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PSYCH 210 - Personality > EXAMS 4 > Flashcards

EXAMS 4 Flashcards

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1
Q

Kody Scott, a gang member nicknamed “Monster,” is a violent person who craves
excitement, fears nothing, and has no guilt feelings. Scott most likely has _____ personality
disorder.

A

antisocial

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2
Q

Personality disorders usually include the following problems EXCEPT:

A

deficits in intelligence.

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3
Q

Personality disorders can be thought of as:

A

maladaptive variations or combinations of normal personality traits.

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4
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true about motivation as a building block of
personality disorders?

A

Variations in normal personality traits are not related to maladaptive personality disorders.

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5
Q

The field of _____ psychology is the study of the various mental disorders, including
thought disorders, emotional disorders, and personality disorders.

A

abnormal

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6
Q

A statistical definition of abnormal focuses on:

A

characteristics that are rare in a given population.

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7
Q

Both statistical and social definitions of abnormality _____.

A

suffer from changing times and changing social or cultural norms

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8
Q

The fourth edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSMIV):

A

was based on a categorical view of personality disorders.

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9
Q

_____ is an enduring pattern of experience and behavior that differs greatly from the
expectations of an individual’s culture.

A

A personality disorder

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10
Q

A behavioral problem is NOT considered a personality disorder if it:

A

results from drug abuse.

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11
Q

All forms of personality disorder involve:

A

impaired social relationships.

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12
Q

According to _____, a person either has a disorder or does not have a disorder.

A

a categorical view of personality disorders

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13
Q

_____ holds that there is a qualitative break between abnormal and normal personalities.

A

A categorical view of personality disorders

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14
Q

According to a dimensional view of personality disorders, each disorder:

A

is seen as a continuum, ranging from normality at one end to severe disability or
disturbance at the other.

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15
Q

Modern personality theorists argued that the _____ view of personality disorders provides
a reliable and meaningful way to describe _____.

A

dimensional; the personality disorders

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16
Q

Adolescents who experiment with different identities:

A

do not necessarily have a personality disorder.

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17
Q

Chinn has recently shifted to Buffalo, New York from Singapore. He usually seems
depressed and withdrawn. Chinn’s problems are most likely due to:

A

his recent shift to Buffalo.

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18
Q

People with _____ personality disorder have also been referred to as sociopaths or
psychopaths.

A

antisocial

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19
Q

Ron is 11 years old and enjoys torturing snakes. He disobeys his parents and usually
engages in acts of stealing and destroying property. Ron most likely has _____ personality
disorder.

A

antisocial

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20
Q

Antisocial personality disorder is associated with:

A

aggression and cruelty in childhood.

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21
Q

If a child exhibits no signs of conduct problems by age 16, it is:

A

unlikely that he or she will develop an antisocial personality disorder as an adult.

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22
Q

Which of the following is a key characteristic of antisocial personality disorder?

A

Lack of remorse and guilt feelings

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23
Q

While walking past a toy car in a store, Mark had an impulsive desire to steal it and
quickly slipped it into his pocket. When he was arrested, he lied to the store manager that he
did not steal the toy car and it must have been placed in his pocket by someone else. Mark
most likely has _____ personality disorder.

A

antisocial

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24
Q

People with _____ personality disorder are unlikely to feel remorse when they cause
others to suffer.

A

antisocial

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25
Q

Some researchers have theorized that one cause of _____ personality disorder might be
deficiency in the ability to experience fear.

A

antisocial

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26
Q

Using Jeffrey Gray’s theory of personality to explain antisocial personality disorder, we
might hypothesize that psychopaths have a:

A

weak behavioral inhibition system (BIS).

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27
Q

The lives of persons with borderline personality disorder are primarily marked by:

A

instability.

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28
Q

People with _____ personality disorder have unstable emotions, unstable relationships,
unstable behavior, and unstable images of themselves.

A

borderline

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29
Q

Individuals with _____ personality disorder are most likely to engage in self-mutilating
behavior or attempt suicide in their efforts to manipulate people back into their relationships.

A

borderline

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30
Q

People with _____ personality disorder are most likely to have intense, emotional, and
potentially violent relationships.

