Client education is key!!!
* Corn syrup on gums or under tongue then feed high protein/fat food
* Get to vet quickly

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64
Q

What surgical options are available for treating insulinoma?

A
  • Surgical excision of nodules
  • Partial pancreatectomy.
65
Q

What is the prognosis for ferrets after surgical removal of insulinomas?

A

Generally survive for extended periods after removal, with a survival rate of 1-3 years when combining surgical and medical treatment.

66
Q

True or False: Ferret insulinomas rarely metastasize.

A

True.

67
Q

How does the prognosis for cats and dogs with insulinomas compare to that of ferrets?

A

Cats and dogs have a different prognosis, often not surviving as long as ferrets.

68
Q

Surgical management of insulinomas is only…

A

Palliative. Due to chronic and progressive nature of disease.

69
Q

What factors influence the volume and frequency of feedings for exotics?

A

Varies based on:
* Age
* Reproductive status
* Season
* Molt
* Increase protein required
* Daylight hours
* Temperature
* Hibernation/Brumation (reptiles)

70
Q

What is rickets?

A

Inadequate mineralization of bone due to deficiencies in vitamin D and/or calcium

Typically affects growth plates or physis of long bones in young, growing animals.

71
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

Softening of bone due to mineral loss from a previously mineralized bone

Usually a condition affecting adult animals.

72
Q

What characterizes fibrous osteodystrophy?

A

Replacement of bone with fibrous material

Common feature of nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism (NSHPT) in reptiles.

73
Q

What is the etiology of Metabolic Bone Diseases (MBD)?

A

Multifactorial

Includes absolute calcium deficiency, Ca:P imbalance, vitamin D deficiency, and others.

74
Q

What age group is usually affected by rickets?

A

Young, growing animals.

75
Q

What age group is usually affected by osteomalacia?

A

Osteomalacia primarily affects adult animals.

76
Q

What are some causes of Metabolic Bone Diseases?

A
  • Absolute calcium deficiency
  • Ca:P imbalance
  • Vitamin D deficiency

Others: Vitamin A deficiency, poor husbandry, etc.

The causes can vary and are often multifactorial.

77
Q

What are the two forms of Vitamin D that are important in nutrition?

A

D2 (ergocalciferol) and D3 (cholecalciferol)

D2 is primarily derived from yeast and fungi, while D3 is produced in the skin in response to sunlight.

78
Q

Which mammals can utilize both vitamin D2 and D3?

A

Most mammals

This includes humans, dogs, and cats, among others.

79
Q

Which groups of animals are unable to utilize vitamin D2?

A

New world primates, birds, reptiles, and fish

These animals require Vitamin D3 for their physiological processes.

80
Q

What do many reptiles, such as iguanas, struggle with regarding Vitamin D?

A

They are unable to ingest enough Vitamin D in their diet and therefore require adequate sunlight/UVB exposure.

81
Q

What is necessary for the adequate synthesis of Vitamin D in reptiles?

A

Adequate sunlight/UVB exposure

UVB rays are crucial for the skin’s production of Vitamin D3.

82
Q

True or False: All animals can utilize Vitamin D2 effectively.

A

False

Only most mammals can utilize D2; other groups like reptiles and birds cannot.

83
Q

New world primates, birds, reptiles, and fish require _______ for their Vitamin D needs.

A

D3

84
Q

What is the common name for D2?

A

Ergocalciferol

Ergocalciferol is often used in supplements and fortified foods.

85
Q

What is the common name for D3?

A

Cholecalciferol

Cholecalciferol is produced in the skin when exposed to sunlight.

86
Q

What are the most common species affected by Metabolic Bone Disease (MBD)?

A

Young carnivores, birds, and reptiles

These species show varied clinical signs depending on age and cause.

87
Q

What are some clinical signs of MBD?

A
  • Lameness
  • Bone deformities
  • Fractures and softening of bone
  • Swollen jaws and tooth loss
  • Hypocalcemic tetany
  • Deformed shells (turtles)
  • Paralysis (especially lizards)
  • Poor feathering
  • Deformed/soft eggs (birds and reptiles)
  • Reluctance to climb (primates)

Clinical signs can vary significantly based on species and age.

88
Q

What is a key diagnostic method for MBD?

A

Thorough hx, clinical signs, radiographs, bloodwork.

Radiographs can reveal reduced bone density and cortical thinning.

89
Q

What laboratory values are important in diagnosing MBD?

A
  • Total serum calcium levels
  • Ionized calcium
  • Plasma vitamin D levels

Plasma vitamin D levels may be extremely low in cases of MBD.

90
Q

What is the acute treatment for MBD if seizures occur?

A

Calcium gluconate given IV

91
Q

What is the recommended calcium to phosphorus ratio for chronic MBD treatment?

A

1.5-2:1

92
Q

What should be avoided in injectable vitamin D products for MBD treatment?

A

High levels of vitamin A

93
Q

What dietary components are often deficient in calcium?

A
  • Seeds
  • Muscle/organ meat
  • Fruit
  • Most grains
  • Most insects

A balanced diet is essential for preventing MBD.

94
Q

How should insects be prepared to ensure adequate calcium intake?

A

Gut load insects with high calcium food or dusting insects with calcium prior to feeding.

An example is the Mazuri gut loading diet (8% Ca), done at least 24-48 hours before feeding.

95
Q

What is the UVB wavelength range that is beneficial for calcium uptake?

A

290-315nm

This range is critical for reptiles to improve calcium absorption.

96
Q

What is the recommended action regarding light bulbs for reptiles?

A

Pay attention to expiration dates and distance from the animal

Proper lighting is essential for health and calcium uptake.

97
Q

Fill in the blank: To prevent MBD, animals should have access to _______.

A

unfiltered sunlight or full spectrum light

UVB light is especially important for calcium metabolism.

98
Q

What is a sign that an animal may be suffering from MBD?

A

Facial and long bone swelling

This symptom is particularly noted in primates and carnivores.

99
Q

When should euthanasia be considered in cases of MBD?

A

Euthanasia is an option for animals if long bones and pelvis are not visible on X-ray.

This is a consideration in severe cases of MBD.

100
Q

What are the storage recommendations for pre-killed food items for animals?

A

Properly stored in freezer for < 6 months in thick freezer bags

Proper thawing is also crucial to maintain moisture.

101
Q

What are the key steps in preventing MBD?

A
  • Feeding adequate Ca:P ratios
  • Allow access to unfiltered sunlight/full spectrum light or UVB light (at minimum)
  • Keep reptiles in their POTHZ
102
Q

What is hypovitaminosis A?

A

A deficiency of vitamin A that affects various physiological functions

Vitamin A is essential for cell replication, vision, bone remodeling, epithelial integrity, immune function, and reproduction.

103
Q

What are the clinical signs of hypovitaminosis A in birds?

A

Signs include:
* White plaques in mouth and esophagus
* Blunting of choanal papillae
* Conjunctivitis, sinusitis, respiratory infections
* Poor growth, ataxia, gout
* Occlusion of uropygial gland
* Abnormal feathers
* Squamous metaplasia of salivary glands in parrots

These signs are particularly noted in parrot species.

104
Q

What are generalized clinical signs of hypovitaminosis A across all species?

A

Signs include:
* Poor fertility
* Poor growth rates
* Blindness due to malfunctioning rods

These symptoms indicate a systemic effect of vitamin A deficiency.

105
Q

What dietary sources can correct hypovitaminosis A?

A

Sources include:
* Animal liver
* Dark leafy greens (e.g. dandelions, collards)
* Fortified pellets

106
Q

True or False: Hypervitaminosis A can result from excessive treatment of hypovitaminosis A.

A

True

It is important to monitor vitamin A injections to avoid toxicity.

107
Q

What is the prevention strategy for hypovitaminosis A?

A

Strategies include:
* Ensuring diet has adequate levels of retinol
* Herbivores require precursors like beta-carotene and other carotenoids

Whole prey diets do not require supplementation and can be detrimental if supplemented.

108
Q

Fill in the blank: Deficiencies of vitamin A occur in many exotic species on _______ diets.

A

un-supplemented

This highlights the importance of diet in maintaining adequate vitamin A levels.

109
Q

What specific clinical signs may parrots exhibit due to hypovitaminosis A?

A

Specific signs include:
* Squamous metaplasia of the salivary glands
* Abnormal feathers

These signs are particularly noted in parrot species.

110
Q

What is the role of vitamin A in the body?

A

Vitamin A is essential for:
* Cell replication
* Vision
* Bone remodeling
* Epithelial integrity
* Immune function
* Reproduction

These roles are critical for maintaining overall health and physiological functions.

111
Q

What nutrients are important for reducing free radical damage?

A

Selenium and Vitamin E

These nutrients play a crucial role in protecting cells from oxidative stress.

112
Q

What are the primary functions supported by Selenium and Vitamin E?

A

Reproductive, muscular, circulatory, nervous and immune functions, reducing free radical damage

These functions are vital for overall health and well-being.

113
Q

Which animal species are commonly affected by Vitamin E/Selenium deficiency?

