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PATHO > EXAMS 1 POWERPOINTS > Flashcards

EXAMS 1 POWERPOINTS Flashcards

1
Q

three levels of disease prevention

A

primary (immunization)
secondary (pap smears)
tertiary (antibiotic users)

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2
Q

what is the primary prevention of diseases

A

removing the risk factor so that the diseas does not occur

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3
Q

what’s the secondary prevention of disease

A

detecting the disease when you can still cure it

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4
Q

what’s the tertiary prevention of disease

A

preventing further damage or reducing complications of a disease

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5
Q

when does autocrine signaling occur

A

occurs when a cell releases a chemical into the intercellular fluid that affects its own activity

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6
Q

what cells does paracrine signaling act on

A

nearby cells

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7
Q

endocrine signaling relies on?

A

hormones carried in the bloodstream to cells throughout the body

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8
Q

synaptic signaling occurs in what system?

A

occurs in the nervous system where neurotransmitters act only on adjacent nerve cells

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9
Q

neurotransmitters acts only on?

A

adjacent nerve cells

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10
Q

metabolism is normally aerobic or anaerobic

A

aerobic

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11
Q

what are the byproducts of cellular metabolism

A

lactic and pyruvic acids

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12
Q

what is cellular metabolism

A

chemical task of maintaining essential cellular functions

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13
Q

metabolism provides the cell with energy

A

true

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14
Q

normally, water and electrolyte movement occurs to do what?

A

to equalize concentrations

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15
Q

with injury, cell membrane becomes what?

A

becomes more permeable

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16
Q

examples of passive transport

A

-diffusion
- osmosis
facilitated diffusion

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17
Q

cells adapt to changes in the

A
  • internal environment
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18
Q

cells adapt to increased work demands by changing in??

A
  • size (atrophy and hypertrophy)
  • number (hyperplasia)
  • form (metaplasia)
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19
Q

what is atrophy

A

decrease in cell size

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20
Q

what is hypertrophy

A

increase in cell size

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21
Q

what is metaplasia

A

replacement of adult cells

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22
Q

what is hyperplasia

A

increase in the number of cells

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23
Q

what is dysplasia

A

deranged cell growth of a specific tissue

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24
Q

injuries from physical agents are caused by?

A
  • mechanical forces
  • electric forces
  • extreme temperatures
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25
Q

radiation injury causes

A
  • ionization radiation
  • ultraviolet radiation
  • nonionizing radiation
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26
Q

chemical injury drugs

A
  • drugs
  • carbon tetrachloride
  • lead toxicity
  • mercury
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27
Q

injuries from biological agents are caused by

A

virus
parasite
bacteria

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28
Q

injury from nutritional imbalances causes

A

excesses and deficiencies

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29
Q

what is reversible cell injury

A

impairs cell functions but does not result cell death

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30
Q

what are the two patters of revivable cell injury

A
  • cellular swelling

- fatty change

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31
Q

what is cellular swelling of reversible cell injury

A

impairments of the energy depended on sodium/potassium ATPase membrane pulp. usually as the result of hypoxia cell injury

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32
Q

what is fatty change of reversible cell injury

A

linked to intracellular accumulation of fat

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33
Q

free radicals having unpaired electron causes them to?

A

unstable and highly reactive

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34
Q

what are hypoxic cell injury deprives the cell of what?

A
  • deprives cell of oxygen
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35
Q

hypoxic cell injuries interrupts what?

A

oxidative metabolism and the generation of ATP

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36
Q

the longer a tissue is hypoxic?

A

the greater chance of irreversible cellular injury

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37
Q

what are some causes hypoxia

A
  • edema
  • ischemia
  • respiratory disease
  • inadequate amount of oxygen in the air
  • inability of the cell to use oxygen
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38
Q

apoptosis is equated with what?

A

suicide

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39
Q

the process of apoptosis (fallen apart) eliminates cells that?

