ExamQuestions Flashcards

1
Q

Initial steps in substance abuse treatment include which of the following?

A. Helping the client develop an awareness of the problem, increasing motivation to change, and addressing barriers to quitting
B. Helping the client develop acceptance, addressing barriers to quitting, and resolving ambivalence
C. A multimodal approach of motivational interviewing, CBT, and family interventions
D. Psychoeducation, increasing motivation to change, and family interventions

A

A. The treatment of substance use disorders typically involves a multimodal approach. Note that this question is asking specifically about the initial steps of treatment. The first steps of substance use treatment typically include helping the client develop awareness of the problem, increasing motivation to change, and addressing barriers to quitting.

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2
Q

For a diagnosis of ADHD, the DSM-5 requires:

A. a minimum of six symptoms for at least six months
B. A minimum of eight symptoms for at least four months
C. A minimum of six symptoms for at least four months
D. A minimum of eight symptoms for at least six months

A

A. You may encounter a few questons regarding the number and duration of symptoms for vaious disorders. A diagnosis of ADHD requires at least six symptoms of inattention and/or six symptoms of hyperactivity/impulsivity for at least six months, resulting in impairment in at least two settings.

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3
Q

Following the death of her pet cat, six-year-old Jane constantly follows and clings to her mother and becomes extremely upset whenever her mother leaves the house. Jane says she cannot go to school because she has a stomachache or other physical ailment. The most likely diagnosis for Jane is:

A. adjustment disorder
B. Reactive Attachment Disorder
C. Separation Anxiety Disorder
D. Acute Stress Disorder

A

C. The girl’s core symptom is anixety related to separation. The girl’s anxiety is tied to separation from an attachment figure (her mother) which is the primary characteristic of Separation Anxiety Disorder. This disorder is often triggered by a stressor, such as the death of a relative or pet, and may be manifested as somatic symptoms and school phobia

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4
Q

Researach on characteristics associated with successful smoking cessation suggests that which of the following individuals is most likely to relapse following an attempt to stop smoking cigarettes?

A. A 51-year-old married man who started smoking at age 32
B. A. 25-year-old single man who started smoking at age 16
C. A 34-year-old married woman who started smoking at age 25
D. A 42-year-old divorced woman who started smoking at age 20

A

B. Researchers have identified several factors that predict successful smoking cessation. Those who are successful with quitting are more likely to be male, age 35 or older, married or living with a partner, and have started smoking at a later age. Therefore, of the individuals described in the answers to this question, a 25-year-old man who is single and started smoking at age 16 is most likely to relapse.

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5
Q

The best conclusion about the etiology of Major Depressive Disorder is that:

A. genetic factors play a more substantial role than environmental factors, with a dominant gene being the most likely causal agent
B. genetic factors play a more substantial role than environmental factors with a recessive gene being the most likely causal agent
C. genetic farors play a substantial role in only a small number of cases of the disorder
D. genetic and environmental facrtors play a substantial role in the development of the disorder

A

D. researchers have inferred a genetic contribution to major depressive disorder based on family, twin, and adoption studies. Correlational findings have shown that the heritability of this disorder is likely in the range of 31-42%.

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6
Q

The assessment of patients with Alzheimer’s disease is an ongoing process due to its degenerative nature and the consequent need to alter the treatment plan. During the fourth or fifth year of the disease, an assessment is most likely to reveal:

A. mild to moderate impairment in remote memory, anomia, irritability, and sadness
B. impairments in recent and remote memory, delusions, fluent aphasia, and restlessness.
C. severe impairments in intellectual functioning, apathy, confusion, and limb rigidity.
D. severely deteriorated intellectual functioning, incontinence, and seizures.

A

B. Alzheimer’s disease is a degenerative disease with symptoms that become progressively worse over time. The symptoms described in this response are characteristic during the 2nd through 10th years

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7
Q

recent research has demonstrated that single-session Psychological Debriefing (PD):

select one:
A. is as effective as, or in some cases more effective than, multiple-session PD for preventing PTSD
B. is as effective as multiple-session PD for preventing PTSD only when the session is sufficiently long to elicit a cathartic reaction
C. is effective for preventing PTSD only when it is administered within 24 hours following exposure to the traumatic event
D. is not effective for preventing PTSD and may actually exacerbate PTSD symptoms

A

D. Although single-session psychological debriefing (PD) is utilized as prevention for PTSD, recent empirical research has not been supportive of it’s use. For example, Litz and colleagues concluded from their review of the research that there is sufficient empirical evidence to indicate that PD should not be provided to individuals immediately after a trauma. The studies they reviewed demonstrated that one-session PD is not effective and in some cases, actually increases the likelihood of PTSD symptoms.