A

borderline

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31
Q

Glen Close’s character in the movie Fatal Attraction most likely has _____ personality
disorder.

A

borderline

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32
Q

Which of the following is a key characteristic of borderline personality disorder?

A

Fears of abandonment

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33
Q

All of the following characteristics help borderline persons to experience a satisfying
relationship EXCEPT finding someone:

A

who concentrates on trouble as it occurs.

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34
Q

Many researchers believe that borderline personality disorder is caused by:

A

an early loss of love from parents.

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35
Q

When children come to believe that others are not to be trusted, they are most likely to

A

borderline

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36
Q

People with _____ personality disorder are often sexually provocative in inappropriate
ways.

A

histrionic

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37
Q

Which of the following are the hallmarks of histrionic personality disorder?

A

Excessive attention seeking and emotionality

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38
Q

oger loves to be the center of attention. He usually seeks attention by being overly
dramatic and changes his opinions suddenly. Roger most likely has _____ personality
disorder.

A

histrionic

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39
Q

A woman who wears excessive makeup, has an overly elaborate hairstyle, and dresses in
flashy clothes is most likely to be diagnosed with _____ personality disorder.

A

histrionic

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40
Q

Socially, histrionic individuals are difficult to get along with, due to their excessive need
for:

A

attention.

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41
Q

In the context of the erratic cluster of personality disorders, which of the following
disorders is characterized by a strong need to be admired, a strong sense of self-importance,
and a lack of insight into other people’s feelings?

A

Narcissistic personality disorder

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42
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the narcissistic paradox?

A

Although narcissists have high self-esteem, their grandiose self-esteem is actually quite
fragile.

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43
Q

Which of the following is a key characteristic of people with narcissistic personality
disorder?

A

They exhibit feelings of entitlement.

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44
Q

Kim has an extremely strong sense of entitlement. She believes that she is the most
important supervisor in her firm and expects others to constantly praise and admire her. Kim
most likely has _____ personality disorder.

A

narcissistic

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45
Q

People who have narcissistic personality disorder:

A

are insensitive to the needs of others.

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46
Q

People with _____ personality disorder most likely experience little pleasure from bodily
or sensory experiences, such as eating or having sex.

A

schizoid

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47
Q

Which of the following is a key characteristic of schizoid people?

A

They often appear inept or socially clumsy

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48
Q

People with _____ personality disorder are more likely to stare at other people without
initiating any social interaction.

A

schizoid

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49
Q

Unlike a schizoid person, a schizotypal person is:

A

acutely uncomfortable in social relationships.

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50
Q

_____ people feel that they are different from others or that they do not fit in with a
group.

A

Schizotypal

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51
Q

Which of the following is a key characteristic of people with schizotypal personalities?

A

They are odd and eccentric and may believe in magic.

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52
Q

A person who experiences unusual sensations that border on hallucinations most likely
has _____ personality disorder.

A

schizotypal

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53
Q

Which of the following traits is NOT part of a questionnaire developed for assessing
schizotypal traits and published by Mason, Claridge, and Jackson (1995)?

A

Conformity

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54
Q

People with _____ personality disorder are extremely distrustful of others and see others
as constant threats.

A

paranoid

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55
Q

_____ is a common manifestation of paranoid personality disorder.

A

Pathological jealousy

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56
Q

Gerta suspects that her husband is unfaithful, even though there is no objective evidence
of infidelity. She goes to great lengths to find support for her jealous beliefs and restricts his
activities. She does not believe his accounts of how he spent his time or his claims of
faithfulness. Gerta is most likely to be diagnosed with _____ personality disorder.

A

paranoid

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57
Q 
Maggie Scarf (1996), a reporter writing in the New Republic magazine, presented her
view that Ted Kaczynski most likely had \_\_\_\_\_ personality disorder.
A

narcissistic

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58
Q

Which of the following terms best illustrates the fact that although a behavior pattern
successfully solves one problem for a person, it may create or maintain another equally or
more severe problem?

A

The neurotic paradox

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59
Q

A pervasive feeling of inadequacy and sensitivity to criticism from others is a salient
feature of _____.