A

Guinea pigs, hamsters and fish

These species are particularly susceptible to the deficiency.

114
Q

What is the most common nutritional disease of captive ruminants?

A

Vitamin E/Selenium deficiency

This deficiency can lead to various health issues in ruminants.

115
Q

Where is Vitamin E/Selenium deficiency a common problem?

A

Eastern North America and parts of Alberta

Geographic variations in soil nutrient levels contribute to this issue.

116
Q

What clinical signs may indicate Vitamin E/Selenium deficiency?

A

White muscle disease, stiffness, paralysis, cardiomyopathy, sudden death

These signs may vary depending on the species affected.

Guinea pigs can also have lethargy and conjunctivitis

117
Q

What age group is most commonly affected by Vitamin E/Selenium deficiency?

A

Young animals, but any age can be affected

Young animals are more susceptible to the clinical manifestations of the deficiency.

118
Q

What is a common sign of deficiency in guinea pigs?

A

Conjunctivitis

This eye condition may be linked to nutritional deficiencies.

119
Q

What treatment is effective for mild cases of Vitamin E/Selenium deficiency?

A

Supplementation with Vitamin E/Se injections

120
Q

What might be necessary for severe cases of Vitamin E/Selenium deficiency?

A

Supportive care, muscle relaxants and sedatives - poor response.

Severe deficiencies may not respond well to supplementation alone.

121
Q

What is an important preventive measure against Vitamin E/Selenium deficiency?

A

Ensure adequate levels in diet

Diet formulation should consider species and age variation.

122
Q

What should be measured to help prevent Vitamin E/Selenium deficiency?

A

Vitamin E serum levels

Monitoring serum levels can guide dietary supplementation.

123
Q

Fill in the blank: Neonatal hoof stock should receive a _______ injection within the first 24-48 hours in deficient areas.

A

vitamin E/Se

Early supplementation is critical for young animals in areas known for deficiencies.

124
Q

What is the recommended supplementation of Vitamin E for fish and high fat diets?

A

100 IU vitamin E/kg fish

This dosage aims to address potential deficiencies in aquatic species.

125
Q

True or False: Vitamin E/Selenium deficiency can lead to sudden death, especially when the animal is stressed.

A

True

Stress can exacerbate the effects of the deficiency.

126
Q

What is a notable pathology associated with Vitamin E/Selenium deficiency?

A

Skeletal muscle necrosis

This condition can lead to significant functional impairment.

127
Q

What should be followed to prevent degradation of dry foods that contain Vitamin E?

A

Expiry dates

Ensuring the freshness of food is crucial for maintaining nutrient levels.

128
Q

What is a common problem in fish eaters?

A

Thiamin deficiency - due to enzyme thiaminase that is activated in fish after death.

Thiamin deficiency is particularly prevalent among certain species like pelicans, penguins, marine mammals, some snakes, amphibians, and fish.

129
Q

What activates thiaminase in fish?

A

Thiaminase is activated after death in fish

This enzymatic activity negatively impacts thiamine availability.

130
Q

Which fish has a higher thiaminase content, smelt or goldfish?

A

Smelt

Smelt is known to have a greater concentration of thiaminase compared to goldfish.

131
Q

How does freezing affect thiaminase in fish?

A

Freezing enhances thiaminase activity

This can lead to increased risks of thiamin deficiency after consumption.

132
Q

What are some clinical signs of thiamin deficiency?

A
  • Anorexia
  • Weight loss
  • Ataxia
  • Limb paralysis
  • Tremors
  • Seizures
  • Stargazing
  • Cardiac failure
  • Loss of equilibrium
  • Edema
  • Poor growth in fish

These signs manifest due to the neurological and physiological impacts of thiamin deficiency.

133
Q

What is a recommended treatment for animals on thiaminase-containing diets?

A

Supplement diet with thiamine (30-35 mg/kg of fish)

This supplementation helps alleviate the effects of thiamin deficiency.

134
Q

Which animals cannot synthesize ascorbic acid?

A

Most primates, bats, cavies (guinea pigs, capybaras), some birds, fish, and some cetaceans

These animals lack the enzyme necessary to convert glucose to ascorbic acid.

135
Q

What enzyme is lacking in animals that leads to Vitamin C deficiency?

A

The enzyme that converts glucose to ascorbic acid

This enzyme deficiency is the reason for the inability to synthesize Vitamin C.

136
Q

What are some clinical signs of Vitamin C deficiency?