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8
Q

Studies on effective treatments for Bulimia Nervosa have found that:

Select one:
A. cognitive behavioral therapy alone and treatment with an SSRI alone are about equally effective, but in most cases, combining the two treatments does not improve outcomes.
B. Cognitive behavioral therapy alone and treatment with an SSRI alone are about equally effective, and in many cases, combining the two treatments improve outcomes.
C. treatment with an SSRI alone is superior to cognitive behavioral therapy alone, but for some patients, combining the two treatments improve outcomes.
D. Cognitive behavior therapy alone is superior to treatment with an SSRI alone, but for some patients, combining the two treatments improves outcomes.

A

D. of the treatments for Bulimia Nervosa, CBRT has been most extensively studied and consistently found to be an effective approach

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9
Q

The mother of a 35-year-old man says that for the past five weeks he has been acting very uncharacteristically. He seems perplexed and nervous much of the time, his tone of voice varies between flat and shrill, and his speech is sometimes like words salad. The mother says that sometimes it seems like she’s listening to voices or sounds that she cannot hear. Based on this information the most likely diagnosis is:

Select one: 
A schizophrenia 
B. schizoid personality disorder
C. Schizoaffective disorder
D. Schizophreniform disorder
A

D. As noted in the absennormal psychology chapter of the written study materials, schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders sure several characteristics. However, one distinguishing feature is the duration of symptoms. Symptoms of schizophreniform disorder are similar to those associated with schizophrenia but have a duration of fewer than six months.

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10
Q

Ideas and five diagnosis of acute stress disorder requires a duration of symptoms of:

Select one:
A. Two days to four weeks with an answered immediately after exposure to the trauma
B. Three days to one month with an onset within four weeks after exposure to the trauma
C. Two days to two months
D. Three days to one month

A

Deep for a diagnosis of acute stress disorder the DSM five requires that symptoms have a duration of three days to one month it notes that sent them typically begin immediately after exposure to the trauma but do not require that they do so.

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11
Q
A clinician notices that are client age 28 experiences freelan periods in which she is very irritable sensitive anxious and self-defecating between these occurrences however the client seems to be fairly well adjusted and even tempered when the clinician asked to client about these mood changes the client says she has always felt very moody the week before it mister. The client symptoms are most suggested of which of the following the DSM 5 disorders?
A. Dysmenorrhea
B. Cyclothymic disorder
C. Premenstrual syndrome
D. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
A

D. More information would be needed to assign a diagnosis of premenstrual dysphoric syndrome however of the diagnoses listed in the answers this one is most consistent with the information provided in the question dysmenorrhea as a medical condition that is characterized by physical pain during menstruation all the clients symptoms are cyclical they do not me diagnostic criteria for cyclothymic disorder which involves alternating periods of hypo manic and depressive symptoms premenstrual syndrome is not a DSM five diagnosis

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12
Q

During your initial session with John Be John says his wife has insisted that he get some help with his sleep problems John’s wife Kaitlyn states she is awakened by his frightening screams at least once a week she indicates that this usually occurs a few hours after they go to sleep and that this has negatively affected her mood and the relationship Jonathan has a history of trauma or substance-abuse and says the results of his recent physical are good Kaitlyn tells you there has been sometimes wakes up when he screams and seems agitated but usually goes right back to sleep and does not respond to her attempts to call him furthermore she shares that in the morning he does not remember the episode notice the recall having any dreams John symptoms are most suggested of which of the following DSM five diagnosis?
A. Nightmare disorder
B. Sleep terror disorder
C. Rapid eye movement sleep behavior disorder
D. Nonrapid eye movement sleep arousal disorder

A

D. A person diagnosed with non rabbit I movement sleep arousal disorder sleep terror type experiences as tear episodes that are usually accompanyd by a panic extreme the person shows signs of autonomic arousal usually does not fully awaken his unresponsive to the efforts of others to comfort him really remembers any dreams that he may have had and has amnesia for the episode upon waking in the morning

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13
Q
Which of the following is not characterized as an anxiety disorder in the DSM five?
A obsessive composer disorder
B separation anxiety disorder
C Panic disorder
D Agoraphobia
A

A. Recessive compulsive disorder is included in the DSM five with obsessive compulsive and other related disorders which also includes body dysmorphic disorder, hoarding disorder, trichotillomania, and excoriation disorder. the following diagnoses are characterized as anxiety disorders in the DSM five separation anxiety disorder, selective mutism, specific phobia, social anxiety disorder, panic disorder, agoraphobia, and generalized anxiety disorder.

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14
Q

A DSM five diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder requires an onset of symptoms prior to —- years of age

A. 6
B. 10
C. 16
D. 21

A

B. Diagnosis of disruptive mood to triulation disorder cannot be assigned for the first time before the end of visual is six years of age or after here she is 18 years of age any age of onset must be before age 10.

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15
Q

A 31-year-old male presents with delusions in auditory hallucinations his wife says it has symptoms to look soon after the sudden death of his mother nearly 3 weeks ago the tentative diagnosis is:

A. Schizophrenia
B. Schizophreniform disorder
C. Brief psychotic disorder
D. Schizoaffective disorder

A

C. Today necessary of re-psychotic disorder requires the presence of one or more of four symptoms with at least one symptom being delusions hallucinations or disorganized speech and with symptoms being present for at least one day but less than one month symptoms often develop after exposure to an overwhelming stressor but this is not required for the diagnosis.

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16
Q

Furious and five diagnosis of bege eating disorder an individual must have a geisha binge eating on average:
A. What’s the week for at least one month
B. Once a week for at least three months
C. Twice a week for at least one month
D. Twice a week for at least three months

A

Correct answer is B.
For nice diagnosis of Binge Eating disorder DSM five requires binges to have occurred on average once a week for a minimum of three months

17
Q

As defined in the DSM-V the essential feature of delirium is:
A. Impaired ability transfer information from short to long-term memory
B. At the service and attention and awareness
C. At disturbance in psycho motor behavior
D. Disorientation

A

B. According to the DSM5 the core features of delirium are disturbance in attention (i.e. reduced ability to direct focus sustain and shift attention) and awareness (reduced orientation to the environment)

18
Q

For individuals with the diagnosis of schizophrenia the poor prognosis is associated with which of the following:
A. Female gender younger age of onset and predominant negative symptoms
B. Female gender older agent onset and predominant positive symptoms
C. Male gender younger age at onset and predominant negative symptoms
D. Male gender older agent onset and predominant positive symptoms

A

C. As noted in the abnormal psychology chapter of the written study materials researchers have a linked the prognosis for the diagnosis of schizophrenia to several factors including age gender type of onset predominant symptoms the presence of a precipitating event, and family history. a better prognosis is associate with female gender later age of onset and positive symptoms which are more responsive to pharmacological treatment

19
Q
A 33-year-old Mary woman with one biological child receives a diagnosis of schizophrenia her husband has no symptoms or family history of the disorder based on correlational statistics which of her relatives is most at risk for receiving the same diagnosis:
A. A parent
B. A biological sibling
C. An adopted sibling
D.Her current child
A

D. The concordance rate for biological offspring of one parent with schizophrenia is 13%

20
Q

The symptoms of borderline personality disorder are:
A. Usually most severe during early adult years
B. Using a severe during middle age
C. Usually most severe during older adulthood
D. Stable in terms of severity over the adult years

A

A. Borderline personality disorder VPDD involves the provasive pattern of visibility and interpersonal relationships self image affect and marked impulsivity longitu studies have confirmed that the symptoms of BPD are ordinarily most of severe during early adults years

21
Q
 researchers have linked major depressive disorder to all of the following sleep disturbances except:
A. Reduce stage three and stage four
B. Increased slow-wave(nonRem sleep)
C. Decreased REM latency
D. Decreased sleep continuity 

A

B. Major Depressive disorder is associated with several abnormalities in the sleep cycle. Specifically it is associated with decreased ( not increased) slow wave sleep

22
Q

Research evaluating the effectiveness of various forms of psychotherapy for older adults has found that:

A. Older adults respond less well than younger adults the most forms of psychotherapy
B. Older adults respond much better than younger adults to most forms of psychotherapy
C. Older adults respond to a comparable degree as younger adults to most forms of therapy, although older adults may respond more slowly
D. Older adults respond to a comparable degree as younger adults to most forms of Therapy other older adults may respond more quickly

A

C. Studies comparing the effectiveness of various psychotherapeutic techniques for older and younger adults have generally revealed few significant differences. Taylor an intervention to the specific needs of an older client may increase its effectiveness

