Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

dpt 516 > Exercise Principles > Flashcards

Exercise Principles Flashcards

1
Q

where are muscle spindles located?

A

within extrafusal muscles fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what do muscles spindles do?

A

detect muscle length changes

monitor velocity and duration of stretch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

muscles spindles are constantly used in ___ and ____ _____ _____

A

tone, protection of muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the GTO?

A

located within the tendon to protect from over stretch

stimulated by tension of passive stretch or muscle contraction

produces relaxation of muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the indications for PROM?

A

unable to move actively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the goals of PROM?

A

maintain joint/soft tissue mobility

prevent contracture/adaptive shortening

enhance nutrition to cartilage and other joint-related structures

improve circulation and assist with healing

stimulation of mechano, proprioceptors

demonstration of desired activity

assessment purposes

relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the contraindications of PROM?

A

when motion may disrupt healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the indications for AAROM?

A

muscle strength is between trace and poor

when apprehension or pain is present

when guidance is needed for correct performance of an activity

when muscle activation is allowed or desired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the goals of AAROM?

A

same as those noted for PROM

provides some assistance to weak muscle and thus promotes N-M re-education, strengthening, ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the contraindications for AAROM?

A

when movement would disrupt the healing process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the indications for AROM?

A

when muscle is capable of voluntary contraction and is desired

must have fair grade to perform against gravity

precursor to resistance exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the goals of AAROM?

A

as for PROM

maintain muscle contractibility

diminished bone resorption

diminishes muscular effects of hypomobility

limited ability to strengthen (< 3/5 strength)

enhances neuro-muscular performance

promotes independence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the contraindications for AROM?

A

unstable cardiac condition

disruption of healing muscle/tendon s/p tear/repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is static stretching?

A

1.)Stretch held at greatest length for period of time

2.)Hold minimum 15-30 sec

3.)Less force required and therefore safer

4.)Less energy required and therefore easier

5.)Facilitated GTO, inhibits Muscle Spindle

6.)Performed manually or mechanically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is ballistic stretching?

A

1.)Quick movements used to impose change in soft tissue length

2.)Initiated by antagonists to muscles being stretched

3.)Increased risk of injury, soreness

4.)Appropriate for certain populations only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is active inhibition stretching (PNF)?

A

1.)Enhancement of muscle relaxation through stimulation of GTO

2.)Use of antagonist muscle to those being stretch without quick or forceful motions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the indications for stretching?

A

1.)Mobility impairment due to contractures, adhesions,

scar tissue, etc that leads to shortening of periarticular soft tissue

2.)When mobility impairment may lead to preventable
structural deformity

3.)When mobility impairments effect function

4.)To enhance strengthening activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the goals of stretching?

A

1.)Restoration of optimal mobility of joints and periarticular soft tissue

2.)Prevention of injury

3.)Achieve optimal function!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the precautions for stretching?

A

New Fracture

Osteoporosis

Vigorous stretching after period of immobilization

Significant pain > 24 hours post procedure

Edematous tissue

Chronically weak muscles

Transient vs long term force production decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are the contraindications to stretching?

A

Bony block limitation

Active inflammation

Sharp pain with movement

When limited mobility is functionally desirable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are slow oxidative (type 1) fibers?

A

small diameter

red

aerobic metabolism

slow, longer lasting contraction (100-200 msec)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are fast oxidative-glycolytic (type 2b) fibers?

A

intermediate diameter

aerobic and anaerobic metabolism

fast force production, less endurance (<100 msec)

transitional fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are fast glycolytic (type 2b) fibers?

A

large diameter

white in color

anaerobic metabolism

strong, rapid, yet short lasting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what determines the amount of force developed by a muscle?

A

the fiber type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

do type 1 or type 2 fibers atrophy first?

A

type 1???

99% sure this is supposed to be type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

do type 1 or 2 fibers have a smaller diameter and less force generating capabilities?

A

type 1 fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what muscle arrangment is best for force production?

A

pennate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what muscle arrangement is best for excursion?

A

long, parallel muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the SAID principle?