A

avoidant personality disorder

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60
Q

People with avoidant personality disorder:

A

restrict their activities to avoid potential embarrassments.

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61
Q

Which of the following is a key characteristic of avoidant personality disorder?

A

Fear of criticism or disapproval

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62
Q

Elika refuses to present a topic in psychology in front of her class. She is extremely
worried about her professor’s and classmates’ reactions to her ideas and fears being criticized.
Her refusal to present the topic is most likely a sign of _____ personality disorder.

A

avoidant

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63
Q

Francis believes in ghosts and spends most of his time reading about ghosts and visiting
haunted houses. He feels that other people are looking at him and hears murmurs that sound
like his name. Francis is most likely to be diagnosed with _____ personality disorder.

A

schizotypal

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64
Q

People with an excessive need to be taken care of most likely have _____ personality
disorder.

A

dependent

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65
Q

Linda has trouble working independently and is willing to tolerate abuse and submit to
unreasonable demands of her colleagues. She avoids disagreements at all costs. Linda most
likely has _____ personality disorder.

A

dependent

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66
Q

Which of the following is a key characteristic of dependent persons?

A

They have an excessive need to be taken care of.

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67
Q

A person who is preoccupied with order and strives to be perfect most likely has _____
personality disorder.

A

obsessive-compulsive

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68
Q

People with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder are likely to:

A

hold very high standards for themselves.

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69
Q

Which of the following is a key characteristic of people with obsessive-compulsive
personality disorder?

A

They show devotion to work at the expense of leisure and friendships.

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70
Q

Alejandro goes to church every Sunday and is inflexible with regard to morals and ethics.
He is most likely to be diagnosed with _____ personality disorder.

A

obsessive-compulsive

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71
Q

In the context of the prevalence rates of personality disorders, _____ personality disorder
is the most common disorder.

A

obsessive-compulsive

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72
Q

At any given time, approximately _____ percent of a given population is diagnosable with
a personality disorder of one or more types.

A

13

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73
Q

Which of the following terms can be best defined as the presence of two or more disorders
in one person?

A

Comorbidity

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74
Q

Which of the following personality disorders has the most disparate gender distribution,
which occurs in men with a prevalence rate of about 4.5 percent and in women at only about a
0.8 percent prevalence rate?

A

Antisocial personality disorder

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75
Q

According to a dimensional model of personality disorders, _____ results in avoidant
personality disorder.

A

extreme introversion accompanied by extremely high neuroticism

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76
Q

According to a dimensional model of personality disorders, histrionic personality disorder
is characterized as extreme:

A

extraversion.

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77
Q

The fifth edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5)
maintains a _____ model of personality disorders.

A

categorical

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78
Q

In the context of the prevalence rates of personality disorders, the least common disorder
is _____ personality disorder.

A

narcissistic

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79
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the ways in which personality interacts with
situations?

A

Satisfaction

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80
Q

People consider personality traits mostly when they _____ friends.

A

select

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81
Q

When a person’s behavior unintentionally elicits a certain response from another person, we
observe:

A

evocation.

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82
Q

An amicable person usually elicits a friendly and polite reaction from others; this situation
best exemplifies _____.

A

evocation

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83
Q

Influencing other people’s behavior intentionally is known as:

A

manipulation

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84
Q

A scenario in which a boy persuades his brother to steal some candy demonstrates the
concept of:

A

manipulation.

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85
Q

According to international research, the characteristic most desirable in a mate is:

A

mutual attraction or love.

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86
Q

Which of the following plays a central role in what people worldwide look for in a longterm
mate?

A

Personality characteristics

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87
Q

The complementary needs theory states that individuals are attracted to those who:

A

have different personality dispositions than they have.

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88
Q

Francis, who is a miserable cook, is looking for a spouse who is a wonderful cook.
Francis’ preference for someone who cooks well best supports the _____ hypothesis on
human mating.

A

complementary needs

89
Q

_____ suggests that individuals are married to people who are similar to themselves.

A

Assortative mating

90
Q

Investigators have found evidence for assortative mating:

A

for almost every variable that has been investigated.