A
  • Poor coat and skin condition
  • Lameness
  • Stomatitis
  • Muscle and joint hemorrhage
  • ‘Broken Back Disease’ in fish
  • Swelling at long bone epiphyses and CC junctions - fractures
  • Increased susceptibility to infectious disease
  • Anorexia
  • Diarrhea
137
Q

What is ‘Broken Back Disease’ associated with?

A

‘Broken Back Disease’ is associated with Vitamin C deficiency in fish

This condition is one of the clinical signs indicating the deficiency.

138
Q

What dietary changes can help prevent Vitamin C deficiency?

A
  • Commercial diets fortified with Vitamin C
  • Balanced diet - Green vegetables and fruits

A balanced diet including specific foods is crucial for preventing deficiency.

139
Q

How long should commercial diets fortified with Vitamin C be fed?

A

Within 90 days due to oxidation

Vitamin C can degrade over time, making timely feeding important.

140
Q

Which types of foods generally have low to no Vitamin C?

A
  • Seeds
  • Animal tissues

These food types are not reliable sources of Vitamin C.

141
Q

What can excess Vitamin C enhance in certain species?

A

Iron toxicity

This is particularly noted in fruit bats and lemurs, where excess intake can lead to health complications.

142
Q

What are rabbits prone to developing?

A

Uroliths

Guinea pigs and chinchillas are prone to uroliths to a lesser degree.

143
Q

What factors contribute to the development of uroliths in rabbits?

A

• Obesity and limited exercise
• Fed alfalfa pellets/hay free-choice as adults
• Over-supplementation with vitamins or minerals

144
Q

How is serum calcium regulated in rabbits?

A

Not regulated in a narrow range; excreted in high concentrations in urine.

145
Q

What are common signs of urinary sludge and/or calculi in rabbits?

A
  • Frequent urination
  • Dribble urine
  • Damp hindquarters
  • Straining to urinate
  • Hunched posture and grinding teeth
  • Thick and white urine (sludge)
  • Blood in urine
  • Loss of appetite
146
Q

What indicates that a rabbit’s urinary system may be blocked?

A

Straining to urinate and other signs of urinary sludge.

147
Q

What type of teeth do rabbits have?

A

Hypsodont incisors

Continuous growth or ‘open ended’ growth up to 10-12 cm/year.

148
Q

What dental issues can arise from an inappropriate diet in rabbits?

A

• Spurs
• Points
• Overgrown teeth
• ‘Slobbers’
• Anorexia
• GI stasis and dysbiosis
• Hepatic lipidosis

149
Q

What is the recommended diet for growing or lactating rabbits?

A

• Commercial legume-based (alfalfa) pellet ad lib
• 16-18% protein
• At least 16% fiber
• Grass hay ad lib
• Veggies (handful/day, avoiding spinach and cabbage)

150
Q

What should the maintenance diet for adult rabbits include?

A

• Non-legume based (timothy) pellet (30-60 grams/kg/day)
• 12-14% protein
• 20-25% fiber
• < 2.5% fat
• < 1% calcium recommended
• Grass hay ad lib

151
Q

What are the benefits of hay for rabbits?

A
  1. High fiber and ideal calcium to phosphorus ratio
  2. Good behavioral enrichment
  3. Reduces aggression
  4. Reduces excessive grooming and fur chewing
  5. Reduces chewing on inappropriate objects
  6. Decreased risk of obesity and pododermatitis
  7. Reduced risk of uroliths, dental and infectious disease
152
Q

Fill in the blank: The urine of a rabbit with sludge may appear _______.

A

Thick and white

153
Q

True or False: Adult rabbits should be fed a diet with a high calcium content.

A

False

< 1% calcium is recommended for adult maintenance diets.

154
Q

What is a potential consequence of feeding rabbits less than 15% fiber?

A

Diarrhea and anorexia

155
Q

What is obesity and arthrosclerosis commonly seen in?

A

Captive parrots

Especially prevalent in African greys and Amazons.

156
Q

What are the risk factors for obesity and arthrosclerosis in parrots?

A

Long term diets high in fat and cholesterol, perch potatoes, age, concurrent hepatic lipidosis, and right-sided heart failure

These factors contribute significantly to the health issues observed.

157
Q

What are the clinical signs of obesity and arthrosclerosis in parrots?

A

Acute death, dyspnea, lethargy, paresis, and collapse

These signs indicate severe health deterioration.

158
Q

How is obesity and arthrosclerosis diagnosed in parrots?

A

At necropsy

159
Q

What prevention strategies can help reduce obesity and arthrosclerosis in parrots?

A

Improve diet and exercise, omega 3 fatty acids (PUFAs)

Omega 3 fatty acids can inhibit vasculitis and reduce plaque formation.