A

Specific Adaptable to Imposed Demands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are ways to progress an exercise?

A

more weight, more sets, more reps, higher levels, more exercises, less rest, more difficulty, changing type, changing exercise, more sessions/week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what happens when we perform strengthening?

A

hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

how long does it generally take for hypertrophy?

A

4-8 weeks of moderate to high intensity resistance training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

when is hypertrophy thought to be the greatest?

A

in eccentrics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what fibers most readily hypertrophy?

A

type 2b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what are the determinants of resistance exercises?

A

Alignment

Stabilization

Intensity

Volume

Exercise Order

Frequency

Rest Interval

Duration

Mode of exercise

Velocity

Periodization

Integration into Functional Activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is external stabilization?

A

manual stabilization by PT or by patient, belts, straps, back of chair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is internal stabilization?

A

isometric contraction of adjacent segments (proximal muscle has to be strong enough)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the overload principle?

A

we have to expose the muscles to loads greater than those usually incurred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what factors determine the intensity of an exercise?

A

volume

frequency

order of exercise

length of rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

t/f: intensity of exercise is generally lower in rehab settings

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is submax loading?

A

Early stages of soft tissue healing: protection

After prolonged immobilization:

—> Artic cartilage not able to withstand full load

—-> Possible bone demineralization (Inc risk of pathological fx

—-> Evaluate pts response to exercises

Initially learning an exercises (looking for correct form)

Most children and older adults

Goal is muscle endurance

Warm-up & cool-down

Slow velocity isokinetic training to minimize joint compressive forces

42
Q

what is max loading?

A

Goal is to inc muscle strength & power and possibly size

Otherwise healthy population in advanced stages of rehab programs post msk injury (preparation for return to high demand occupation or recreational activities

In conditioning programs with no known pathology

Competitive weight lifting or body building

43
Q

what is rep max?

A

maximum amount of weight a muscle can move through full available ROM with control a specific # of times

44
Q

t/f: assessing for 1 RM is usually unsafe for pts

A

true, it better to use 6-10 rep max

45
Q

what is form fatigue?

A

point at which patients performance technique begins to degrade (reduced ROM and unable to stabilize)

46
Q

in a sedentary untrained pt, what % RM should they initially be working at?

A

30-40% RM

47
Q

in a healthy untrained pt, what % RM should they initially be working at?

A

40-70%

48
Q

in a highly trained pt, what % RM should they initially be working at?

A

80%

49
Q

t/f: you should start pts at lower % RM to teach form

A

true

50
Q

t/f: elderly and children should initially work at low to moderate % RM

A

true

51
Q

if a pt has significant strength deficits, what % RM should they initially work at?

A

30-50% RM

52
Q

what is the volume of exercises?

A

total reps and sets

53
Q

how many reps should the average untrained pt be doing at 75% RM?

A

10 reps

54
Q

how many reps should the average untrained pt be doing at 60% RM?

A

15 reps

55
Q

how many reps should the average untrained pt be doing at 90% RM?

A

4-5 reps

56
Q

what is the Delorm method for RM?

A

find 10 RM and slowly increase % RM

10x @ 50% 10RM

10x @75% 10RM

10x @ 100% 10RM

warm up and rest periods built in

57
Q

what is the Oxford method for RM?

A

find 10 RM

10x @ 100% 10RM

10x @75% 10RM

10x @ 50% 10RM

reduces fatigue

specific to patient

no warm-up

58
Q

what is the Dapre method of RM?

A

find 6 RM

set #1: 10x @ 50% 6RM

set #2: 10x @ 75% 6RM

set #3: Max reps @ 6RM

set #4: Max reps at adjusted RM

eliminates arbitrary progression

more room for error

59
Q

what is the common recommendation for sets for adults?

A

2-4

60
Q

t/f: a single set of low intensity is common in very early rehab phase

A

true

61
Q

when fatigue is no longer achieved with exercise, what should be done?

A

increased sets or resistance (lower reps if increased resistance)

62
Q

how do do we work endurance?