91
Q

In a matrimonial advertisement, Samantha mentions that she is very outgoing,
conscientious, and open to experience and that she is looking for similar characteristics in her
potential mate. Her advertisement best supports the _____ hypothesis of mate selection.

A

assortative mating

92
Q

According to the assortative mating phenomenon, individuals who score high on
extraversion scales will prefer potential mates who score high on:

A

extraversion

93
Q

Botwin and colleagues found that individuals preferred mates with personality traits that:

A

were similar to their own personality traits.

94
Q

Correlations between the preferences that individuals express for the ideal personality
characteristics of their mates and the actual personality characteristics of their obtained mates
are:

A

moderately positive.

95
Q

People whose ratings of their preferred partner are close to the personality characteristics
of the person they are married to are:

A

no different from other people in terms of marital satisfaction.

96
Q

People who are married to someone who scores high on all of the following personality
traits EXCEPT _____ tend to be more satisfied in their relationships than individuals whose
spouses score low on this trait.

A

extraversion

97
Q

People who are married to an individual who scores high on agreeableness report higher
levels of marital satisfaction:

A

irrespective of their spouse scoring high or low on other personality traits.

98
Q

Women married to men who score high on intellect-openness rate the:

A

love and affection expressed facet of marital satisfaction as being high.

99
Q

According to the violation of desire theory, people are most likely to break up with mates:

A

who lack the desired personality characteristics such as dependability, emotional stability,
or pleasing disposition in a mate.

100
Q

According to George Kelly and Conley (1987), _____ has been the most consistent
personality predictor of marital instability and divorce.

A

emotional instability

101
Q

In the context of personality and the selective breakup of couples, which of the following
is a salient feature of emotionally unstable individuals?

A

They worry more about a partner’s infidelity.

102
Q

Low levels of which of the following personality traits is NOT correlated with a higher
likelihood of divorce or breakup in a relationship?

A

Intellect-openness

103
Q

According to the _____, breakups should occur more when one’s desires are violated than
when they are fulfilled.

A

violation of desire theory

104
Q

_____ is defined as a tendency to feel tense, anxious, or worried during social interactions
or even when anticipating a social interaction.

A

Shyness

105
Q

When evaluating the effects of shyness on the selection of situations, shy women have
been found to be _____.

A

less likely to see a gynecologist

106
Q

Shy people engage in all of the following behaviors EXCEPT that they:

A

are more likely to get divorced.

107
Q

The following are all examples of how personality traits guide the selection of situations
EXCEPT that individuals scoring high on:

A

sensation seeking avoid risky situations.

108
Q

Individuals who score high on sensation seeking scales prefer NOT to select situations
that:

A

consist of a series of highly-repetitive tasks.

109
Q

Highly active children tend to elicit hostility and competitiveness from others. This
exemplifies:

A

evocation.

110
Q

Aggressive people tend to evoke _____ from others.

A

hostility

111
Q

Which of the following terms is best defined as a tendency to infer negative intent on the
part of others in the face of ambiguous behavior from them?

A

Hostile attributional bias

112
Q

While walking down a street, Jonathon accidentally bumps into Jessica who is highly

aggressive. She starts yelling at him and hits him because she feels that he bumped into her
intentionally. This scenario best exemplifies _____.

A

a hostile attributional bias

113
Q

Which of the following situations does NOT demonstrate evocation?

A

When a wife nags her husband to get something accomplished

114
Q

Husbands who score low on conscientiousness tend to upset their wives by:

A

having extramarital affairs.

115
Q

Husbands who score low on _____ tend to evoke anger in their wives by being
condescending, neglecting and rejecting them, abusing them, committing infidelity, abusing
alcohol, insulting her appearance, and exhibiting self-centeredness.

A

extraversion

B. agreeableness

116
Q

People who score _____ tend to evoke anger and upset in their spouses.

A

low on agreeableness

117
Q

Individuals who are highly agreeable tend to evoke _____ than individuals who score low
on agreeableness.

A

far less interpersonal conflict

118
Q

_____ is a phenomenon whereby people’s beliefs about the personality characteristics of
others cause them to evoke in others actions that are consistent with their initial beliefs.

A

Expectancy confirmation

119
Q

The phenomenon of expectancy confirmation has also been called:

A

self-fulfilling prophecy.