A
  • are worn out
  • have been produced in excess
  • have developed improperly
  • have genetic damage
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40
Q

what is necrosis

A

refers to cell death in an organ or tissue that is still part of a living person

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41
Q

necrosis often interferes with?

A

cell replacement and tissue

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42
Q

gangrene occurs when?

A

mass of tissues undergoes necrosis

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43
Q

what’s the rate of the spread of dry gangrene?

A

slow

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44
Q

what is the spread of tissue of wet gangrene

A

the spread of tissue damage is rapid

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45
Q

cardinal signs of inflammation

A 
rubor( redness )
tumor ( swelling )
calor (heat)
dolor (pain)
functio laesa (loss of function)
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46
Q

factories involved in protective responses

A
  • inflammatory reactions
  • immune response
  • tissue repair and wound healing
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47
Q

granulomatous inflammation is associated with

A

foreign bodies and microorganisms

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48
Q

what is the immediate transient response of an inflammation

A

occurs with a minor injury

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49
Q

what is the immediate sustained response of inflammation

A

occurs with more serious injury and continues for several days and damages the vessels in the area

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50
Q

what is the delayed hemodynamics response of inflammation

A

involves an increase in capillary permeability that occurs 4 to 24 hours after injury

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51
Q

what is another name for white blood cells

A

leukocytes

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52
Q

what are the two types of leukocytes that participate in the acute inflammatory response

A

granulocutes

monocytes

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53
Q

what’s the largest of the white blood cells

A

monocytes

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54
Q

what makes up the granulocutes of the white blood cells

A

neutrophils
eosinophils
basophils

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55
Q

inflammatory mediators

A
  • histamine
  • cytokines
  • arachidonic acid metabolites
  • platelet - activating factor
  • plasma proteins
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56
Q

what are the types of inflammatory exudates

A
  • serous exudates
  • hemorrhagic exudates
  • membranous or pseudomembranous exudates exudates
  • purulent or suppurative exudates
  • fibrinous exudates
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57
Q

serous exudates are water fluids low in what?

A

-low in protein content

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58
Q

serous exudates result from plasma entering the?

A

inflammatory site

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59
Q

when does hemorrhagic exudates occur?

A

when there’s severe tissue injury that causes damage to the blood vessels or when there’s leakage or red cells from the capillaries

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60
Q

membranous or pseudomembranous exudates develop on what surfaces

A
  • develop on mucous membrane surfaces
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61
Q

membranous or pseudomembranous exudates are composed of necrotic cells enmeshed in a ?

A

fibropurulent exudate

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62
Q

which of the inflammatory exudates contains pus?

A

purulent or suppurative exudates

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63
Q

what does fibrinous exudates contain?

A

large amounts of fibrinogen and form a thick and sticky meshwork

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64
Q

what are purulent or suppurative exudates composed of?

A

degraded white blood cells, proteins and tissue debris

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65
Q

what is the non specific early response to injury?

A

acute inflammation

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66
Q

what does acute inflammations aim at?

A

removing the injurious agent and limiting tissue damage

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67
Q

acute inflammations are self-limited whiles chronic inflammations are?

A

self-perpectuating

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68
Q

proliferation of fibroblasts occurs during acute or chronic inflammation

A

chronic inflammation

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69
Q

exudate infiltration of neutrophils occurs during acute or chronic inflammations

A

acute

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70
Q

infiltration by mononuclear cells (macrophages) and lymphocytes occurs during acute or chronic inflammation

A

chronic inflammation

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71
Q

what is the alterations in white blood cell count called

A

leukocytes is or leukopenia

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72
Q

what are the stages of wound healing

A

inflammatory phase
proliferation phase
maturational or remodeling phase

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73
Q

chemical mediators and growth factors mediate the healing processes true or false

A

true

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74
Q

interactions between the extra cellular and cell matrix helps with healing process true or false