23
Q

According to Troiden homosexual identity development  involves which of the following stages?
A. Confusion, comparison, acceptance, synthesis
B. Feeling different, confusion, assumption, integration
C. Dissonance, immersion, introspection, integrated awareness
D. Distance, acceptance, assumption, integration

A

B. There are several models of gay/lesbian identity development this question is asking about Troiden model. These are the four stages proposed by Troiden

24
Q

Confusion, comparison, tolerance, acceptance, pride, and synthesis

A

six stages of gay/lesbian identity development proposed by Cass in 1979:

25
Q
The basic assumptions and procedures of\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Where derived from Rogers client centered therapy and Banduras notion of self efficacy
A. Motivational interviewing
B. Social learning theory
C. Self efficacy theory
D. Person centered therapy
A

A. Derived from Rogers theory motivational interviewing stresses therapist empathy reflective listening and responding to client resistance in a non-confrontational manner. As it releases of efficacy, am I explicitly addresses the clients beliefs about his/her ability to change

26
Q

From the perspective of traditional psychoanalysis, transference is:

A. An impediment to therapy progress
B. A form of resistance
C. A form of catharsis
D. An ego defense mechanism

A

B. Transference is considered a key component of psychoanalysis, and the interpretation of a clients transference helps guide him/her toward insight. From the perspective of psychoanalysis, at the core of transference is resistance, or an unwillingness to relinquish one’s fantasy that one’s infantile wishes will be gratified.

27
Q
During a therapy session, Dad, who is normally soft-spoken and mild-mannered, becomes very agitated and starts yelling. The oldest daughter becomes upset and says please stop you’re scaring Johnny the six-year-old son that stops yelling and we can’t come again this is an example of:
A. Positive feedback
B. Scapegoating
C. Family homeostasis 
D. The double-bind
A

C. In the situation the dollars reaction to her father‘s uncharacteristic behavior search to return the situation to its usual state homeostasis refers to the tenancy of systems including family systems to maintain the satisque in a situation the daughters reaction is acting as negative feedback which causes the father to act more characteristicly

28
Q

Practitioner of motivational interviewing with most likely emphasize use of which of the following in therapy?
A. Paradoxical techniques that faster resistance
B. Techniques that help therapist communicate empathy
C. Confrontational techniques that address the clients excuses and responsibilities
D. Techniques that help the client identify problem exceptions

A

B.  The primary goal of motivational interviewing is to help clients resolve their ambivalence about change to do so it relies primarily on a client centered approach empathy is a key element of motivational interviewing message used by the therapist to communicate empathy include simple reflection, double-sided reflection, amplified reflection, and summary statements

29
Q

“Culturally encapsulated “ therapists:
A. I have become immersed in another culture at the expense of their own culture.
B. Exhibit an overt type of race schism while denying that they are prejudiced against members of other cultures
C. Define the reality of their clients according to their own cultural assumptions
D. Maximize cultural differences by consistently distinguishing between “us “and “them “

A

Correct answer is C.
The term “culturally encapsulated” was introduced by C. Gilbert Wrenn in 1962 in his discussion of the limited perspective of counselors. Although different authors use this term some of it differently, this comes closer to the definition provided by Wrenn, who viewed counselors as exhausting in a “cocoon of pretend reality” that reflects encapsulation within their own culture. 

30
Q

Telling a Husband and wife who complain that they are constantly arguing with each other to argue for at least two hours every night is referred to as?

A. Positioning
B. Prescribing the symptom
C. Double-bind communication
D. An ordeal

A

Correct answer is B.
Prescribing the symptom, which involves instructing a family member to deliberately engage in the symptom, is a paradoxical intervention often used in strategic family therapy

31
Q

The concept of triangulation is central to general systems theory and can be found in the work of Bowm, Minuchin, Satie, and others. Although these theorists differ somewhat in their definition of triangulation, in general, it is said to:
A. Reduce the tension as a two-person system draws in a third party
B. Reduce tension as he members of a two-person system focus their attention on a third party
C. Facilitate avoidance of conflict between two persons as they form an alliance against a third person
D. Reduce conflict as two members of a three person system assume a submissive role when interacting with the third dominant member

A

Correct answer is A.
Different theorist have somewhat different definitions for the term “triangulation“ the best answer to this question therefore, is the one that is most general. As a general term, triangulation refers to the formation of a three person system by two people in order to reduce the stress and conflict between them