120
Q

In a study conducted by Snyder and Swann (1978)—in which participants were made to
believe that they would be dealing with a hostile and aggressive individual before two
individuals were introduced—it was found that _____.

A

the participants’ beliefs led them to act in an aggressive manner toward the unsuspecting
target

121
Q

Looking at Diana’s photos on a social networking site, Simon assumes that she is an
extravert. When they meet for the first time, Simon elicits a talkative and energetic response
from an otherwise quiet and dull Diana. This scenario most likely exemplifies _____.

A

expectancy confirmation

122
Q

A(n) _____ is a classification scheme that involves the identification and naming of
groups within a particular subject field.

A

taxonomy

123
Q

A taxonomy of manipulation tactics was developed through:

A

a two-step procedure that involved nominations of acts of influence and factor analysis of
self-reports and observer-reports of the previously nominated acts.

124
Q

The manipulation tactic of _____ mostly involves yelling at someone.

A

coercion

125
Q

_____ is the only tactic of manipulation with a small difference between men and
women.

A

Regression

126
Q

Which of the following is an example of regression?

A

Whining

127
Q

Which of the following is an example of the hardball manipulation tactic?

A

Hitting someone

128
Q

Which of the following manipulation tactics primary involves telling others that
“everyone else is doing it”?

A

Social comparison

129
Q

Showing someone how much fun it will be to do an activity is an example of the _____
manipulation tactic.

A

pleasure induction

130
Q

Research on sex differences in tactics of manipulation has found that:

A

men and women use the different tactics almost equally.

131
Q

Kiara’s 16-year-old son, Samuel, dislikes chopping vegetables. She wants him to help her
in the kitchen and shows him different techniques of chopping through online videos. She
makes Samuel feel that chopping is simple and a whole lot of fun and even promises to buy
him a new chopping board and a set of knives. In this scenario, Kiara is most likely
employing the _____ tactic of manipulation.

A

pleasure induction

132
Q

_____ is a social strategy in which practitioners are quick to betray others.

A

Machiavellianism

133
Q

Which of the following statements would a person scoring high on Machiavellianism
agree with?

A

It is wise to flatter important people.

134
Q

Machiavellian strategies work best:

A

in loosely structured situations.

135
Q

People who score high on Machiavellianism are more likely to pursue a:

A

short-term social strategy.

136
Q

Workers who score high on Machiavellianism make more money:

A

in companies where there are few rules.

137
Q

A study by Wilson et al. showed that people who scored high on Machiavellianism were:

A

more likely to lie about stealing money.

138
Q

Unlike people who score high on dominance, people who score low on dominance are
most likely to use the _____ manipulation tactic.

A

hardball

139
Q

Which of the following is a primary tactic of influence used by highly agreeable people?

A

Reason

140
Q

Unlike high-agreeable individuals, low-agreeable individuals _____.

A

frequently use the silent treatment tactic of manipulation

141
Q

Roger, who scores high on conscientiousness, wants his children to read books. In order to
encourage them to start reading, he is most likely to:

A

explain the benefits of reading in a logical manner.

142
Q

The manipulation tactic most commonly used by people low in emotional stability is:

A

regression.

143
Q

Narcissists exhibit all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A

being apathetic.

144
Q

People who score high on intellect-openness tend to use the manipulation tactic of _____
above all other tactics.

A

reason

145
Q

People who score low on intellect-openness tend to use the manipulation tactic of _____.

A

social comparison

146
Q

According to Baughman et al. (2012), high dark triad scorers were especially prone to
using the _____ of manipulation.

A

hardball tactic

147
Q

Judy chooses friends who admire her and reflect her highly-positive view of herself. Judy
most likely scores high on the personality trait of:

A

narcissism.

148
Q

Narcissists who are very self-aggrandizing tend to evoke _____ in other people.

A

anger

149
Q

Narcissists use a predictable set of manipulation tactics and are _____.

A

highly exploitative of others and would be described as “users”

150
Q

Narcissists react to failure by:

A

derogating other people.

151
Q

The extent to which you value yourself is known as your:

A

self-esteem.