A

true

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75
Q

types of immune defenses

A
  • innate or nonspecific immunity
  • adaptive or specific immunity
  • active immunity
  • passive immunity
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76
Q

cytokinesis are secreted by what cells

A

both innate and adaptive cells

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77
Q

what are colony stimulating factors

A

stimulate the growth and differentiation of bone marrow progrenitors

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78
Q

comments of innate immunity

A
  • epithelial barriers
  • phagocytic cells
    (neutrophils and macrophages)
  • NK cells
  • Plasma proteins
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79
Q

what is the complement system

A
  • found in the blood and is essential for the activity of antibodies
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80
Q

what does the activation of the complement system does?

A

increases bacterial aggregation which renders them more susceptible to phagocytosis

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81
Q

what immunity is antigen identification

A

adaptive/ specific immunity

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82
Q

types of adaptive immune responses

A
  • humoral immunity

- cell mediated immunity or cellular immunity

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83
Q

cell mediated immunity are mediated by what lymphocytes

A

spermicide T lymphocytes

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84
Q

what type of adaptive immune response defends against intracellular microbes such as viruses

A

cell mediated immunity or cellular immunity

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85
Q

humoral immunity are mediated by?

A

mediated by molecules in the blood

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86
Q

what is the principal defense against extra cellular microbes and toxins?

A

humoral immunity

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87
Q

antigens are substances foreign to the host that can?

A

stimulate immune response

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88
Q

what recognizes antigens?

A

antibodies

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89
Q

macrophages and dendritic cells process and present antigen peptides to

A

CD4+ helper T cells

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90
Q

antigen presentation captures antigen and new ale their recognition by

A

T cells

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91
Q

Antigen presentation is the initiation of

A

adaptive immunity

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92
Q

what are the B cells/lymphocytes

A

humoral immunity

memory

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93
Q

what are t cells/ lymphocytes

A

cell mediated immunity

memory

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94
Q

memory is both B and T cells. true or false

A

true

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95
Q

identify factors of B lymphocytes

A
  • presence of membrane immunoglobulin that functions as antigen receptor
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96
Q

B lymphocytes produces what?

A

immunoglobulin that functions as the antigen receptor

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97
Q

functions of T lymphocytes

A
  • control of intracellular viral infections
  • rejection of foreign tissue grafts
  • delayed hypersensitivity reactions
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98
Q

what two immunoglobulins activates complement

A

IgG

IgM

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99
Q

what immunoglobulins are found in secretions

A

IgA

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100
Q

what immunoglobulin is responsible for protection of newborn

A

IgG

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101
Q

what immunoglobulin is preeminent in early immune responses

A

IgM

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102
Q

what immunoglobulin binds to mast cells and basophils

A

IgE

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103
Q

what immunoglobulins are found on B lymphocytes

A

IgD

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104
Q

what immunoglobulin is needed for the maturation of B cells

A

IgD

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105
Q

what immunoglobulin is allergic to hypersensitivity reactions

106
Q

what’s another name for immunoglobulins

A

antibodies

107
Q

most prevalent antibodies

108
Q

example of central lymphoid organs

A

bone marrow and thymus

109
Q

function of the peripheral lymphoid organs

A

trap and process antigen and prompt its interacting with mature immune cells

110
Q

what antibodies are developed shortly after birth

A

IgA and IgM and reach adult levels by age of 1

111
Q

the thymus gland does not shrink with age

112
Q

what are the primary immunodeficiency state

A

congenital or inherited

113
Q

what are the four major categories of immune mechanisms

A
  • humoral or antibody mediated immunity (B lymphocytes)
  • cell mediated immunity (T lymphocytes)
  • the complement system
  • phagocytes (neutrophils and macrophages)
114
Q

defects of humoral immunity increased the risk of?

