Exam 4 Flashcards
The use of a collection agency to collect delinquent fees from a former client is
A. Unethical and illegal
B. Unethical but legal
C. Ethical under certain circumstances
D. Always Ethical
C. Do you have a collection agency is not an ethical as long as certain precautions are taken. Ideally, the client should be told at the outside of therapy what the therapist policy is regarding the collection of uncle fees. Even more important, the client should be notified of the intention to use a collection agency if he’s not paid within a specific period of time.
Presence of which of the following symptoms that would help confirm a DSM five diagnosis of inhalant intoxication:
A. Increased appetite, dry mouth, and tachycardia
B. Unsteady gait, slurred speech, and tremor
C. Nausea, vomiting, and muscle aches
D. 13, vivid and I’m pleasant dreams, an increase appetite
Symptoms of inhalant intoxication include dizziness, nystagmus, in coordination, slurred speech, unsteady gait, lethargy, depressed reflexes, psycho motor retardation, tremor, generalized muscle weakness, blurred vision, stupor or coma and euphoria.
Cross’s Black Racial Identity Development Model predicts that an African American in the pre-encounter stage of identity development will:
A. Exhibit a great deal of confusion and turmoil related to race
B. Have adopted a mainstream (White) identity
C. Be hostile to members of all racial/ethnic minority groups
D. Exhibit “healthy cultural paranoia “
B. Cross’s model decides the pre-encounter stage into two sub stages: assimilation and anti-Black. Adoption of a mainstream identity is characteristic of the assimilation substage, which is the first substage Is the pre-encounter stage.
The national Institute of mental health multi modal treatment study of ADHD compared the effectiveness of four treatments – medication management alone, behavioral treatment alone, combined medication and behavioral treatment, and routine community care. The results of the initial study indicated that
A. Behavioral to treatment alone is as Effective as medication alone
B. Medication alone or behavioral treatment alone is as effective as the combined treatment
C. Medication alone or the combined treatment is more effective than behavioral treatment alone or routine community care
D. Behavioral treatment alone or the combined treatment is more effective the medication alone or routine community care
C. Note this question is asking about the initial results of the MTA study. Overall, the initial results indicated that the combination treatment or medication management alone was significantly more effective than intensive behavioral treatment alone a routine community care. Thus, of the answer is given, this is the best one. However, follow up studies found that the superiority of medication alone and the combined treatment was true for short term affects but not long-term effects.
Vgostsky’s approach to cognitive development has had the greatest influence on which of the following?
A. The reciprocal teaching method
B. The teaching for understanding method
C. The use of computer adaptive instruction for children with learning disabilities
D. Genetic explanations for cognitive development

A. Vgotsky’s theory of cognitive development has had the greatest impact on educational theories and strategies, Which emphasizes a child’s ability to learn through social interaction and has been applied to reading instruction. Brown and Palinscar’s Reciprocal teaching method emphasizes the ability to learn from others and Is strongly influenced by Vgotsky’s approach to cognitive development.
Eliana, age 32, tells you that she often has trouble concentrating on her work and falling asleep at night because she is constantly worried about having cancer. She states that her older sister had surgery for breast cancer last year at her mothers sister and uncle both had lung cancer. Eliana says she has a physical exam every six months and has been reassured by the doctor that she is OK, but she knows that, for some people, there are no symptoms of cancer until it is too late to do anything about it. Eliana also tells you that she keeps checking her breasts for lumps and get scared whenever she coughs because she thinks might be an early sign of lung cancer. Eliana symptoms are suggestive of which of the following DSM five disorders? a. Body dysmorphic disorder B. Somatic symptom disorder C. Hypochondriasis D. Illness anxiety disorder
D. Illness anxiety disorder involves a preoccupation with having a serious illness, an absence of somatic symptoms or the presence of mild somatic symptoms, have level of anxiety about oneself, and performance of excessive health related behaviors(care seeking type) or maladaptive avoidance of doctors, hospitals, etc.( care-avoidant type).
Which of the following is characterized by intense sexually aroused fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviors that involve touching or rubbing against a non-consenting person?
A. Fetishism
B. Frotteurism
C. Exhibitionism
D. Trichotillomania
B. Paraphilic disorders( paraphilias) involve intense sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urgers, are behaviors related to unusual objects, activities, or situations the information in this question accurately describes frotteurism
The major disadvantage of a behaviorally anchored rating scale(Bars) is that:
A. It’s highly susceptible to rater biases
B. They requires considerable time and effort to develop
C. It is lacking in contact validity
D. It doesn’t provide adequate information for employee feedback and counseling
B. When using a behaviorally anchored rating scale, the rater rates an employee on a continuum that is anchored by critical incidents. This is a primary problem with this type of rating scale. The development of a behaviorally anchored rating scale is a team effort that involves both managers and subordinates
Which of the following enzymes breaks down the neurotransmitter dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin? Among maltreated children, the rate of antisocial behavior was significantly higher for those with low activities of this enzyme.
A. Monoamine oxidase A
B. 5-hydroxyindolecetic acid
C. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
D. Prion
A.
Monoamine oxidase A is an enzyme that degrades Neurotransmitter such seratonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine. Evidence supporting an association between this enzyme brain levels and aggression CORRECT
5-hydroxyindolectic acid which is the primary metabolite of serotonin and is broken down in the liver. Its Primary use is in diagnosing and monitoring carcinoid tumors, a subset of serotonin secreting Neuroendocrine tumors
And the parents of four-year-old Walter report that, even as a baby, he did not like to be held which they attributed to colic. They report that he still does not like to be touched and he does not like to play with other children and seems to be in his own world much of the time. We’re not engaged in an activity(he only likes playing with cars and dominoes), Walter rocks constantly and has a hard time saying still, but he can focus for hours when he’s learning of his toy cars or dominoes. What is cognitive development and language acquisition have been normal, but he does seem to have some trouble reading social cues. Which DSM five diagnosis should you consider first for Walter
A. Autism spectrum disorder
B. Asperger‘s disorder
C. Stereotypic movement disorder
D. Pervasive developmental disorder NOS
A. Autism spectrum disorder involves persistent deficits in social communication and interaction and restricted return repetitive patterns of behavior interests and activities
On the MMPI-2, s T score of 70 means that an examini score is at the
A. 68th percentile
B. 70th percentile
C. 84th percentile
D. 97th percentile
D. The T distribution has a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10, which means a T score of 70 is to standard deviations above the mean. In a normal distribution(which is assumed for MMPI scores), About 97% of scores fall below is the score that is to standard deviation’s above mean
What are the three approaches to healthcare?
A. The group model, open model, and regency model
B. The Stanford model, dual model, and house model
C. The open models, Bismarck model, and balanced models
D. The private models, Beveridge model, and Bismarck model
CORRECT = D. There are three approaches to healthcare: the private model, the Beveridge model(public funds), by And Bismarck model(mix of public and private funds).
Which of the following protect the brain from invading micro organisms and are responsible for the inflammatory reaction in response to brain damage? A. Lysosomes B. Area postrema C. Schwann cell D. Microglia 
CORRECT = D. Microglia are specialized population of macrophages that are found in the central nervous system(CNS). They remove damaged neurons and infections and are important for maintaining the health of the CNS. They act as the major inflammatory cell type in the brain in response to pathogens and injury by becoming “
activated”
Incorrect:
A lysosome is a membrane bound cell that contains digestive enzymes. They are involved with various cell processes, including the destruction of invading viruses and bacteria
B. The area postrema is a medullary structure in the brain that controls vomiting and plays a vital role in the control of all anomic functions by the central nervous system
C. One of the most important functions of the Schwann cell is to myelinated the axons of the peripheral nervous system. I myelinating Schwann cell wraps around the single axon
In organizations, frame of reference training is used to:
A. Facilitated a job analysis
B. Improve team productivity
C. Identify appropriate criterion measures
D. Increase rated accuracy
D. Turn your Raiders has been found to be the most effective way to reduce raider biases. Certain types of training see more effective than others. Frame of reference training is particularly useful. Divorce familiarizing rafters with the multidimensional nature of job performance and with the actual content of each performance dimension
When first developed, the Stanford Binet offered several advantages over the other intelligence tests, including its comprehensive examiners guide, standardization procedure, and its use of which of the following?
A. Intelligence quotient
B. Scientific method
C. Standard deviation
D. Skewed distribution
A. IQ or intelligent question is a standard measure of an individually‘s ability to reason and sell problems based on psychological tests. 
The tendency to seek or pay attention only to information that confirms our beliefs is referred to as:
A. Functional fixedness
B. Belief perseverance
C. The self-serving bias
D. The confirmation bias
D. Research has identified a number of Piuses that impact our judgments and scissions. The “confirmation bias” involves seeking out or paying attention only to information which confirms our beliefs.
 you hear a rumor that one of your coworkers has a habit of flirting with the younger female employees. He start paying closer attention to his behavior and discover that the rumors are not unfounded. Your best course of action in the situation would be to______
A. Maintain a record of your observations and present them to the companies director
B. Approach the young women who have been harassed and suggest they file a complaint with the ethics committee
C. Discuss your observations and the rumors you’ve heard with the coworker
D. Do you nothing since your coworkers behaviors are basically harmless 
C. Standard three. 04 of the ethics code requires that psychologist attempt to minimize harm against individuals with home psychologist work, and stand there one. 04 and one. 05 require psychologist to take action when a colleague is acting unethically. Discussing your concern is generally arrest first course of action if you feel comfortable and confronting individual who has allegedly acted unethically
Functional brain imaging of a patient with mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease is most likely to find which of the following?
A. Increase metabolism in the frontal lobes and basal ganglia
B. Decreased metabolism in the prefrontal cortex and thalamus
C. Reduced metabolism in the Hippocampus and in entorhinal cortex
D. Increase metabolism in the hippocampus and amygdala
C. Atrophy in the Hibocan office is associated with memory loss in Alzheimer’s disease. Researchers have linked neurono degeneration in the medial temporal structures(Entorhinal cortex, hippocampus, and amygdala) With symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease. On a PET scan, this manifests as reduced metabolism and the structures
Ex post facto research is distinguished from true experimental research by_____
A. An inability to randomly select participants from the population
B. And inability to manipulate the independent variable(s)
C. The observation of participants in their natural environment
D. The study of participants under conditions that resemble (but are not identical to) the target conditions
B. Ex post facto is “after the fact” research. I said he is considered to be ex post facto when the IV cannot be manipulated because it has already been applied. Note that some experts categorize ex post facto research as “quasi experimental” while others place it in a separate category (EG descriptive research)
To evaluate the concurrent validity of a new selection test for sales people, it would:
A. Connect a factor analysis to confirm that the test measures the attribute it was designed to measure
B. Have sales managers (“subject matter expert”) rate test items for relevance to success as a sales person
C. Administer the test to a sample of current sales people and correlate their scores on the test with the recently assigned performance ratings
D. Administer the test the sales people before an after they participate a sales training program and correlate the two sets of scores

C. Concurrent and predictive validity or types of criterion reliability. To evaluate a test criterion related validity scores on the predictor (in this case, the selection test) are correlated with a score on a criterion (measure of job performance). With scores on both measures are obtained at about the same time, they provide information on the test concurrent validity
Which of the following lists the correct order of the stages of grief as described by Elizabeth Kubler Ross?
A. Anger, depression, denial, bargaining, acceptance
B. Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance
C. Bargaining, denial, depression, anger, acceptance
D. Denial, anger, bargaining , depression, acceptance
D. FaceTime her research withterminally illpatience, Kubler Ross identified five stages and coming in terms with one zone death. This answer accurately lists the order of Kubler-Ross’s stages of grief. Noted however that subsequent research has found at the stages do not necessarily occur in the order identify by Cubler Ross and the stages maybe repeat it
The drug____prevents the intestines from observing up to 30% of fat in the diet. Half of the individuals using this drug have at least 5% weight loss after two years.
A. Fenfluramine
B. Sibutramine
C. Orlistat
D. Phentermine
C. Orlistat works by blocking the enzyme that breaks down fat in the diet. The undigested fat then passes out of the body through the bowels
Research investigating the relationship between unemployment and mental health is generally found that
A. The rates of depression and other neurotic disorders are substantially higher among the unemployed than the employed
B. The rest of depression and other neurotic disorders are about the same among the unemployed and the employed
C. Mental health problems are likely to occur when symptoms were evident prior to unemployment
D. Paradoxically about 20 to 25% of unemployed individuals reporting improvement in mental health after job loss
A. Most of the research has reported a relationship between job loss and mental and physical health problems. Several studies have found rates of depression and other neurotic disorder is to be about twice as high among the unemployed
A treatment for depression that is based on Rehm’s self control theory is most likely to include
A. Having the client keep a record of automatic thoughts
B. Having a client keep a record of positive experiences
C. Helping the client replace irresponsible behaviors with responsible ones
D. Using functional behavioral analysis to help the client identify the antecedents and consequences associated with maladaptive behaviors
B. Rehm’s self-control theory is based on the assumption that depression is related to six deficits in self-control behavior: Selective monitoring of negative events;/of monitoring of a mediate (versus delayed) consequences of behavior; certain self evaluate of criteria; an accurate attributions of responsibility; insufficient self-reward; and excessive self-punishment. According to Rehm’s, Depressed people focus too much on negative events. Three minute times to alter this by encouraging clients to recognize the positive events that occur
A client describes a recurring dream to his therapist in which the client’s parents are standing on top of a stairway and refuse to let him climb up to the bedroom. If the therapist was a practitioner of Gestalt Therapy, she will most likely:
A. Analyze the content of the dream
B. Ask the client to discuss his relationship with his parents
C. See the dram as indicative of the client’s current progress in therapy
D. See the dram as representing parts of the client’s personality that need to be integrated
Correct answer D:
The major goals of Gestalt therapy are to help a client achieve self-responsibility and function as a systematic whole. Dream work is one of the many techniques Gestalians use. A goal of Gestalt Therapy is to integrate the separate, fragmented parts of a client’s personality into a unified whole in line with this goal. Gestalians see elements of recurring drams as representations of parts of the self that have not been fully accepted and integrated
Staying awake, especially toward the end of the day, depends on which of the following neurotransmitter?
A. Orexin
B. Histamine
C. Norepinephrine
D. GABA
CORRECT A. Axons releasing orexin extend to the basal forebrain, where they stimulate neurons responsible for wakefulness. Orexin is not necessary for waking, but for staying awake.
INCORRECT:
Histamine is responsible for regulating the cycle of sleeping and waking. It has an impact on the biological clock that regulates our circadian rhythm
Norepinephrine activity is involved in arousal from sleep. Increased norepinephrine decreases REM sleep
GABA enables the body and mind to relax an fall asleep and to sleep soundly throughout the night. Low GABA activity is linked to insomnia and disrupted sleep.
In the context of incremental validity, the positive hit rate is calculated by:
A. Dividing the true positives by the false positives
B. Dividing the true positives by the total positives
C. Dividing the total positives by the true positives
D. Dividing the total positives by the false positives
B. The positive hit rate is the proportion of people who would have been selected on the basis of their predictor scores and were also successful on the criterion. The positive hit rate is calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the total number of positives
If scores on two tests are correlated, multiplying each score in one set of test scores by five will _____the magnitude of the Pearson r.
A. increase
B. decrease
c. have no effect on
increase or decrease
C. The Pearson r is a measure of the degree of association between variables(i.e., the extent to which a score on one variable can accurately predict a score on another variable). This response makes intuitive sense. For instance, if SAT scores are highly predictive of GRE scores, then multiplying all SAT scores (or all GRE scores or all SAT and GRE scores) by a constant will not change this relationship. You still will be able to use SAT scores to predict GRE scores with the same degree of accuracy.
Piaget‘s concrete operational stage of development is characteristic of children ages
A. 2 to 7 years
B, 5 to 8 years
C. 7 to 11 years
D. 10 to 15 years
C. Piaget distinguishes between four stages of cognitive development sensorimotor, preoperational concrete operational and formal operations 7 to 11 is the age range for the concrete operational stage
Children ages 2 to 7 are in the preoperational stage
To establish a behavior than individual does not naturally admit you would use which of the following
A. Intermittent reinforcement
B. Shaping
C. Response generalization
D. Priming
Correct answer is B. One of the difficulties with offering conditioning is that it is necessary to wait until the organism admits a response so that consequences of the response of em parentheses reinforcement or punishment) can be manipulated. To overcoming this problem desired behavior can be shaped shaping involves successive approximations to the desired behavior. When using shaping, it isn’t necessary to wait for the behavior to be admitted. Instead, the behavior is gradually developed or formed by reinforcing responses that come closer and closer to it.
Lewinsohn’s behavioral model attributes depression to:
A. Negative self attributions
B. The fundamental attribution bias
C. A low rate of response contingent reinforcement
D. Problems related to self-evaluation
Lewinsohn behavioral model is based on operant conditioning and focuses on the consequence of behavior.  Lewinsohn describe depression as being primarily the result of a low rate of response contingent reinforcement
Which of the following is most true about conduct disorder?
A. Individuals with childhood onset type are more likely than those with adolescent on set type to develop adult anti-social personality disorder
B. Individuals with adolescent onset type or more likely on those with child on the type to develop adult antisocial personality disorder
C. What’s individuals with conduct disorder had received a diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder an adult, regardless of age of onset
D. Connect disorder is normally associated with antisocial personality disorder only when there is a family history of antisocial behavior
A. According to the DSM5, long-term outcomes for conductor order very, but for most individuals, it remits by adulted. There is evidence that early on set symptoms place with a child at greatest risk for resulting synthesis antisocial personality disorder adulthood.
Use of the technique known as meta-analysis and tails calculating and effect size which can be defined as____
A. Statistically significant difference between experimental and control groups
B. A standardized mean difference between experimental and control groups
C. Zero order correlation
D. A partial regression coefficient
B. The term meta-analysis is used to describe a quantitative integration of research studies involving the calculation and aggregation of affect size estimates. There are several ways to calculate and affect size, but a commonly used method involves subtracting the control group mean in the experimental group mean and dividing the result by either the control group standard deviation or the pool within group standard deviation. The result is a standard score that indicates difference between the experimental and control groups in terms of standard deviation units.
At_____ months of age, most children string tu work together to make a sentence – for example, “daddy girl“, “more juice,“ and “eat cookie.”
A. 12 to 16
B. 18 to 24
C. 26 to 32
D. 34 to 40
B. From about 18 to 24 months of age infants combine two words together to form a sentence this telegraphics speech usually contains only nouns verbs and adjectives.
Which of the following is an example of elaborative rehearsal?
A. Ensuring that the same cues are present when information is encoded and retrieved
B. Gradually removing prompts during the learning process
C. Practicing a new skill past the point of mastery
D. Relating new information to previously required information
D. The rehearsal of new information helps ensure that it is transferred from short to long-term memory two types of rehearsal are distinguished: maintenance and elaborative. La River rehearsal is used to describe the process of making new information meaningful in order to enhance its retention and retrieval. Relaying new information to previously acquired information is one type of a laborative rehearsal
A Wechsler IQ score is a(n):
A. Percentile rank
B. Standard score
C. Ipsative score
D. Stamina score
B. the Wechsler IQ score is an example of a standard score, a type of norm referenced interpretation. When examinees Ron test score is converted to a standard score, the transform score indicates examinees position in the normative sample in terms of standard deviations from the mean. Wechsler full-scale IQ scores and index scores have a mean of 100 and standard deviation of 15, while the subtest have a mean of 10 and standard deviation of three. This means that the full-scale IQ score of 115 is one standard deviation above the mean.
According to Sue and Zane, in terms of ensuring good treatment outcomes, the most important factor in culturally sensitive therapy is:
A. Demonstrating cultural knowledge
B. Using culture specific techniques
C. Using techniques that establish credibility
D. Being authentic and empathic
C. Sue and Zane note that, when discussing cross cultural counseling, most authors focus on cultural knowledge and the use of cultural specific techniques. He’s investigators argue, however, that these factors are only the means to an end, which is establishing credibility. According to Sue and Zane the therapist credibility is a key determinant of therapy outcome. Cultural knowledge and the use of culture specific techniques are beneficial only to they sent that they contribute to the therapist credibility.
The psychologist is working in the employee assistant program of a large corporation. She has a Pro space supervisor who referred an employee to the EAP several weeks ago when he play was having problems at home that begin interfering with her job performance. The employer now wants to know if the employee has been receiving counseling from the psychologist and, if so, how the sessions are going. In fact, the employee has seen the psychologist four times and I have another session scheduled for the next week. The psychologist should_________.
A. Inform the supervisor that she has seen the employee but for find no information about employees treatment
B. Inform the supervisor that she has seen the employee and provide a summary of the employees progress with regard to the reason for the referral
C. Remind the supervisor of the need to maintain confidentiality and provide them with no information about the employee
D. Tell the supervisor that she will have to get permission from the employee before providing the supervisor with any information about the employee’s progress.
A. And employer is allowed to know the attendance record of a client using the EAP program. The employer is privy to further information beyond attendance only if either a) a release of information is signed by the client or B) the client is referred to the EAP by the employer for a “fitness for duty evaluation“. In this instance, even without a release of information, the employer is entitled to know the attendance record of the client as well as minimal additional information about the results of the evaluation, including but not limited to if any accommodations are needed for the client to succeed in their job.
A task oriented leader is most effective in the work situation is characterized either if I could leader member relations, structured test, and strong leader power or by Moderat the poor leader member relations, and unstructured task, and weak leader power. This is predicted by which of the following?
A. Fielder’s contingency theory
B. Hersey and Blanchards situational leadership model
C. House’s path goal theory
D. VRoom, Yetton, and Jago’s normative model
A. The theories listed, only one predicts that a task oriented leader is most effective and extreme (have a favorable and Highway unfavorable) conditions. Fiedler proposed that a low LPC (task oriented) leaders are most effective when the situation is either very favorable or very unfavorable in terms of the leaders ability to lead.
Which of the following describes a rare genetic disorder where calcium accumulates in the amygdala until it wastes way? Other symptoms include skin lesions, essence of fearlessness, and one experienced emotion (excitement). A. Myasthenia Gracie B. Kluver-Bucy syndrome C. Urbach-Wiethe disease D. Tay-Sachs disease
C. Urbach-Wiethe disease what is a rare autosomal recessive disorder predisposing individual to increase collagen deposition in the skin and soft tissue. Characteristic features include moniliform blepharitis, Ankyloglossia, and bilateral symmetric basal ganglia calcification.CORRECT
Incorrect: myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder that causes weakness in the skeletal muscles and occurs when communication between nurse cells and muscle cells becomes impaired
B. Kluver Bucy syndrome is a rare behavioral impairment characterized by inappropriate sexual behaviors and mouthing of objects. Other symptoms include a diminished ability to visually recognize objects, lots of normal fear and anger responses, memory loss, seizures, and dementia
D. Tay-Sachs disease is a rare disorder passed from parents to the child. It is caused by the absence of an enzyme that helps breakdown fatty substances called ganglio sides, which build up toxic levels in a child-sprain and affect the function of nerve cells.
Following a review of the case, and HMO decides to deny further payment for sessions for one of your current clients. You believe that the client would benefit from additional therapy. You should_______
A. Comply with the HMOs request as long as the limits of treatment we discussed with a client at the onset of therapy
B. Continue to provide therapy to the client without compensation if necessary until other arrangements can be made
C. Consult with the client about her options in the situation
D. File a complaint against the HMO
C. An issue freaky addressed in the literature as managed care is the problem created when the managed care entity decides to discontinue coverage. Other responses given, this is the best one. The psychologist should discuss the clients options with him/her (one of which might to file an appeal)
In factor analysis, the underscore\_\_underscore underscore is the proportion of a test‘s total variance that is accounted for by the common (identified) factors A. Communality B. Factor loading C. Principal component D. Eigenvalue
A. Each test included in a factor analysis has a community, which indicates the total amount of vaability and test scores and has been explained by the factor analysis – I. E., By all the identified factors
You were hired by University to teach a graduate seminar in the psychology department. In terms of the ethics code, you were explicitly required to do which of the following?
A. Ensure that the course content reflects the most recent research in the area
B. Is sure that accurate information about the seminars available to all interested parties
C. Is sure that the similar content is consistent with the interest in needs of the students
D. Ensure that there are multiple means by which to evaluate students
B, The issue addressed in this question is covered and ethical standard 7.02 of the ethics code. Responses given, only this one represents explicit requirements of the ethics code
As described by Beck, Automatic thoughts involve:
A. Interpreting experiences in pattern, reflexive ways
B. Enduring schemas that have been repeatedly reinforced
C. Shoulds, musts, and oughts
D. Episodic memories
A. Automatic thoughts are the primary target in Becks cognitive therapy. Has the name implies automatic thoughts are automatic or reflexive. They also usually have an interpretive are evaluating for component (e.g. this is awful)
Which is the following statements about adolescent adjustments and divorce families is true?
A. The change represented by marital dissolution appears to be the primary stressor accounting for psychological and behavioral problems in youth of divorced families.
B. Variables associate with adolescent post divorce adjustment includes both dyadic and broader social factors
C. Female adolescents demonstrate more psychological impact and mail it adolescents after divorce
D. No I did buy some things a bit more academic and behavior problems or female adolescence in the. Prior to divorce

B. A longitudinal analysis, based on two ways of a large, nationally represented panel revealed that adolescent adjustment in the context of divorce appears to be affected by both dyadic factors, such as decreased parental intimacy, and broader psychosocial factors, such as decreased parental commitment to education and fewer family resources
Stead eat al’s review of the literature found that\_\_\_is the most effective form of nicotine replacement therapy for smoking cessation A. Nicotine gum B. Nicotine nasal spray C. Nicotine tablet/lozenge D. Nicotine patch
B. L. D. Stead et al evaluated the effectiveness of nicotine gum, the nicotine patch, nicotine tablet/lozenges, nicotine inhaler, and nicotine nasal spray and found that all forms of nicotine replacement therapy were more effective than a placebo for reducing cigarette smoking. He’s investigated discovered that of the nicotine replacement therapy, nicotine nasal spray was most effective and nicotine gum was at least effective
I current to DW Sue an angle American therapist with an internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility is most life to experience problems when working with a client who has an:
A. External locus of control and internal locus of responsibility
B. External locus of control and an external locus of responsibility
C. Internal locus of control an external locus of responsibility
D. Internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility
C. Sue uses his model of worldview to describe issues and problems that angle American therapist may face when working with clients from culturally diverse backgrounds. DW Sue and D Sue discussed this issue in counseling the culturally different New York John Riley and sons 1999. They conclude the IC-ER worldview is likely to pose the most difficult problems for the IC-IR therapist because the client is likely to challenge the therapist of do the therapist as part of the establishment that has a priorities be reluctant to disclose in the therapy process
Elaine considers her friend Tom to be client and reserved. She says that when she is alone with Tom or when they are in a small group, Tom listens more than he talks and he’s never one to “make a scene“ one day, however, Elaine deserve Tom in a large crowd that is waiting for the arrival of a “special celebrity guest“ at the opening of a new shopping mall. The guest is nearly 30 minutes late, and the crowd is beginning to show signs of impatient. Helena surprise when she says Tom initiate loud “booing“ and other derogatory comments well waving his clenched fist in the air and anger. Which of the following best explains Thomas unusual behavior? A. Deindividuation B. Social facilitation C. Catharsis D. Paradoxical intention
A. The number of studies have shown in the anonymity increases the likelihood that an individual willing gauge and antisocial or other uncharacteristic behaviors. The increase Tennessee to act in uncharacteristic ways when anonymity is likely is referred to as deindividuation. Deindividuation is Believed to be the result of a decreased sense of responsibility, reduce self-consciousness, Lord fear of evaluation, and/or a loss of other inhibitory mechanisms
Annabelle, age 32, is brought to a clinician by her sister who says she thinks Annabel is in a cult. She states the NFL used to be a very fun loving, intellectually curious, and affectionate individual, but since she’s became affiliated with this group over two years ago, she “doesn’t seem to be the same person“ the clinician races that Annabel is very quiet doesn’t make eye contact and appears “zoned out“ when your sister reaches out to touch her, Annabel flinches as if in pain. And it will states that she is a “new person“ now and can “see reality for what it really is.“ Business information, the most likely DSM five diagnosis for Annabelle is: A. Other specified dissociative disorder B. Post traumatic stress disorder C. Schizoid personality disorder D. Major depressive disorder
A. Of the diagnoses listed, other specified dissociative disorder is the best fit. This diagnosis is assigned when the individual has some dissociative symptoms (in this case, appearing zoned out and the radical change in her personality as reported by her sister) that do not meet the full criteria for one of the other dissociative disorders. Since Annabel symptoms appear to be related to her association with a cold, and the most comprehensive diagnosis would be other specified dissociative disorder with identity disturbance due to prolonged and intense coercive persuasion.
Research has confirmed, they were making attributions about your own behavior, we are nearly interview behaviors that have positive outcomes to dispositional factors by behaviors I have negative outcomes to situational factors. It’s Tennessee is referred to as the: A. Self verification theory B. Self-serving bias C. Confirmation bias D. Self-fulfilling prophecy
B. For the exam you want to be familiar with all the phenomena listed in the answer this question) as his name implies, the self-serving bias is the tendency to take responsibility for her actions when the actions have positive outcomes (i.e. to make this positional attributions) but to blame external events for actions when they have negative outcomes (i.e. to make situational attributions)
Incorrect answers:
According to “ Self verification theory“ people are motivated to maintain a stable self-concept and do so by seeking information that confirms the self-concept, even when that information is negative
The confirmation bias is the tendency to pay attention only to information that confirms our current beliefs
The self fulfilling prophecy effect occurs when expectations about her own behavior or the behavior of others increases the likelihood that behavior will actually occur
The multi systems model:
A. Is not recommended for patriarchl families
B. Is only recommended for families that are egalitarian in nature
C. Addresses multiple systems, intervenes on multiple levels, and focuses on strengths
D. Address is multiple systems and intervenes the multiple levels, but is not straight spaced
C. Boyd-Franklin‘s multi systems model addresses multiple systems, involves multiple level interventions, and focusing on building the family’s strengths
During an initial session with a client, the client tells Dr. Fafian that he and his wife have not been getting along well lately, and he thinks that may need couples couseling. As a client described his wife Dr. Fabian realizes that he had a brief affair with her 10 years ago (prior to her marriage). Dr. Fabian should ________.
A. Make an appointment with the wife and discuss the matter with her before agreeing to see the couple together in therapy
B. See the husband an individual therapy only and refer them to another therapist for couples therapy
C. See a couple and therapy but not bring up the issue of his previous relationship un the wife does
D. Not see the husband or the couple in therapy, but instead to make a referral to another therapist
D. This situation is covered by the ethics coast standard 10. 07 which prohibit psychologist from providing therapies of former sexual partners. Seeing the couple and therapy were clearly violate the requirements of ethical 10. 07 seeing the husband only is not as directly addressed by the code, but certainly would represent a situation that might impair your objectivity or otherwise interfere with effectively performing your functions as a psychologist are also not be consistent with the requirement that psychologist avoid and minimize harm to clients