152
Q

The aspects of yourself that you present to others is known as your:

A

social identity.

153
Q

If you describe yourself as an extravert but in reality you are an introvert, then the trait of
extraversion becomes a part of your:

A

social identity.

154
Q

Most people look at _____ first in a photo.

A

their own selves

155
Q

People are especially sensitive to events that challenge their sense of self in:

A

late adolescence.

156
Q

Our sense of self influences:

A

All of the answers are correct.

157
Q

A person who is unable to do well in an exam:

A

feels bad if doing well in the exam was a part of his or her self-concept.

158
Q

People who evaluate their personal characteristics as positive:

A

have high self-esteem.

159
Q

The information on your driver’s license is most likely a part of your:

A

social identity.

160
Q

The self-concept begins to develop as early as:

A

infancy.

161
Q

_____ begins to develop when an infant notices that his or her body is distinct from the
rest of the world.

A

The self-concept

162
Q

Children can follow rules set up by parents when they are around _____ old.

A

2 years

163
Q

Which of the following develops first in children?

A

A knowledge about their gender and age

164
Q

When a person evaluates his or her performance relative to his or her peers, he or she
engages in:

A

social comparison.

165
Q

Ages 5 or 6 onward, children begin to develop:

A

the ability to engage in social comparison and an inner, private self-concept.

166
Q

The development of imaginary friends often indicates that a child has developed:

A

a private self-concept.

167
Q

Perspective taking usually develops when a child is around _____ years old.

A

13

168
Q

In the context of the development of the self-concept, which of the following terms is
defined as the ability to see oneself as others do or to step outside of oneself and imagine how
one appears to other people?

A

Perspective taking

169
Q

Seeing oneself as the object of others’ attention is known as:

A

objective self-awareness.

170
Q

The term _____ refers to the specific knowledge structure, or cognitive representation, of
the self-concept.

A

self-schema

171
Q

Self-schema:

A

guides the processing of information about one’s self.

172
Q

The term “possible selves” describes the many ideas people have about who they:

A

All of the answers are correct.

173
Q

A person who has a possible self of a musician:

A

will most likely be attracted toward musical opportunities.

174
Q

Possible selves:

A

motivate behavior.

175
Q

According to psychologist Tory Higgins, which of the following statements is true about
the ideal self?

A

It is built on one’s own desires and goals.

176
Q

According to psychologist Tory Higgins, which of the following terms refers to a person’s
understanding of what others want him or her to be?

A

Ought self

177
Q

Tory Higgins described _____ as standards that individuals use to organize information
and motivate appropriate behavior.

A

self-guides

178
Q

Self-esteem is the sum of your _____ reactions to all the aspects of your self-concept.

A

positive and negative

179
Q

When people behave in ways that are inconsistent with their self-concepts, _____.

A

they might experience a dip in their self-esteem

180
Q

_____ most likely is a composite of several individual areas of self-evaluation.

A

Global self-esteem

181
Q

Self-esteem measures in an academic domain _____ with self-esteem measures in a
physical appearance domain.

A

correlate moderately

182
Q

A person who agrees with the statement “I feel I do not have much to be proud of” would
score _____ self-esteem.

A

low on global

183
Q

People _____ tend to respond to criticism with decreased motivation.

A

with low self-esteem

184
Q

In a research that looked mainly at how failure feedback affects subsequent performance
on similar tasks and whether failure affects high and low self-esteem persons differently,
Brown and Dutton (1995) found that people who score high on self-esteem tend to:

A

work just as hard on the second task as they did on the first task in which they failed.

185
Q

In a research that looked mainly at how failure feedback affects subsequent performance
on similar tasks and whether failure affects high and low self-esteem persons differently,
Brown and Dutton (1995) found that low self-esteem persons _____.

A

were more concerned with avoiding failure

186
Q

A high self-esteem person will most likely respond to failure by:

A

focusing on other areas in which things are going well.

187
Q

People who want to be socially involved but pass up opportunities to socialize because of
self-doubt and self-consciousness are best described as:

A

shy.

188
Q

People who are shy also:

A

score high on social anxiety.

189
Q

Jerome Kagan has found that about _____ percent of 4-month-old babies exhibit signs of
shyness.

A

20

190
Q

Children who were shy as infants and overcame their shyness in later childhood:

A

were encouraged by their parents to socialize.

191
Q

People who experience discomfort related to social interactions score:

A

high on measures of social anxiety.

192
Q

People who are socially anxious:

A

are less likely to ask for help and are often perceived as unfriendly.

193
Q

To overcome shyness, people should:

A

force themselves into social situations.

194
Q

Which of the following is NOT a concrete step offered by Stocker to help decrease
shyness?

A

Mentally reviewing the aspects of a conversation that did not go well

195
Q

A person with many distinct aspects of his or her self-concept is best described as having:

A

high self-complexity.

196
Q

Unlike people with high self-complexity, people with low self-complexity:

A

are devastated by negative life events.

197
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of defensive pessimists?

A

They use their worry and pessimism in a constructive way.

198
Q

Kiara, a marketing executive, has to create a marketing plan for a new hair dryer.
Although she has worked on similar projects and succeeded, she still feels anxious and is
convinced that she will make a mistake. She puts in extra effort to prepare the plan and
rehearses several times before presenting it to her clients. Her plan is readily accepted by her
clients, as always. This scenario most likely exemplifies _____.

A

defensive pessimism

199
Q

A positive aspect of defensive pessimism is that:

A

it leads to motivation.

200
Q

Which of the following terms is defined as a process in which a person deliberately does
the things that increase the probability that he or she will fail?

A

Self-handicapping

201
Q

Which of the following scenarios best exemplifies self-handicapping?

A

The night before an exam, Rose stays out late and parties with her friends.

202
Q

People who score low in self-esteem are most likely to:

A

All of the answers are correct.

203
Q

An individual difference characteristic that refers to the magnitude of short-term
fluctuations in ongoing self-esteem is known as:

A

self-esteem variability.

204
Q

Self-esteem level and self-esteem variability:

A

are unrelated to each other and often interact to predict important outcomes.

205
Q

According to Ross, Liu, Tomfohr, and Miller (2013), which of the following statements is
true about self-esteem variability?

A

Chronic self-esteem variability is associated with various health risk factors.

206
Q

Gender and ethnicity are necessarily a component of one’s:

A

social identity.

207
Q

The idea that identity remains relatively stable is described as identity:

A

continuity.

208
Q

The idea that people’s identity sets them apart from others is described as identity:

A

contrast.

209
Q

_____ popularized the term “identity” in the 1960s.

A

Erik Erikson

210
Q

Experimentation with different identities is most common in:

A

adolescence.

211
Q

According to Erik Erikson (1968), which of the following terms best describes the
feelings of anxiety that accompany efforts to define or redefine one’s own individuality and
social reputation?

A

Identity crisis

212
Q

According to psychologist Roy Baumeister, _____ arises when a person has not formed an
adequate identity and thus has trouble making major decisions.

A

an identity deficit

213
Q

In the context of Roy Baumeister’s concept of identity crises, which of the following is a
similarity between an identity deficit and an identity conflict?

A

Both commonly occur during adolescence.

214
Q

When individuals discard their parents’ values, they are most likely to experience an
identity:

A

deficit.

215
Q

In the context of Roy Baumeister’s concept of identity crises, which of the following is a
characteristic of an identity conflict?

A

It involves an incompatibility between two or more aspects of identity.

216
Q

Identity conflicts are _____ conflicts.

A

approach-approach

217
Q

Jennifer, a 35-year-old successful businesswoman and a mother, is offered a senior role at
work. The role comes with a hefty paycheck, but it also requires her to move to a new city for
five years. She would have to leave her family behind, especially her 2-year-old daughter, and
miss out on her daughter’s early childhood years. Jennifer loves her job as well as her family
and finds it extremely difficult to make this important decision. In the context of Roy
Baumeister’s concept of identity crises, Jennifer is most likely experiencing _____ in this
scenario.

A

an identity conflict

218
Q

The movie character Lester, played by Kevin Spacey, in the Oscar-winning film American
Beauty most likely exemplifies the concept of:

A

identity crisis.

PSYCH 210 - Personality (2 decks)

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