A

recurrent pyrogens infections

115
Q

humoral immunity usually is not as important in sending against intracellular bacteria

116
Q

immunoglobulins productions depends on

A
  • the differentiation of stem cells to mature B lymphocytes

- the generation of immunoglobulin-producing plasma cells

117
Q

what is hypersensitive disorder

A
  • excessive or inappropriate activation of the immune system
118
Q

examples of atopic disorders?

A

food allergies, some form of asthma, rhinitis (hay fever), urticaria

119
Q

what are nonatopic disorders

A
  • lacks the genetic component and organ specific of the atopic disorders
120
Q

what are some primary or initial-phase response

A

vasodilation
vascular leakage
smooth muscle contraction

121
Q

what are some secondary or late phase responses

A
  • more intense infiltration of tissues with eosinophils

- tissue destruction in the form of epithelial cell damage

122
Q

another name of hypersensitivity?

123
Q

cytotoxic or hypersensitivity is mediated by what antibodies

A

IgM or IgG

124
Q

wya are endogenous antigens

A

present on the membranes body cells

125
Q

what are exogenous antigens

A

absorbed on the membrane surface

126
Q

hemolytic disease of newborns

A

Rn- negative mother gives birth to an Rh positive infant

127
Q

what happens during warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

IgG antibodies attaches to and destroy RBC at normal body temperature

128
Q

what happens during cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

IgM autoantibodies reacts with erythrocytes in cooler portions of the body

129
Q

routes of exposure to latex

A
  • cutaneous
  • mucous membranes
  • inhalation
  • internal tissue
  • intravascular routes
  • reaction types ( type I versus type IV )
130
Q

what is allogeneic transplant

A

the donor and recipient are related or unrelated but share similar HLA types

131
Q

what is syngeneic transplant

A

the donor and receipted are identical twins

132
Q

what is autologous transplant

A

the donor and the receipting are the same person

133
Q

stem cells can _____ bone marrow and reestablish ____ hematopoiesis

A

repopulate, reestablish

134
Q

for stem cell transplantation to be effective, the bone marrow cells of the host are….

A

destroyed by myeloablative doses of chemotherapy

135
Q

what is the hyperacute reaction of transplant rejection

A
  • occurs almost immediately after transplantation

- Type III

136
Q

what is the acute rejection

A
  • occurs within first few months after transplantation with signs of organ failure
  • T lymphocytes respond to antigens in the graft tissue
137
Q

what is chronic host versus graft rejection

A
  • occurs over a prolonged period
  • manifest intimal fibrosis of blood vessels
  • actual mechanism is u clear but may include realize of cytokinesis that stimulates fibrosis
138
Q

what are the phases of HIV infection

A
  • primary infection phase
  • chronic asymptomatic or latency phase
  • overt aids phase
139
Q

functions of the skin

A
  • prevents fluids from leaving the body
  • protect the body from potentially damaging environments
  • serve as an area for heat exchange
  • provide protection against invading microorganisms
140
Q

what are the skin appendages

A
  • hair
  • nails
  • sebaceous glands
  • apocrine glands
141
Q

itch and pain are agonistic. true or false

A

false. pain and itch are antagonist

142
Q

pruritus or itchy sensations are carried by small

A

myelinated type C nerve fibers

143
Q

pruritus or itchy sensations originates in?

A

free nerve endings in the skin

144
Q

what is another name for xerosis?

145
Q

xerosis or dry skin are the dehydration of the?

A

stratum corneum

146
Q

aging skins are dry due to change in the composition of?

A

sebaceous gland secretions and decrease in secretion of moisture from the sweat gland

147
Q

what are the moisturizing agents that serves as treatments for dry skin?

A
  • emollients
  • humectants
  • occlusives
148
Q

what can the increase in melanin do?

A
  • mongolian spots

- melasma

149
Q

what are rashes

A
  • temporary eruptions of the skin.

childhood diseases, heart, diapers irritation, or drug induced reactions

150
Q

what is a lesion?

A
  • traumatic or pathological loss of. oral tissue continuity, structure or function
151
Q

what are the prefix of fungis

A

starts with Tinea

152
Q

what is tinea ungium

A

infection of the toe

153
Q

what is tinea capitis

A

infection form on the scalp. kakawrewre

154
Q

secondary infections are deep_____infections

A

deep cutaneous infections

155
Q

primary infections are ______ whiles secondary infections are ____

A

superficial and deep cutaneous

156
Q

examples of primary skin infection are

A

impetigo

ecthhma

157
Q

examples of secondary infections of the skin

A
  • infected ulcer

- cellulitis

158
Q

what are the two types of herpes simplex virus

A

Type 1 - organism spread by respiratory droplets or by direct contact with infected saliva

Type 2 - genital herpes

159
Q

what are some examples of viral skin infections

A

human papillomavirus ( verrucae/warts )

herpes simplex virus

herpes zoster / shingles

160
Q

two types of acne’s

A
  • noninflammatory (comedones/ white heads)

- inflammatory- developed in the dermis that causes irritation

161
Q

what is acne vulgaris

A
  • chronic inflammatory disease is the pilosebaceous unit
162
Q

what is the acne conglobata type of acne

A
  • severe cases of acne

- comedones or cysts have multiple openings, large accesses

163
Q

infected persons of acne conglobata have anemia with what?

A

anemia with elevated white blood cells, sedimentation rates and neutrophils counts

164
Q

what is roasacea

A

chronic inflammations that occurs in adults between 30 and 50 years

165
Q

rosacea is more common in people with what skin color

A

fair skinned people. usually white women

166
Q

rosacea are accompanied by________with leakage of fluid and inflammatory mediators into the _______

A

vascular instability and dermis

167
Q

rosacea are also accompanied by _______symptoms

A

gastrointestinal

168
Q

allergic contact dermatitis are results from a?

A

a cell mediated type 4 hypersensitivity response

169
Q

irritant contact dermatitis is caused by?

A

chemicals that irritate the skin

170
Q

atopic dermatitis are eczema typically in what group of people

171
Q

what are nummular eczema

A

coin shaped papulovesicular patches involving the arms and legs

172
Q

what typa drugs causes generalized skin lesions

A

systemic drugs

173
Q

topical drugs are usually responsible for

A

dermatitis types of rashes

174
Q

arthropod infestations

A

includes insects such as lice, fleas

lyme disease

175
Q

what are the types of ultraviolet rays

A

UVC rays
UVB rays
UVA rays

176
Q

what ultraviolet is responsible for nearly all the skin effects of sunlight

177
Q

what UV rate rays do not pass through the earth atmosphere

178
Q

what UV rays can pass through window glass and are commonly referred to as tanning rays

179
Q

range of UVC

180
Q

range of UVB rays

A

290 to 320

181
Q

range of UVA

A

291 to 400

182
Q

acute effects of ultraviolet rays of sunlight

A
  • short lived and reversible
  • erythema
  • pigmentation
  • injury to langerhans cells and keratinocytes
183
Q

chronic effects of ultraviolet rays of sunlight

A
  • direct damming to skin cells
  • skin cancer
    accelerating the effect of aging on skin
184
Q

sunburn only affects the epidermi of the skin

185
Q

sunburn results in ______ inflammatory reaction

A

erythematous

186
Q

severe forms of sunburn can lead to chills, fevers, malaise, blistering

187
Q

what is photosensitivity that occurs with drugs

A

exaggerated response UV light when the drug is taken in combination of sun exposure

188
Q

what ultra violet is more damaging to DNA

189
Q

what’s a stronger ultraviolet UVB that causes sunburn or UVA that passes through glasses

A

UVB rapidly damages tissues whereas UVA damages tissues over time

190
Q

what is a first degree burn

A

involves only the outerlayers of the epidermis

191
Q

what is second degree partial thickness burns

A

burn of the epidermis and various degrees of the dermis

192
Q

second degree full thickness burns

A

involves the entire epidermis and dermis

193
Q

third degree full thickness burns

A

extend into the subcutaneous tissue and may involve muscle and bone

194
Q

surface area of 1 arm

A

9% front same for back

195
Q

surface area of 1 leg

A

18% front 18 back

196
Q

surface area is the back

197
Q

surface area of the chest

198
Q

surface area of head

199
Q

emergency treatments of burns

A
  • resuscitation
  • stabilization
  • maintaining cardiac and respiratory function
200
Q

what is desiccation

A

removal of moisture

201
Q

four factors that contribute to the development of pressure ulcers

A

pressure
shear forces
friction
moisture

202
Q

what are pressure injuries (pressure ulcer)

A

ischemic lesions if the skin and underlying structures caused by unrelieved pressure

203
Q

what is ischemic

A

reduced blood flow

204
Q

what is dysplastic nevus

A

great tendency to transform

205
Q

what are nevi (moles)

A

benign tumors of the skin that predispose individual to cancer

nevocellular nevi

206
Q

what are the 3 major types of skin cancer

A

malignant melanoma
basal cell carcinoma
squamous cell carcinomas

207
Q

most common skin cancer in white skinned people

A

basal cell carcinoma

208
Q

explain the malignant melanoma

A

rapid progressing malignant tumor of the melanocytes

209
Q

explain basal cell carcinoma

A

neoplasm of the nonkeratinizing cells of the basal layer of the epidermis

210
Q

explain the squamous cell carcinomas

A

second most frequently occurring malignant tumors of the outer epidermis

211
Q

four types of melanomas

A

superficial spreading
nodular
lentigo maligna
scrap lentiginous

212
Q

skin lesions common among the elderly

A
  • skin tags
  • keratoses
  • lentigines
  • vascular lesions
213
Q

viruses have organized cellular structure

214
Q

viruses consist of protein coat surrounding?

A

nuclei acid core of DNA or RNA

215
Q

viruses are capable of replication outside of a living cell

A

false. viruses cannot survive outside of a living cell

216
Q

what are the smallest types of pathogens

217
Q

what microorganism contains membrane-bound nucleus

A

eukaryotes ( fungi )

218
Q

another name for fungi

A

eukaryotes

219
Q

another name for prokaryotes

220
Q

what microorganisms “nucleus is not separated”

A

prokaryotes (bacteria)

221
Q

how are bacteria’s classified

A
  • according to the microscopic appearance

- according to staining of the cell

222
Q

gram positive organisms are stained by what dye

A

purple or crystal violet

223
Q

grab negative organism are not stained by crystal violet but are counterstained by

224
Q

types of parasites

A

protozoa
helminths - worms
arthropods - insects bed bugs

225
Q

what are the method of infecting of parasites

A

they are members of animal kingdom that infect and causes disease in other animals.

then these infected animals transmit the disease to humans

226
Q

what does rickettsiaceae, anaplasmataceae, chlamudiaceae, coxiella have in common?

A

they combines the characteristics of viral and bacterial agents to produce disease in humans

227
Q

rickettsiaceae, anaplasmataceae, chlamudiaceae, coxiella are produced asexually by?

A

cellular division

228
Q

rickettsiaceae, anaplasmataceae, chlamudiaceae, coxiella contains only DNA. true or false

A

false. they contain DNA and RNA similar to bacteria

229
Q

rickettsiaceae, anaplasmataceae, chlamudiaceae, coxiella produces what type of cell wall?

A

rigid peptidoglycan cell wall

230
Q

rickettsiaceae, anaplasmataceae, chlamudiaceae, coxiella are obligate intracellular pathogens like virus. true or false

231
Q

what is the studying of factors, events and circumstances that influence the transmission of infectious disease among humans

A

epidemiology

232
Q

what is the number of new cases of infectious disease within a defined population

233
Q

what is the number of active cases at any given tim

A

prevalence

234
Q

what type of disease are found in particular geographer region

A

endemic disease

235
Q

the incidence and prevalence of endemic disease are______

A

expected and relatively stable

236
Q

what is the spread of disease beyond continental boundaries

237
Q

what is the abrupt and unexpected increase in the incidence of disease over endemic rates

238
Q

what is the nosocomial location of a disease

A

disease developed in hospitalized patients

239
Q

the host of a disease could be endogenous or exogenous

240
Q

what infectious diseases are acquired outside of health care facilities

A

community acquired diseases

241
Q

what is specific symptomalogy?

A

reflects the site of infection such as ray, diarrhea, convulsions

242
Q

what is a nonspecific symptomatolgy

A

can be shared by infectious diseases. doesn’t really kno where the symptom is coming from. such as fever, headache

243
Q

what is obvious symptomatology

A

predictable patterns ( chicken pox and measles )

244
Q

what is a covert symptology

A

may require lab testing to detect. such as hepatitis or increase of white blood cell count

245
Q

stages of disease course in infection

A 
incubation stage 
prodromal stage 
acute stage 
convalescent stage 
resolution stage
246
Q

factors that influence the site of an infectious disease

A
  • type of pathogen
  • portal of entry
  • competence of the hosts immunologic defense system
247
Q

types of antimicrobial agents

A
  • antibacterial agents
  • antiviral agents
  • antifungal agents
  • antiparasitic agents
248
Q

what are some bacterial drug resistance mechanisms

A
  • inactivate antibiotics
  • genetically alter antibiotic binding sites
  • bypass antibiotic activity
  • changes in the bacterial cell wall
249
Q

what are some antiviral drug resistance mechanisms

A
  • nucleoside analogs
  • protease inhibitors

need for combination or alternating therapy with multiple antiretroviral agents

250
Q

what is the intravenous immunoglobulin and cytokines therapy

A
  • supplementing or stimulating the host’s immune response so that the spread of a pathogen is limited or reversed
  • pathogen spermicide antibodies given to the patient as an infusion to facilitate neutralization, phagocytosis and clearance of infectious agents above and beyond the capabilities of the diseased host
251
Q

what are the criterial for diagnosis of an infectious disease

A
  • culture
  • serology or detection of characteristic antigens
  • genomic sequences or metabolites produced by the pathogen
  • accurate documentation clinical signs and symptoms compatible with an infectious process
  • recovery of a probable pathogen or evidence of its presence from the infected sites of diseased host
252
Q

what are nonpharmacological intervention of infectious disease

A

surgical interventions

  • providing access to an infecting site by antimicrobial agents (drainage of an abscess)
  • cleaning of the site (debridement)
  • removing infected organs or tissue ( appendectomy)
253
Q

what are some antibiotic mechanisms

A
  • interference with a specific step in bacterial cell wall synthesis
  • inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis
  • interruption of bacterial nucleus acid synthesis
  • interference with normal bacterial metabolism
254
Q

if it causes irresistible and lethal damage to the bacterial pathogen , what classification of antibiotic is this

A

bactericidal

255
Q

if its inhibitory effects on bacterial growth are reversed when the agent is eliminated, what classification of antibiotic action is this

A

bacteriostatic

256
Q

target site of penicillin

257
Q

target site of cephalosporins

258
Q

target sites for glycopeptides

259
Q

weapons of bioterrorism. Category A agents

A
  • plaque
  • tularemia
  • smallpox
  • hemorrhagic fever viruses
260
Q

weapons of bioterrorism. Category B agents

A
  • food born and water born diseases
  • zoonotic infections
  • viral encephalitides
  • toxins from castor bean
261
Q

weapons of biroterrorism. Category C

A
  • mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • nipah virus and hantavirus
  • tick horne and yellow fever viruses
  • cryptosporidium parvum

PATHO (6 decks)

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