A

do many reps at submaximal load

high reps with low load

3-5 sets of 40-50 reps

use early in rehab

63
Q

when increasing the reps and sets in inefficient, what should be done?

A

increased resistance

64
Q

should large or small muscle groups be exercised first?

A

large

65
Q

should single or multiple jt exercises be done first?

A

single jt exercises

66
Q

should high or lower intensity exercises be done first?

A

high intensity

67
Q

t/f: initially do multiple session per day, then move to 3-5 days a week

A

true

68
Q

how many sessions should the elderly and children do per week?

A

2-3

69
Q

what are the early strength gains due to?

A

neural adaptations

70
Q

when does muscles hypertrophy usually begin?

A

6-12 weeks

71
Q

___ intensity=____ rest

A

greater, greater

72
Q

how long should rest bw sets be with moderate intensity exercises?

A

2-3 minutes

73
Q

how long should rest bw sets be with high intensity multi jt exercises?

A

> 3 minutes

74
Q

__ hour rest bw sessions is recommended

A

48

75
Q

t/f: more muscle mass/higher loads require longer rest periods

A

true

76
Q

what are the 3 forms of resistance?

A

manual

accomodative

resistance

77
Q

concentrics with increased velocity=____ force production

A

reduced

78
Q

eccentrics with increased velocity=____ force production

A

increased

79
Q

what elements of exercise require proprioception?

A

agility

balance

coordination

80
Q

what is a key factor in the ability to perform tasks with dexterity, mastery, and proficiency

A

proprioceptors

81
Q

what are somatic receptors?

A

sensory receptors (other than eyes ears, nose, and mouth) that provide afferent info to the CNS

82
Q

what are the 3 groups of somatic receptors?

A

exteroreceptors

interoceptors

proprioceptors

83
Q

what are exteroreceptors?

A

provide info on the external environment

84
Q

what are interoreceptors?

A

provide info about body’s internal environment

85
Q

what are proprioceptors?

A

provide info about body or segment’s position in space

86
Q

what is proprioception?

A

the body’s ability to transmit position sense, interpret info and respond consciously or unconsciously to this stimulation through appropriate execution of posture and movement

87
Q

what are examples of proprioception?

A

position sense w/o visual input

balance maintenance

smooth writing

jump, run, cut and throw

all activities of life

88
Q

what is kinesthesia?

A

sensation of limb movement and position

89
Q

where are mechanoreceptors in the body?

A

skin, jts, ligs, muscles, tendons

90
Q

what are the requirements for balance?

A

proprioception

oculomotor system

vestibular system

strength

91
Q

what is a common balance assessment?

A

star excursion balance test (SEBT) with 8 vector positions

92
Q

what is the principle of overflow in exercise?

A

with increased voluntary effort or prolonged effort, motor activity spreads to additional motor units of the same muscle and to motor units of other muscles

93
Q

what are the requirements for coordination?

A

balance

activity perception

feedback and feedforward

repetition

inhibition

94
Q

what is the feedback system?

A

interpretation of mss, visual, auditory, several other afferent systems to the results of the action then makes appropriate adjustments

95
Q

what is the feedforward system?

A

response to the environment
based on previous knowledge and activity that can give the body info by which it can perform the activity with accuracy and predictability

not based on error correction but on previous experience

96
Q

what is agility?

A

ability to control direction of body or segment during rapid movement

involves rapid changes in direction and sudden stops and starts

97
Q

what are the requirements for agility?

A

coordination

flexibility

speed

power

skill

98
Q

how do we progress agility?

A

start with simple task drills

increased complexity or speed of task

99
Q

what is the flow to regain proprioception?

A

balance–>coordination–>agility

100
Q

what are age related changes?

A
  1. Infants are weak strengthening

occurs by spontaneous movements

  1. Increased strength during maturation
  2. 18-30 y.o. greatest potential to gain strength
  3. Elderly increase strength due to neural factors,

increased fatigability and disuse

101
Q

what is immediate muscle soreness due to?

A

inadequate blood flow, oxygen, build up of lactic acid

102
Q

what is DOMS?

A

12-48 hrs post exercise soreness involving microtears

dpt 516 (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions