Exam 4 Flashcards
1
Q
The use of a collection agency to collect delinquent fees from a former client is
A. Unethical and illegal
B. Unethical but legal
C. Ethical under certain circumstances
D. Always Ethical
A
C. Do you have a collection agency is not an ethical as long as certain precautions are taken. Ideally, the client should be told at the outside of therapy what the therapist policy is regarding the collection of uncle fees. Even more important, the client should be notified of the intention to use a collection agency if he’s not paid within a specific period of time.
2
Q
Presence of which of the following symptoms that would help confirm a DSM five diagnosis of inhalant intoxication:
A. Increased appetite, dry mouth, and tachycardia
B. Unsteady gait, slurred speech, and tremor
C. Nausea, vomiting, and muscle aches
D. 13, vivid and I’m pleasant dreams, an increase appetite
A
Symptoms of inhalant intoxication include dizziness, nystagmus, in coordination, slurred speech, unsteady gait, lethargy, depressed reflexes, psycho motor retardation, tremor, generalized muscle weakness, blurred vision, stupor or coma and euphoria.
3
Q
Cross’s Black Racial Identity Development Model predicts that an African American in the pre-encounter stage of identity development will:
A. Exhibit a great deal of confusion and turmoil related to race
B. Have adopted a mainstream (White) identity
C. Be hostile to members of all racial/ethnic minority groups
D. Exhibit “healthy cultural paranoia “
A
B. Cross’s model decides the pre-encounter stage into two sub stages: assimilation and anti-Black. Adoption of a mainstream identity is characteristic of the assimilation substage, which is the first substage Is the pre-encounter stage.
4
Q
The national Institute of mental health multi modal treatment study of ADHD compared the effectiveness of four treatments – medication management alone, behavioral treatment alone, combined medication and behavioral treatment, and routine community care. The results of the initial study indicated that
A. Behavioral to treatment alone is as Effective as medication alone
B. Medication alone or behavioral treatment alone is as effective as the combined treatment
C. Medication alone or the combined treatment is more effective than behavioral treatment alone or routine community care
D. Behavioral treatment alone or the combined treatment is more effective the medication alone or routine community care
A
C. Note this question is asking about the initial results of the MTA study. Overall, the initial results indicated that the combination treatment or medication management alone was significantly more effective than intensive behavioral treatment alone a routine community care. Thus, of the answer is given, this is the best one. However, follow up studies found that the superiority of medication alone and the combined treatment was true for short term affects but not long-term effects.
5
Q
Vgostsky’s approach to cognitive development has had the greatest influence on which of the following?
A. The reciprocal teaching method
B. The teaching for understanding method
C. The use of computer adaptive instruction for children with learning disabilities
D. Genetic explanations for cognitive development

A
A. Vgotsky’s theory of cognitive development has had the greatest impact on educational theories and strategies, Which emphasizes a child’s ability to learn through social interaction and has been applied to reading instruction. Brown and Palinscar’s Reciprocal teaching method emphasizes the ability to learn from others and Is strongly influenced by Vgotsky’s approach to cognitive development.
6
Q
Eliana, age 32, tells you that she often has trouble concentrating on her work and falling asleep at night because she is constantly worried about having cancer. She states that her older sister had surgery for breast cancer last year at her mothers sister and uncle both had lung cancer. Eliana says she has a physical exam every six months and has been reassured by the doctor that she is OK, but she knows that, for some people, there are no symptoms of cancer until it is too late to do anything about it. Eliana also tells you that she keeps checking her breasts for lumps and get scared whenever she coughs because she thinks might be an early sign of lung cancer. Eliana symptoms are suggestive of which of the following DSM five disorders? a. Body dysmorphic disorder B. Somatic symptom disorder C. Hypochondriasis D. Illness anxiety disorder
A
D. Illness anxiety disorder involves a preoccupation with having a serious illness, an absence of somatic symptoms or the presence of mild somatic symptoms, have level of anxiety about oneself, and performance of excessive health related behaviors(care seeking type) or maladaptive avoidance of doctors, hospitals, etc.( care-avoidant type).
7
Q
Which of the following is characterized by intense sexually aroused fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviors that involve touching or rubbing against a non-consenting person?
A. Fetishism
B. Frotteurism
C. Exhibitionism
D. Trichotillomania
A
B. Paraphilic disorders( paraphilias) involve intense sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urgers, are behaviors related to unusual objects, activities, or situations the information in this question accurately describes frotteurism
8
Q
The major disadvantage of a behaviorally anchored rating scale(Bars) is that:
A. It’s highly susceptible to rater biases
B. They requires considerable time and effort to develop
C. It is lacking in contact validity
D. It doesn’t provide adequate information for employee feedback and counseling
A
B. When using a behaviorally anchored rating scale, the rater rates an employee on a continuum that is anchored by critical incidents. This is a primary problem with this type of rating scale. The development of a behaviorally anchored rating scale is a team effort that involves both managers and subordinates
9
Q
Which of the following enzymes breaks down the neurotransmitter dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin? Among maltreated children, the rate of antisocial behavior was significantly higher for those with low activities of this enzyme.
A. Monoamine oxidase A
B. 5-hydroxyindolecetic acid
C. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
D. Prion
A
A.
Monoamine oxidase A is an enzyme that degrades Neurotransmitter such seratonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine. Evidence supporting an association between this enzyme brain levels and aggression CORRECT
5-hydroxyindolectic acid which is the primary metabolite of serotonin and is broken down in the liver. Its Primary use is in diagnosing and monitoring carcinoid tumors, a subset of serotonin secreting Neuroendocrine tumors
10
Q
And the parents of four-year-old Walter report that, even as a baby, he did not like to be held which they attributed to colic. They report that he still does not like to be touched and he does not like to play with other children and seems to be in his own world much of the time. We’re not engaged in an activity(he only likes playing with cars and dominoes), Walter rocks constantly and has a hard time saying still, but he can focus for hours when he’s learning of his toy cars or dominoes. What is cognitive development and language acquisition have been normal, but he does seem to have some trouble reading social cues. Which DSM five diagnosis should you consider first for Walter
A. Autism spectrum disorder
B. Asperger‘s disorder
C. Stereotypic movement disorder
D. Pervasive developmental disorder NOS
A
A. Autism spectrum disorder involves persistent deficits in social communication and interaction and restricted return repetitive patterns of behavior interests and activities
11
Q
On the MMPI-2, s T score of 70 means that an examini score is at the
A. 68th percentile
B. 70th percentile
C. 84th percentile
D. 97th percentile
A
D. The T distribution has a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10, which means a T score of 70 is to standard deviations above the mean. In a normal distribution(which is assumed for MMPI scores), About 97% of scores fall below is the score that is to standard deviation’s above mean
12
Q
What are the three approaches to healthcare?
A. The group model, open model, and regency model
B. The Stanford model, dual model, and house model
C. The open models, Bismarck model, and balanced models
D. The private models, Beveridge model, and Bismarck model
A
CORRECT = D. There are three approaches to healthcare: the private model, the Beveridge model(public funds), by And Bismarck model(mix of public and private funds).
13
Q
Which of the following protect the brain from invading micro organisms and are responsible for the inflammatory reaction in response to brain damage? A. Lysosomes B. Area postrema C. Schwann cell D. Microglia 
A
CORRECT = D. Microglia are specialized population of macrophages that are found in the central nervous system(CNS). They remove damaged neurons and infections and are important for maintaining the health of the CNS. They act as the major inflammatory cell type in the brain in response to pathogens and injury by becoming “
activated”
Incorrect:
A lysosome is a membrane bound cell that contains digestive enzymes. They are involved with various cell processes, including the destruction of invading viruses and bacteria
B. The area postrema is a medullary structure in the brain that controls vomiting and plays a vital role in the control of all anomic functions by the central nervous system
C. One of the most important functions of the Schwann cell is to myelinated the axons of the peripheral nervous system. I myelinating Schwann cell wraps around the single axon
14
Q
In organizations, frame of reference training is used to:
A. Facilitated a job analysis
B. Improve team productivity
C. Identify appropriate criterion measures
D. Increase rated accuracy
A
D. Turn your Raiders has been found to be the most effective way to reduce raider biases. Certain types of training see more effective than others. Frame of reference training is particularly useful. Divorce familiarizing rafters with the multidimensional nature of job performance and with the actual content of each performance dimension
15
Q
When first developed, the Stanford Binet offered several advantages over the other intelligence tests, including its comprehensive examiners guide, standardization procedure, and its use of which of the following?
A. Intelligence quotient
B. Scientific method
C. Standard deviation
D. Skewed distribution
A
A. IQ or intelligent question is a standard measure of an individually‘s ability to reason and sell problems based on psychological tests. 
16
Q
The tendency to seek or pay attention only to information that confirms our beliefs is referred to as:
A. Functional fixedness
B. Belief perseverance
C. The self-serving bias
D. The confirmation bias
A
D. Research has identified a number of Piuses that impact our judgments and scissions. The “confirmation bias” involves seeking out or paying attention only to information which confirms our beliefs.
17
Q
 you hear a rumor that one of your coworkers has a habit of flirting with the younger female employees. He start paying closer attention to his behavior and discover that the rumors are not unfounded. Your best course of action in the situation would be to______
A. Maintain a record of your observations and present them to the companies director
B. Approach the young women who have been harassed and suggest they file a complaint with the ethics committee
C. Discuss your observations and the rumors you’ve heard with the coworker
D. Do you nothing since your coworkers behaviors are basically harmless 
A
C. Standard three. 04 of the ethics code requires that psychologist attempt to minimize harm against individuals with home psychologist work, and stand there one. 04 and one. 05 require psychologist to take action when a colleague is acting unethically. Discussing your concern is generally arrest first course of action if you feel comfortable and confronting individual who has allegedly acted unethically
18
Q
Functional brain imaging of a patient with mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease is most likely to find which of the following?
A. Increase metabolism in the frontal lobes and basal ganglia
B. Decreased metabolism in the prefrontal cortex and thalamus
C. Reduced metabolism in the Hippocampus and in entorhinal cortex
D. Increase metabolism in the hippocampus and amygdala
A
C. Atrophy in the Hibocan office is associated with memory loss in Alzheimer’s disease. Researchers have linked neurono degeneration in the medial temporal structures(Entorhinal cortex, hippocampus, and amygdala) With symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease. On a PET scan, this manifests as reduced metabolism and the structures
19
Q
Ex post facto research is distinguished from true experimental research by_____
A. An inability to randomly select participants from the population
B. And inability to manipulate the independent variable(s)
C. The observation of participants in their natural environment
D. The study of participants under conditions that resemble (but are not identical to) the target conditions
A
B. Ex post facto is “after the fact” research. I said he is considered to be ex post facto when the IV cannot be manipulated because it has already been applied. Note that some experts categorize ex post facto research as “quasi experimental” while others place it in a separate category (EG descriptive research)
20
Q
To evaluate the concurrent validity of a new selection test for sales people, it would:
A. Connect a factor analysis to confirm that the test measures the attribute it was designed to measure
B. Have sales managers (“subject matter expert”) rate test items for relevance to success as a sales person
C. Administer the test to a sample of current sales people and correlate their scores on the test with the recently assigned performance ratings
D. Administer the test the sales people before an after they participate a sales training program and correlate the two sets of scores

A
C. Concurrent and predictive validity or types of criterion reliability. To evaluate a test criterion related validity scores on the predictor (in this case, the selection test) are correlated with a score on a criterion (measure of job performance). With scores on both measures are obtained at about the same time, they provide information on the test concurrent validity
21
Q
Which of the following lists the correct order of the stages of grief as described by Elizabeth Kubler Ross?
A. Anger, depression, denial, bargaining, acceptance
B. Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance
C. Bargaining, denial, depression, anger, acceptance
D. Denial, anger, bargaining , depression, acceptance
A
D. FaceTime her research withterminally illpatience, Kubler Ross identified five stages and coming in terms with one zone death. This answer accurately lists the order of Kubler-Ross’s stages of grief. Noted however that subsequent research has found at the stages do not necessarily occur in the order identify by Cubler Ross and the stages maybe repeat it
22
Q
The drug____prevents the intestines from observing up to 30% of fat in the diet. Half of the individuals using this drug have at least 5% weight loss after two years.
A. Fenfluramine
B. Sibutramine
C. Orlistat
D. Phentermine
A
C. Orlistat works by blocking the enzyme that breaks down fat in the diet. The undigested fat then passes out of the body through the bowels
23
Q
Research investigating the relationship between unemployment and mental health is generally found that
A. The rates of depression and other neurotic disorders are substantially higher among the unemployed than the employed
B. The rest of depression and other neurotic disorders are about the same among the unemployed and the employed
C. Mental health problems are likely to occur when symptoms were evident prior to unemployment
D. Paradoxically about 20 to 25% of unemployed individuals reporting improvement in mental health after job loss
A
A. Most of the research has reported a relationship between job loss and mental and physical health problems. Several studies have found rates of depression and other neurotic disorder is to be about twice as high among the unemployed
24
Q
A treatment for depression that is based on Rehm’s self control theory is most likely to include
A. Having the client keep a record of automatic thoughts
B. Having a client keep a record of positive experiences
C. Helping the client replace irresponsible behaviors with responsible ones
D. Using functional behavioral analysis to help the client identify the antecedents and consequences associated with maladaptive behaviors
A
B. Rehm’s self-control theory is based on the assumption that depression is related to six deficits in self-control behavior: Selective monitoring of negative events;/of monitoring of a mediate (versus delayed) consequences of behavior; certain self evaluate of criteria; an accurate attributions of responsibility; insufficient self-reward; and excessive self-punishment. According to Rehm’s, Depressed people focus too much on negative events. Three minute times to alter this by encouraging clients to recognize the positive events that occur
25
A client describes a recurring dream to his therapist in which the client's parents are standing on top of a stairway and refuse to let him climb up to the bedroom. If the therapist was a practitioner of Gestalt Therapy, she will most likely:
A. Analyze the content of the dream
B. Ask the client to discuss his relationship with his parents
C. See the dram as indicative of the client's current progress in therapy
D. See the dram as representing parts of the client's personality that need to be integrated
Correct answer D:
The major goals of Gestalt therapy are to help a client achieve self-responsibility and function as a systematic whole. Dream work is one of the many techniques Gestalians use. A goal of Gestalt Therapy is to integrate the separate, fragmented parts of a client's personality into a unified whole in line with this goal. Gestalians see elements of recurring drams as representations of parts of the self that have not been fully accepted and integrated
26
Staying awake, especially toward the end of the day, depends on which of the following neurotransmitter?
A. Orexin
B. Histamine
C. Norepinephrine
D. GABA
CORRECT A. Axons releasing orexin extend to the basal forebrain, where they stimulate neurons responsible for wakefulness. Orexin is not necessary for waking, but for staying awake.
INCORRECT:
Histamine is responsible for regulating the cycle of sleeping and waking. It has an impact on the biological clock that regulates our circadian rhythm
Norepinephrine activity is involved in arousal from sleep. Increased norepinephrine decreases REM sleep
GABA enables the body and mind to relax an fall asleep and to sleep soundly throughout the night. Low GABA activity is linked to insomnia and disrupted sleep.
27
In the context of incremental validity, the positive hit rate is calculated by:
A. Dividing the true positives by the false positives
B. Dividing the true positives by the total positives
C. Dividing the total positives by the true positives
D. Dividing the total positives by the false positives
B. The positive hit rate is the proportion of people who would have been selected on the basis of their predictor scores and were also successful on the criterion. The positive hit rate is calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the total number of positives
28
If scores on two tests are correlated, multiplying each score in one set of test scores by five will _____the magnitude of the Pearson r.
A. increase
B. decrease
c. have no effect on
increase or decrease
C. The Pearson r is a measure of the degree of association between variables(i.e., the extent to which a score on one variable can accurately predict a score on another variable). This response makes intuitive sense. For instance, if SAT scores are highly predictive of GRE scores, then multiplying all SAT scores (or all GRE scores or all SAT and GRE scores) by a constant will not change this relationship. You still will be able to use SAT scores to predict GRE scores with the same degree of accuracy.
29
Piaget‘s concrete operational stage of development is characteristic of children ages
A. 2 to 7 years
B, 5 to 8 years
C. 7 to 11 years
D. 10 to 15 years
C. Piaget distinguishes between four stages of cognitive development sensorimotor, preoperational concrete operational and formal operations 7 to 11 is the age range for the concrete operational stage
Children ages 2 to 7 are in the preoperational stage
30
To establish a behavior than individual does not naturally admit you would use which of the following
A. Intermittent reinforcement
B. Shaping
C. Response generalization
D. Priming
Correct answer is B. One of the difficulties with offering conditioning is that it is necessary to wait until the organism admits a response so that consequences of the response of em parentheses reinforcement or punishment) can be manipulated. To overcoming this problem desired behavior can be shaped shaping involves successive approximations to the desired behavior. When using shaping, it isn’t necessary to wait for the behavior to be admitted. Instead, the behavior is gradually developed or formed by reinforcing responses that come closer and closer to it.
31
Lewinsohn’s behavioral model attributes depression to:
A. Negative self attributions
B. The fundamental attribution bias
C. A low rate of response contingent reinforcement
D. Problems related to self-evaluation
Lewinsohn behavioral model is based on operant conditioning and focuses on the consequence of behavior.  Lewinsohn describe depression as being primarily the result of a low rate of response contingent reinforcement
32
Which of the following is most true about conduct disorder?
A. Individuals with childhood onset type are more likely than those with adolescent on set type to develop adult anti-social personality disorder
B. Individuals with adolescent onset type or more likely on those with child on the type to develop adult antisocial personality disorder
C. What’s individuals with conduct disorder had received a diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder an adult, regardless of age of onset
D. Connect disorder is normally associated with antisocial personality disorder only when there is a family history of antisocial behavior
A. According to the DSM5, long-term outcomes for conductor order very, but for most individuals, it remits by adulted. There is evidence that early on set symptoms place with a child at greatest risk for resulting synthesis antisocial personality disorder adulthood.
33
Use of the technique known as meta-analysis and tails calculating and effect size which can be defined as____
A. Statistically significant difference between experimental and control groups
B. A standardized mean difference between experimental and control groups
C. Zero order correlation
D. A partial regression coefficient
B. The term meta-analysis is used to describe a quantitative integration of research studies involving the calculation and aggregation of affect size estimates. There are several ways to calculate and affect size, but a commonly used method involves subtracting the control group mean in the experimental group mean and dividing the result by either the control group standard deviation or the pool within group standard deviation. The result is a standard score that indicates difference between the experimental and control groups in terms of standard deviation units.
34
At_____ months of age, most children string tu work together to make a sentence – for example, “daddy girl“, “more juice,“ and “eat cookie.”
A. 12 to 16
B. 18 to 24
C. 26 to 32
D. 34 to 40
B. From about 18 to 24 months of age infants combine two words together to form a sentence this telegraphics speech usually contains only nouns verbs and adjectives.
35
Which of the following is an example of elaborative rehearsal?
A. Ensuring that the same cues are present when information is encoded and retrieved
B. Gradually removing prompts during the learning process
C. Practicing a new skill past the point of mastery
D. Relating new information to previously required information
D. The rehearsal of new information helps ensure that it is transferred from short to long-term memory two types of rehearsal are distinguished: maintenance and elaborative. La River rehearsal is used to describe the process of making new information meaningful in order to enhance its retention and retrieval. Relaying new information to previously acquired information is one type of a laborative rehearsal
36
A Wechsler IQ score is a(n):
A. Percentile rank
B. Standard score
C. Ipsative score
D. Stamina score
B. the Wechsler IQ score is an example of a standard score, a type of norm referenced interpretation. When examinees Ron test score is converted to a standard score, the transform score indicates examinees position in the normative sample in terms of standard deviations from the mean. Wechsler full-scale IQ scores and index scores have a mean of 100 and standard deviation of 15, while the subtest have a mean of 10 and standard deviation of three. This means that the full-scale IQ score of 115 is one standard deviation above the mean.
37
According to Sue and Zane, in terms of ensuring good treatment outcomes, the most important factor in culturally sensitive therapy is:
A. Demonstrating cultural knowledge
B. Using culture specific techniques
C. Using techniques that establish credibility
D. Being authentic and empathic
C. Sue and Zane note that, when discussing cross cultural counseling, most authors focus on cultural knowledge and the use of cultural specific techniques. He’s investigators argue, however, that these factors are only the means to an end, which is establishing credibility. According to Sue and Zane the therapist credibility is a key determinant of therapy outcome. Cultural knowledge and the use of culture specific techniques are beneficial only to they sent that they contribute to the therapist credibility.
38
The psychologist is working in the employee assistant program of a large corporation. She has a Pro space supervisor who referred an employee to the EAP several weeks ago when he play was having problems at home that begin interfering with her job performance. The employer now wants to know if the employee has been receiving counseling from the psychologist and, if so, how the sessions are going. In fact, the employee has seen the psychologist four times and I have another session scheduled for the next week. The psychologist should_________.
A. Inform the supervisor that she has seen the employee but for find no information about employees treatment
B. Inform the supervisor that she has seen the employee and provide a summary of the employees progress with regard to the reason for the referral
C. Remind the supervisor of the need to maintain confidentiality and provide them with no information about the employee
D. Tell the supervisor that she will have to get permission from the employee before providing the supervisor with any information about the employee’s progress.
A. And employer is allowed to know the attendance record of a client using the EAP program. The employer is privy to further information beyond attendance only if either a) a release of information is signed by the client or B) the client is referred to the EAP by the employer for a “fitness for duty evaluation“. In this instance, even without a release of information, the employer is entitled to know the attendance record of the client as well as minimal additional information about the results of the evaluation, including but not limited to if any accommodations are needed for the client to succeed in their job.
39
A task oriented leader is most effective in the work situation is characterized either if I could leader member relations, structured test, and strong leader power or by Moderat the poor leader member relations, and unstructured task, and weak leader power. This is predicted by which of the following?
A. Fielder’s contingency theory
B. Hersey and Blanchards situational leadership model
C. House’s path goal theory
D. VRoom, Yetton, and Jago’s normative model
A. The theories listed, only one predicts that a task oriented leader is most effective and extreme (have a favorable and Highway unfavorable) conditions. Fiedler proposed that a low LPC (task oriented) leaders are most effective when the situation is either very favorable or very unfavorable in terms of the leaders ability to lead.
40
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Which of the following describes a rare genetic disorder where calcium accumulates in the amygdala until it wastes way? Other symptoms include skin lesions, essence of fearlessness, and one experienced emotion (excitement).
A. Myasthenia Gracie
B. Kluver-Bucy syndrome
C. Urbach-Wiethe disease
D. Tay-Sachs disease
```
C. Urbach-Wiethe disease what is a rare autosomal recessive disorder predisposing individual to increase collagen deposition in the skin and soft tissue. Characteristic features include moniliform blepharitis, Ankyloglossia, and bilateral symmetric basal ganglia calcification.CORRECT
Incorrect: myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder that causes weakness in the skeletal muscles and occurs when communication between nurse cells and muscle cells becomes impaired
B. Kluver Bucy syndrome is a rare behavioral impairment characterized by inappropriate sexual behaviors and mouthing of objects. Other symptoms include a diminished ability to visually recognize objects, lots of normal fear and anger responses, memory loss, seizures, and dementia
D. Tay-Sachs disease is a rare disorder passed from parents to the child. It is caused by the absence of an enzyme that helps breakdown fatty substances called ganglio sides, which build up toxic levels in a child-sprain and affect the function of nerve cells.
41
Following a review of the case, and HMO decides to deny further payment for sessions for one of your current clients. You believe that the client would benefit from additional therapy. You should_______
A. Comply with the HMOs request as long as the limits of treatment we discussed with a client at the onset of therapy
B. Continue to provide therapy to the client without compensation if necessary until other arrangements can be made
C. Consult with the client about her options in the situation
D. File a complaint against the HMO
C. An issue freaky addressed in the literature as managed care is the problem created when the managed care entity decides to discontinue coverage. Other responses given, this is the best one. The psychologist should discuss the clients options with him/her (one of which might to file an appeal)
42
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In factor analysis, the underscore__underscore underscore is the proportion of a test‘s total variance that is accounted for by the common (identified) factors
A. Communality
B. Factor loading
C. Principal component
D. Eigenvalue
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A. Each test included in a factor analysis has a community, which indicates the total amount of vaability and test scores and has been explained by the factor analysis – I. E., By all the identified factors
43
You were hired by University to teach a graduate seminar in the psychology department. In terms of the ethics code, you were explicitly required to do which of the following?
A. Ensure that the course content reflects the most recent research in the area
B. Is sure that accurate information about the seminars available to all interested parties
C. Is sure that the similar content is consistent with the interest in needs of the students
D. Ensure that there are multiple means by which to evaluate students
B, The issue addressed in this question is covered and ethical standard 7.02 of the ethics code. Responses given, only this one represents explicit requirements of the ethics code
44
As described by Beck, Automatic thoughts involve:
A. Interpreting experiences in pattern, reflexive ways
B. Enduring schemas that have been repeatedly reinforced
C. Shoulds, musts, and oughts
D. Episodic memories
A. Automatic thoughts are the primary target in Becks cognitive therapy. Has the name implies automatic thoughts are automatic or reflexive. They also usually have an interpretive are evaluating for component (e.g. this is awful)
45
Which is the following statements about adolescent adjustments and divorce families is true?
A. The change represented by marital dissolution appears to be the primary stressor accounting for psychological and behavioral problems in youth of divorced families.
B. Variables associate with adolescent post divorce adjustment includes both dyadic and broader social factors
C. Female adolescents demonstrate more psychological impact and mail it adolescents after divorce
D. No I did buy some things a bit more academic and behavior problems or female adolescence in the. Prior to divorce

B. A longitudinal analysis, based on two ways of a large, nationally represented panel revealed that adolescent adjustment in the context of divorce appears to be affected by both dyadic factors, such as decreased parental intimacy, and broader psychosocial factors, such as decreased parental commitment to education and fewer family resources
46
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Stead eat al’s review of the literature found that___is the most effective form of nicotine replacement therapy for smoking cessation
A. Nicotine gum
B. Nicotine nasal spray
C. Nicotine tablet/lozenge
D. Nicotine patch
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B. L. D. Stead et al evaluated the effectiveness of nicotine gum, the nicotine patch, nicotine tablet/lozenges, nicotine inhaler, and nicotine nasal spray and found that all forms of nicotine replacement therapy were more effective than a placebo for reducing cigarette smoking. He’s investigated discovered that of the nicotine replacement therapy, nicotine nasal spray was most effective and nicotine gum was at least effective
47
I current to DW Sue an angle American therapist with an internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility is most life to experience problems when working with a client who has an:
A. External locus of control and internal locus of responsibility
B. External locus of control and an external locus of responsibility
C. Internal locus of control an external locus of responsibility
D. Internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility
C. Sue uses his model of worldview to describe issues and problems that angle American therapist may face when working with clients from culturally diverse backgrounds. DW Sue and D Sue discussed this issue in counseling the culturally different New York John Riley and sons 1999. They conclude the IC-ER worldview is likely to pose the most difficult problems for the IC-IR therapist because the client is likely to challenge the therapist of do the therapist as part of the establishment that has a priorities be reluctant to disclose in the therapy process
48
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Elaine considers her friend Tom to be client and reserved. She says that when she is alone with Tom or when they are in a small group, Tom listens more than he talks and he’s never one to “make a scene“ one day, however, Elaine deserve Tom in a large crowd that is waiting for the arrival of a “special celebrity guest“ at the opening of a new shopping mall. The guest is nearly 30 minutes late, and the crowd is beginning to show signs of impatient. Helena surprise when she says Tom initiate loud “booing“ and other derogatory comments well waving his clenched fist in the air and anger. Which of the following best explains Thomas unusual behavior?
A. Deindividuation
B. Social facilitation
C. Catharsis
D. Paradoxical intention
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A. The number of studies have shown in the anonymity increases the likelihood that an individual willing gauge and antisocial or other uncharacteristic behaviors. The increase Tennessee to act in uncharacteristic ways when anonymity is likely is referred to as deindividuation. Deindividuation is Believed to be the result of a decreased sense of responsibility, reduce self-consciousness, Lord fear of evaluation, and/or a loss of other inhibitory mechanisms
49
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Annabelle, age 32, is brought to a clinician by her sister who says she thinks Annabel is in a cult. She states the NFL used to be a very fun loving, intellectually curious, and affectionate individual, but since she’s became affiliated with this group over two years ago, she “doesn’t seem to be the same person“ the clinician races that Annabel is very quiet doesn’t make eye contact and appears “zoned out“ when your sister reaches out to touch her, Annabel flinches as if in pain. And it will states that she is a “new person“ now and can “see reality for what it really is.“ Business information, the most likely DSM five diagnosis for Annabelle is:
A. Other specified dissociative disorder
B. Post traumatic stress disorder
C. Schizoid personality disorder
D. Major depressive disorder
```
A. Of the diagnoses listed, other specified dissociative disorder is the best fit. This diagnosis is assigned when the individual has some dissociative symptoms (in this case, appearing zoned out and the radical change in her personality as reported by her sister) that do not meet the full criteria for one of the other dissociative disorders. Since Annabel symptoms appear to be related to her association with a cold, and the most comprehensive diagnosis would be other specified dissociative disorder with identity disturbance due to prolonged and intense coercive persuasion.
50
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Research has confirmed, they were making attributions about your own behavior, we are nearly interview behaviors that have positive outcomes to dispositional factors by behaviors I have negative outcomes to situational factors. It’s Tennessee is referred to as the:
A. Self verification theory
B. Self-serving bias
C. Confirmation bias
D. Self-fulfilling prophecy
```
B. For the exam you want to be familiar with all the phenomena listed in the answer this question) as his name implies, the self-serving bias is the tendency to take responsibility for her actions when the actions have positive outcomes (i.e. to make this positional attributions) but to blame external events for actions when they have negative outcomes (i.e. to make situational attributions)
Incorrect answers:
According to “ Self verification theory“ people are motivated to maintain a stable self-concept and do so by seeking information that confirms the self-concept, even when that information is negative
The confirmation bias is the tendency to pay attention only to information that confirms our current beliefs
The self fulfilling prophecy effect occurs when expectations about her own behavior or the behavior of others increases the likelihood that behavior will actually occur
51
The multi systems model:
A. Is not recommended for patriarchl families
B. Is only recommended for families that are egalitarian in nature
C. Addresses multiple systems, intervenes on multiple levels, and focuses on strengths
D. Address is multiple systems and intervenes the multiple levels, but is not straight spaced
C. Boyd-Franklin‘s multi systems model addresses multiple systems, involves multiple level interventions, and focusing on building the family’s strengths
52
During an initial session with a client, the client tells Dr. Fafian that he and his wife have not been getting along well lately, and he thinks that may need couples couseling. As a client described his wife Dr. Fabian realizes that he had a brief affair with her 10 years ago (prior to her marriage). Dr. Fabian should ________.
A. Make an appointment with the wife and discuss the matter with her before agreeing to see the couple together in therapy
B. See the husband an individual therapy only and refer them to another therapist for couples therapy
C. See a couple and therapy but not bring up the issue of his previous relationship un the wife does
D. Not see the husband or the couple in therapy, but instead to make a referral to another therapist
D. This situation is covered by the ethics coast standard 10. 07 which prohibit psychologist from providing therapies of former sexual partners. Seeing the couple and therapy were clearly violate the requirements of ethical 10. 07 seeing the husband only is not as directly addressed by the code, but certainly would represent a situation that might impair your objectivity or otherwise interfere with effectively performing your functions as a psychologist are also not be consistent with the requirement that psychologist avoid and minimize harm to clients
53
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Piaget attributed the animistic thinking characteristics of children in the preoperational stage to:
A. Decentration
B. Lack of object permanence
C. Relativistic thinking
D. Egocentrism
```
D. According to Piaget, animism and magical thinking attributed to pre-causal reasoning that intern is due to egocentrism or generalize many of the limitations in the preoperational stage.
Incorrect answers:
Decentration is an accomplishment of the concrete operational stage and contributes to the ability to conserve
Object permanence is an accomplishment of the sensorimotor stage which precedes the preoperational stage and relativistic thinking is not addressed in Piaget’s‘s theory
54
A psychologist is hired by a court to evaluate a defendant during the course of a current office setting. Psychologist can subsequently include information about the defendant in a textbook that she is writing on forensic psychology________
A. As long as the defendant was born the dilemma to confidentiality at the time of the evaluation
B. Only if the psychologist has received the permission of the defendant legal representative to do so
C. As long as the psychologist determines that the value of the information warrants it’s inclusion in the book and she disguises all personally identifiable information
D. As long as the information including in the book is included in the public record of the case and she discusses I’ll personally identifiable information
D. This is she was addressed in paragraph eight. 04 of APA specialty guidelines for foreveric psychology. His answer is most consistent with the provisions of paragraph 8504 which states “forensic fretic using case materials for purposes of teaching, training, or research drive-to resent such information in affair, balanced, and respectful manner. They attempt to product the privacy of persons by disguising the confidential, personal identify I information of all persons and entities who is is he a privacy interest; using only those aspects of the case available to the public domain; or obtain consent from the relevant clients, parties, participants and organizations to use materials for such purposes”
55
Research investigating the effects of job satisfaction has generally found that:
A. It is correlated with physical and psychological health and longevity
B. Is Corley with physical health and longevity but not with mental health
C. Is Cortland recyclelogical health but not with physical health or longevity
D. It’s not correlate with physical or mental health or longevity
A. Studies assessing the consequences of job satisfaction have found that it not only affect certain on the job factors benefactors outside the job environment. Job satisfaction found the correlate with longevity, all the satisfaction has been associate with both psychological and physical disorders (e.g. ulcers high blood pressure alcoholism)
56
Which of the following is true about sensory memory?
A. Information is retained for about one half to two seconds
B. Without rehearsal, information is retaining for only 30 to 60 seconds
C. With attention, information is retained for up to three minutes
D.With rehearsal, information maybe retained indefinitely
A.
Sensory memory holds information from all of the senses for a very brief period of time. Estimate of the duration of sensory memory very someone, there’s generally described as being less than two seconds
57
Which of the following aspects of perception develops first during infancy?
A. 20/20 vision
B. Sensitivity pictorial depth cues
C. Preference for faces over other visual powers
D. Discrimination between happy and angry faces and sounds
C. Preferences for facial patterns over visual patterns is apparent by 2 to 3 months of age, although there is some evidence that it may occur as early as nine minutes of age
Incorrect: most expert state that children are achieve 2020 vision between six and 12 months of age sensitivity to pick Tor of death cues develves around six months of eight and the discriminate between having an angry faces and sounds appears at about seven months of each
58
Restriction instigating the effectiveness of neurofeedback as a treatment for ADHD is generally found which of the following?
A. It is not effective approach for us individuals with this disorder
B. It’s an effective approach and exerts its strongest impact on symptoms of inattention and impulsivity
C. Is an effective approaching exerts that strongest impact on sentence of hyperactivity
D. He’s an effective approach only one used in conjunction with the central nervous system stimulant
B. Research studies have demonstrated the effects of neurofeedback (EEG biofeedback) as a non-pharmacological treatment for ADHD meta-analysis have produced a large affect size for symptoms of an attention and impulsivity in a medium affect size for half activity results also indicate that the positive effects of neurofeedback remains stable or improved over two years
59
Research by the European social psychologist Serge Moscovici suggest that, if you represent to minority position of an issue and want to convince other group members that your position is best, the best strategy is to:
A. Ingratiate yourself in the most influential member of the group
B. Let the majority know that you will support their views on other key issues
C. Not waiver from your position
D. Show willingness to compromise
C. Moscovici’s Research found that a minority that sticks to his/her position is most successful in Sweeny opinion of the majority
60
What part of the reticular formation that contributes to cortical arousal and releases acetylcholine and glutamate is known as the:
A. Pontomescencephalon
B. Basal forebrain
C. Dorsal range
D. Pons
A. The pontomesemcephalon is part of the reticular formation that receives input from many sensory systems and generates spontaneous activity this area maintains arousal during wakefulness and increases in response to new or challenging tasks
61
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Individuals who receive a diagnosis of which of the following personality disorders are most likely to no longer meet all the diagnostic criteria for the story when they reach middle age?
A. Schizotypal personality disorder
B. Antisocial personality disorder
C. Paranoid personality disorder
D. Avoidant personality disorder
```
B. Other symptoms of antisocial personality disorder her often chronic, certain often decrease or we met with increasing age. The reduction symptoms and APV Fabinho age most often involves a decrease in criminal behavior as well other symptoms especially problems related to interpersonal relationships process to some degree
62
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Is often difficult to distinguish between major and mild and ner cognitive disorder, delirium, and major depressive disorder and older adults. However, the presence of which of the following suggest a Delirium is the appropriate DSM five diagnosis?
A. Deficits in memory
B. Fatigue or loss of energy
C. Impaired attention and awareness
D. Flight of ideas
```
C. As described in the DSM five the essential feature of delirium is a disturbance in attention and awareness plus an additional disturbance in cognition (e.g. memory deficit, disorientation, language impairment, a deficit in Visuospatial ability, or perceptual distortion)
63
Most important contributor to predictors incremental validity is this criterion really ability coefficient: the higher the coefficient, the greater the validity. However, incremental validity is also affected by other factors specifically, a predictor will have the greatest incremental validity when:
A. The selection ratio is moderate and the base rate is high
B. The selection ratio is low in the base rate is moderate
C. The selection ratio is high and the base rate is moderate
D. The selection ratio is moderate and the base rate is low
B. The incremental validity of a predictor is determined by several factors including the what are you efficient, a selection ratio, and the base rate reduction will have the greatest incremental validity when the Selection ratio is low(There are lots of applicants for the job) and when the base rate is moderate (the current selection technique is moderately accurate)
64
Find a perspective a structural family therapy, a therapist failure to ______is likely to produce resistance among family members
A. Form a therapeutic triangle
B. Join the family
C. Act as a “blank screen“
D. Remain disengage from the families emotional system
B. Millionairrity with Minuchin’s terminology it would’ve felt you choose the correct answer this question. Minuchin considers joining to be a prerequisite for restructuring the family
Incorrect: Bowen (not Minuchin) promotes forming a therapeutic triangle with your family members in therapy
Minuchin Does not view the therapist role to be that of a blank screen the “family emotional system” is a term most associate with Bowen
65
The DSM five requires a clinician to rule out which of the following as a cause of an individual symptoms before assigning a diagnosis of a sexual dysfunction?
A. Other mental disorders, physiological/medical factors, and partner factors
B. A non-sexual mental disorder, severe relationship distress, and the effects of a substance, medication, or other medical condition
C. A nonsexual mental disorder, the effects of a substance/medication, and a lack of information about sexuality
D. Other mental disorder/condition, the effects of a substance/medication, and psychosocial factors
B. The following is included as a diagnostic criteria and for DSM five diagnosis of erectile disorder, premature ejaculation, and other sexual dysfunctions: “ The sexual dysfunction is not better explained by a non-sexual mental disorder or as a consequence of severe relationship distress or other significant stressors as not attributed to the effects of a substance/medication or other medical condition
66
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The term_______ refers to the presence of systematic error in the measurement of certain factors (EG academic potential, intelligence, as psychopathology) how long certain individuals or groups
A. Confirmation bias
B. Testing the limits
C. Dynamic Testing
D. Test bias
```
D. Test bias refers to the differential validity of test scores for groups (e.g. age, education, culture, race, sex) bias is a systematic error in the measurement process that differentially influences scores for identified groups
67
A_________ is an extended period of unconsciousness caused by head trauma, stroke, or disease
A. Brain death
B. Coma
C. Vegetative state
D. Minimally conscious state
B. A coma is a state of kind unconsciousness where a person is unresponsive and cannot be woken. Someone in a coma has a low level of brain activity throughout the day, a little or no response to stimuli, including those that are ordinarily painful

68
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Over the course of a year, a therapist who is working with a native American family, appropriately involves to paternal grandparents, family spiritual leader, school counselor in a treatment process. This practitioner is likely utilizing:
A. A primary prevention strategy
B. The health belief model
C. Network therapy
D. Indigenous healing practices
```
C. This is a difficult question given that little information and provided. Network therapy is a multi model treatment that incorporates family and community members into the treatment process and situates an individuals problems within the context of his/her family, workplace, community, and other social systems. Knowing that LaFromboise Recommended use of networks therapy with native American populations may have helped you answer this question
69
After being rejected by the college she most wanted to attend, a young woman the sizes she didn’t really want to go to that college after all. It’s rel reaction is predicted by which of the following
A. Equity theory
B. Fundamental attribution bias
C. Cognitive dissonance theory
D. Gain/loss theory
C. In the situation, the young woman has changed your mind by the college in response to being rejected cognitive dissonance predicts that, in the situation, the woman will change your attitude about the school number to relieve the tension she feels as a result of not being excepted by the school
70
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In evaluating the criterion validity of a selection test you discover that race/ethnicity is a moderator value. Consequently, you’ll be interested in determining if the test has:
A. Adequate internal validity
B. Adequate reliability
C. Differential validity
D. Convergent validity
```
C. In the situation, Ray Sasha city is affecting (“moderating”) The relationship between a predictor (the selection test) and the criterion for the exam, you want to have the term “moderated variable“ linked with the term “differential validity“ whenever characteristic is acting as a moderator variable this means that the validity coefficients for the predictor and criterion are different for groups The differ In terms of that variable
71
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A ________ refers to the tool of assessment used to help narrow down and identify areas of deficit to be targeted for intervention
A. Achievement test
B. Informal evaluation
C. Diagnostic test
D. Psychological autopsy
```
C. A diagnostic test is a two of assessment used to help narrow down and identify areas of deficit to be targeted for intervention. For example, in educational settings, diagnostic tests of reading, mathematics, and other academic subjects may be administered to assess the need for educational intervention
72
An expert witness is recognized by the court to be qualified to offer opinions on a specific issue. To qualify as an expert witness, a psychologist must _____.
A. Have a valid professional license
B. Have a relevant doctoral degree from an accredited school
C. Have appropriate education, training, and experience
D. Certified as a forensic psychologist by the ABPP
C. An expert witness is ordinarily approved by the court through the process of Voi dire during which the witnesses education, training, and experience examined. Requirements for expert testimony are provided in state and federal law. Example, federal rule of evidence 702 states, “I witness who is qualified as an expert by knowledge skill experience training or education may testify in the form of an opinion or otherwise if: (A) the expert scientific, technical, or other specialized knowledge will help the trier Have faxed to understand the evidence or to determine a fact in issue; (B) testimony is based on sufficient facts or data; (C) the testimony is the product of reliable principles and methods; & (D) the expert has reliability apply to the principles of methods to the facts of the case”
73
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Which of the following is an example of a variable ratio schedule of reinforcement?
A. “Surprise” quizzes
B. Piecework
C. Bi-weekly paychecks
D. Slot machines
```
D. I want a variable ratio reinforcement schedule is being used, reinforcement is delivered after a variable number of responses. Slot machines reinforce players after a variable number of responses.
74
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Psychologist developed the theory of alcohol abuse described it as a result of a combination of genetic predisposition toward alcoholism and exposure to certain environmental factors. the psychologist theory is example of the _________ model.
A. Psychogenic
B. Sociogenic
C. Diathesis-stress
D. SORC
```
C. The psychologist theory explains alcohol abuse as a result of a combination of biological and environmental factors. The diathesis Dash stress model reflexive biopsychosocial perspective and conceptualizes disorders as a result of a combination of biological, psychological, and environmental (social in) factors. More specifically, it proposes that disorders are due to a combination of pre-dispositional factors (the diathesis) an exposure to certain life stressors.
75
The school psychologist is trying to determine why a fourth grade student with an above average IQ is doing poorly in school. He talks as soon as parents and teacher separately and then meets with them jointly to discuss similarities and differences in the boys behaviors at home in school. From the perspective of Brofenbrenner’s bio ecological model, the psychologist is investigating which of the following?
A. Microsystems and mesosystem
B. Microsystem and exosystem
C. Macro system and mesosystem
D. Macro system and exosystem
A. Brofenbrenner’s model distinguishes between five interlocking contextual systems that impact a child’s development. The micro system includes aspects of the child’s environment that affect him/her directly (e.g. school and home). The meso system refers to the interactions between elements of the micro system (e.g. the interaction between home and school)
76
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During the first therapy session with a husband and wife who are experiencing marital problems, a therapist requests that, during the next week, they identify things in the relationship that they want to continue. Most likely, this therapist is a practitioner of:
A. Psychoeducational family therapy
B. Behavioral Marital therapy
C. Interpersonal therapy
D. Solution-focused therapy
```
D. The therapist is giving a couple tasks that will help them focus on the positive aspects of the relationship. And then context of solution focused therapy, this assignment is an example of a “formula task “its purpose is to help the couple identify positive aspects of the relationship that, intern, can lead to solutions in the marital difficulties
77
Nicotine imitates the action of ________ embarrassing nicotinic receptors.
A. Norepinephrine
B. GABA
C. Serotonin
D. Acetylcholine
D. Nicotine imitates the action of the Nero transmitter acetylcholine binds to a particular type of acetylcholine receptor known as a nicotinic receptor
78
```
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is due to which of the following?
A. Thiamine deficiency
B. Vitamin C deficiency
C. Vitamin K deficiency
D. Anemia
```
A. Wernicke’s Encephalopathy is a neurological disorder caused by diamond deficiency, which primarily affects the peripheral and central nervous system. Symptoms include nystagmus ataxia and confusion
79
The owner of a company has decided that, to determine how well employees are performing, employees will be watchful performing their jobs for a predetermined period of time. Based on the relevant research, you predict that the employees performance during that period of observation will
A. Be inhibited if the task is easy
B. Be inhibited if the task is complex
C. Enhanced whether the task is easy or complex
D. The inhibited whether to task is easy or complex

B. It’s been found that, in certain circumstances, the presence of others inhibits task performance (social inhibition) well in other circumstances, the presence of others facilitates task performance (social facilitation) the presence of others tends to inhibit performance when the task is complex or unfamiliar
80
A researcher would you stepwise multiple regression when they want to_________.
A. Identify the fewest number of predictors needed to account for criterion variability
B. Identify the fewest number of criteria needed to accurately predict performance
C. Statistically remove the effects of one or more moderator variables
D. Identify the optimal number of distinct criterion groups
A. Stepwise multiple regression is a type of multiple regression. The result of stepwise multiple regression analysis indicate the fewest number of predictors needed to obtain maximally accurate predictions. Involves either adding or subtracting one predictor at a time and calculating the multiple correlation coefficient determine the effects of having more or less predictors.
81
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___________ Receptors in the paraventricular nucleus are important for limiting food intake, and deficiencies of this receptor lead to over eating.
A. Ghrelin
B. Melanocortin
C. Orexin
D. Agouti-related peptide
```
B. The melanocortin System is a critical neural system underlying The control of body weight. Deficits in the system may promote or exacerbate the comorbidities of obesity
82
Four people diagnosed with specific phobia, blood injection injury type:
A. Relaxation techniques for the treatment of choice
B. Relaxation techniques have good short-term but poor long-term effects
C. Relaxation techniques are most effective when they include in vivo exposure to feared stimuli
D. Relaxation techniques I’m normally contraindicated
D. Specific phobia blood injection injury type is associated with a unique physiological reaction to food stimuli and therefore requires a treatment approach a difference from those used with other forms of the disorder for people with blood injection injury type feared stimuli produce an initial increase in heart rate and blood pressure which is immediately followed by a drop in heart rate and blood pressure and fainting. In contrast, people with other types of specific phobia experience only an increase in heart rate and blood pressure. Because of the physiological response associate with the blood injection injury type, treatment involved tensing (rather than relaxing) muscles in the presence of feared stimuli
83
The purpose of the _________ is to identify parents in need of guidance, parent child relationship support, and identify children at risk for emotional and behavioral developmental problems.
A. Stress index for parents and adolescence(SIPA)
B. Parenting Stress Index-Fourth Edition (PSI-4)
C. Behavior Assessment System for Children- Third Edition (BASC-3)
D. Conners’ Parent Rating Scale- Revised (CPRS-R)
B. The PSI-4 screens for stress and a parent child relationship, identifying dysfunctional parenting, and child adjustment problems. This assessment is appropriate for parents of children age one month to 12 years
84
From the Freudian perspective, interpretation:
A. Is appropriate only during the final “working through “phase of therapy
B. Is most useful when it evokes material at the deepest level of the unconscious
C. Helps the client uncover and gain insight into unconscious material
D. Involves re-stating and clarifying the client statements in clearer terms
C. Interpretation is a key process in Freudian cyclone analysis and is applied to free associations, dreams, resistances, etc.
85
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Beyoncé a stranger anxiety very somewhat from child to child but, from us children, begins when the child is between _________ months of age
A. 2-4
B. 5-7
C. 8-10
D. 11-13
```
C. Stranger anxiety is a normal developmental phenomenon and refers to the anxiety reaction exhibited by young children in the presence of a nonfamiliar person. Are some children experience stranger anxiety when they are as youngest six or seven months of age, most children do not do so until 8 to 10 months of age.
86
Most people who are diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder:
A. Feel that they have at least some control over their anxiety
B. Have comorbid mental disorders, especially depression and other anxiety disorders
C. Do not have comorbid mental health diagnosis
D. Are prescribed psychotropic medication for insomnia
B. Most people diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder have symptoms of comorbid mental disorders, especially depression and other anxiety disorders
87
Smith glass and Miller used met analysis to combine the results of 475 psychotherapy outcome studies publish between 1941 and 1976 and obtained a mean effect size of_____, Which indicated that the average Therapy client was better off than about 80% of individuals who needed therapy but did not receive it
A. 0.4
B. 0.55
C. 0.85
D. 0.98
C. You want to be familiar with the Smith glass and Miller’s study as well as with the interpretation of an effect size, which indicates the difference between average individuals in the treatment and control groups on the outcome measure in terms of standard deviation units. If you didn’t remember the effect size reported by Smith et. Al., being familiar with the areas are under the the normal curve may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question: in a normal distribution, 84% of cases fall below the score that is one standard deviation above the mean
88
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Kagan and others observe that behavioral inhibition can be exacerbated by:
A. Parental overprotectiveness
B. Parental permissiveness
C. A lack of interaction synchrony
D. A chaotic home environment
```
A. Based on the results of his research, Kagan concluded that behavioral inhibition is a temperamental style that has a biological ideology and is relatively stable over the lifespan but can be modified by environmental factors. Kagan Found the children and 70 the high degree of behavioral inhibition as infants tended to be shy and cheerful Sadlers and cautious an introverted when they started school. He also found an over protective parenting style lead to increased I was a behavioral inhibition in his children, apparently because it prevents them from developing appropriate coping strategies.
89
To be consitent with ethical requirements, when asked by a client's insurance company to electronically transfer confidential information aout the client to the company, you should __________.
A. Refuse to do so
B. Also send a written (non-electronic) copy of the information to the company
C. Make sure the reords are clearly marked "confidential"
D. Make sure that personal identifiers are coded or removed.
Correct answer is D.
Standard 6.02(b) of the APA's Ethics Code states that, "If confidential information concerning recipients of psychological services is entered into databases or systems of records available to persons whose access has not been consented to by the recipient, psychologists use coding or other techniques to avoid the inclusion of personal identifiers." Since you would not have control over who sees the records once they've been transmitted, this course of action would most likely ensure that client information is kept confidential.
90
Astrocytes receive glucose from capillaries and break it down to _____, the chemical produced during the first step of glucose metabolism
A. Lactate
B. Glycogen
C. Lactose
D. Glucagon
Answer is A:
Lactate is one of the substances produced by cells as the body turns food into energy (metabolism), with the highest level of production occurring in the muscles
B: Glycogen is a stored form of glucose. It is accumulated in response to insulin and broken down into glucose in response to glucagon. It is mainly stored in the liver and muscles and provides the body with a readily available source of energy if blood glucose levels decrease.
C. Lactase is a large sugar molecule. For it to be absorbed from the intestine into the body, it must be split into glucose and galactose. Lactase is needed by the body to digest lactose.
D. Glucagon's role in the body is to prevent blood glucose levels from dropping too low. Therefore, it stimulates the conversion of stored glycogen (stored in the liver), so it can be released into the bloodstream. This process its called glycogenolysis.
91
A psychologist conducts a custody evaluation for a divorce proceeding. In terms of making a specific recommendation about custody, the psychologist should _________.
A avoid making a recommendation and, instead, leave the final decision for the court.
B. make a recommendation only if the assessment has involved procedures that have been validated for this purpose
C. Make a recommendation only if he/she was not retained by one of the parents, but was retained by the court
D. Make a recommendation only if it is based on adequate psychological data and consideration of the best interests of the child.
Correct answer is D
There are no prohibitions against making recommendations in custody situations, however, a psychologist must always be careful about recommendations that may have an important impact on the lives of others. This answer is the closest to the provisions of APA's Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Family Law Proceedings.
92
You suspect a colleague of violating ethical guidelines. To be consistent with the providsions of the ethics code, you should __________.
A. report the colleague to the local Ethics Committee Immediately
B. report the colleague to the local Ethics Committee only if the ethical violation is a serious one
C. attempt to handle the situation informally by discussing the violation with the colleague and file a report only if he is uncooperative
D. either handle the situation informally or ile a report, depending on which course of action you believe is most appropriate
Correct answer is D.
Psychologists can either attempt to resolve an ethical infraction informally or file a complaint with the Ethics Committee, depending on which course of action they deem most appropriate. It is always necessary to consider client confidentiality first before taking any action, but none of the responses given address this issue.
93
During the course of treatment, a woman reposrts to her therapist, Dr. Emil Emerson, that her husband hit somebody, causing the victim a mild concussion. If Dr. Emerson maintains the client's confidentiality, he has acted ____________.
A. ethically, because confidentiality in this situation should not be breached
B. ethically, becausse the woman's report is hearsay
C. unethically, ecause he should have reported the incident to the appropriate authorities
D. unethically, because he should have contacted the intended victim
Correct answer is A.
The situation described in the is question does not mandate a breach of confidentiality. Standard 4.05(b) of the APA's Ethics Code states that exceptions to client confidentiality are permitted only when a breach is necessary to avoid violating the law, or when breaching confidentiality would protect the client/patient, psychologist, or others from harm.
94
A Physician is most likely to prescribe which of the following for a 36-year-old man who meets criteria for a diagnosis of Premature Ejaculation?
A. A drug that stimulates dopamine receptors
B. A drug that inhibits GABA receptors
C. A drug that inhibits the reuptake of serotonin
D. A drug that stimulates the reuptake of endorphins
Correct answer is C.
Researchers have linked premature ejaculation to low serotonin levels. Therefore, SSRI's(e.g. dapoxetine) are currently used to treat premature ejaculation
95
Which of he fllowing is LEAST characteristic of infants who were exposed to cocaine in utero?
A. They are abnormally insensitive to tactile, visual, and auditory stimulation
B. They are excesively irritable and unresponsive to attempts to confort
C. They often have increased muscle tone
D. They often have a low birthweigth and small head circumference
Correct answer is A.
This is the opposite of what is true. Early exposure to cocaine is associated with oversensitivity to environmental stimuli, even stimuli of low intensity
96
Offspring of parents who are both heterozygous for the phenylketonuria(PKU) gene have a ______% chance of having this disorder.
A. 10
B 25
C 50
D. 75
Correct answer is B
PKU is an autosomal recessive disorder, which means that a person with the disorder has inherited one recessive allele(p) from each parent. A person is homozygous with regard to PKU when he/she has two recessive alleles for that condition(pp), while a person is heterozygous with regard to PKU when he/she has two different alleles (Pp). ("P" refers to a normal allele and "p" refers to the recessive allele for PKU) When both parents are heterozygous for PKU(Pp), 25% of their offspring will not have the disorder and will not be carriers of the disorder (PP), 50% will be carriers of the disorder (Pp), and 25% will have the disorder (pp)
97
Laboratory and dormitory studies have consistently shown that males and females react differently to crousing. Specifically, laboratory studis suggest that crowding is more detrimental for males, and dormitory studies indicate that:
A. this gender difference is even more pronounced in real-life settings
B. males utilize less effective coping strategies than females in crowded situations
C. females utilize less effective coping strategies than males in crowded situations
D. the gender difference occurs but is less pronounced in real-life settings
Correct answer is C.
J.R. Aiello et al. report that women in their study exhibited more signs of psychological distress in crowded dormitory rooms than men did.
98
Cross-validation is associated with which of the following phenomena?
A. utility analysis
B. Relevance
C. Criterion contamination
D. Shrinkage
Correct answer is D.
Cross-validation refers to re-assessing a test's criterion-related validity with a new sample to determine the generalizability of the original validity coefficient. The validity coefficient ordinarily "shrinks" (becomes smaller) on cross-validation because the chance factors operating in the original sample are not present in the cross-validation sample.
99
Rom the perspectice of attribution theory, one's "attributional style" is a mediator between events and depression. Depression might result when negative events are attributed to:
A. External, stable, and global factors
B. exernal unstable and specific factors
C. internal, stable and global factors
D. internal, unstable, and specific factors
Correct answer is C.
Attribution theorists distinguish between three dimensions: internal vs external, global vs specific, and stable bs unstable. From the perspective of attribution theory, attributional style is a personality trait that mediates between negative events and depression. Depression results when negative events are attributed to internal, stable, and global factors
100
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A psychologist believes that the benefits of a cognitive-behavioral intervention for eating disorders is due to the intervention's impact on the individual's self-efficacy beliefs. In other words, the psychologist believes that, in this situation, self-efficacy beliefs are a _____.
A moderator variable
B. Mediator variable
C. Confounding variable
D. Suppressor variable
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Correct answer is B.
The psychologist believes that self-efficacy beliefs mediate (are responsible for) the impact of the intervention on eating behaviors. A mediator variable accounts for the relationship between an IV and a DV. In other words, "A" (the IV) causes "B" (the mediator), which then causes "C" (the DV).
101
According to _______, a person's career concept can be described as linear, expert, spiral, or transitory.
A. Super
B. Holland
C. Brousseau and Driver
D. Tiederman and O'Hara
Answer is C.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the theories of all of the individuals listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. Brousseau and Driver distinguish between the four career concepts listed in the question and describes them in terms of three dimensions: frequency of job change, direction of change, and type of change in job content.
102
In terms of parenting styles, adolescent antiscial behavior is most associated with which of the following?
A. Authoritarian
B. Rejecting-neglecting
C. Permissive
D. Instrumental
Correct answer B.
Uninvolved and rejecting parenting, with inconsistent discipline, has been linked with later antisocial and delinquent behavior.
103
Damange to which of the following areas produces underating, weight loss, low insulin levels, and under arousal?
A. Paraventricular nucleus
B. Ventromedial hypothalamus
C. Lateral hypothalamus
D. Lateral preoptic area
Correct answer is C.
The lateral hypothalamus is known for regulating metabolism and food intake. Lesions in this area lead to reduced food and water intake and weight loss.
104
According to Carstensens's (1999) socioemotional selectivity theory, differences in the preferences of adults for emotionally close versus novel social partners is related to:
A. gender differences
B. age differences
C. differences in time perspective
D. differences in basic personality traits
Correct answer is C.
Socioemotional selectivity theory is concerned with the observation that people who perceive time as unlimited tend to prefer novel social partners, while those who perceive time as limited prefer emotionally close social partners (and, as a result, are likely to have fewer social partners). Also, while older adults are more likely to perceive time as limited, some younger adults (e.g. those with a life-threatening illness) also have a limited time perspective and, like older adults, prefer emotionally close social partners
105
The ____ convey(s) information about the nutrient contents of the stomach.
A. duodenum
B. vagus nerves
C. splanchic nerves
D. brain stemt
Correct answer is C.
The splanchnic nerves are bilateral autonomic nerves that supply abdominal and pelvic viscera. They control the functions of the gut and pelvic organs
106
Dr. Acedia receives a phone call from a woman who he was sexually involved with for six months. The affair ended four years ago and Dr. Acedia has had litle contact with the woman sine that time. The woman says she is having trouble getting over the death of her younger sister and would like to begin counseling with Dr. Acedia. According to the Ethics Code __________.
A. It is acceptable for Dr. Acedia to work with the woman in therapy since they are no longer involved in a relationship.
B. it is acceptable for Dr. Acedia to work with the woman in therapy since the relationship ended more than two years ago
C. It is acceptale for Dr. Acedia to work with the woman in therapy only if he determines that to do so is not clinically contraindicated and will not be exploitative
D. It is not acceptable for Dr. Acedia to work with the woman in therapy
Correct answer is D.
The issue of therapy with former sex partners is covered by Standard 10.07 of the APA's Ethics Code, which states "Psychologists do not accept as therapy clients/patients persons with whom they have engaged in sexual intimacies"
107
When a psychologist's work with clients will be supervised _________.
A. the client must be old about this arrangement
B. the client mst be told about this arrangement and be given the supervisor's name
C. the client must be told about this arrangement only if his/her identity cannot be disguised in discussions with the supervisor
D. the client must be told about this arrangement and , when the supervisor has legal responsibiility for the case, must also be given the supervisor's name
Correct answer is D.
The issue is addressed by Standard 10.01(c) of the Ethics Code. The requirements for consultation and supervision are different and, even in a supervisory relationship, the information that must be given to the client varies, depending on the exact nature of the supervision. A client must always be told when a psychologist is being supervised and must be told the supervisor's name when the supervisor is legally responsible for the case
108
The duty to warn/protect, established by the tarasoff decision applies to ________.
A. clients who are a danger to themselves
B. clients who have committed a past crime against a person or property
C. clients who are a danger to an identifiable personal or, in some jurisdictions, an identifiable class (group) of persons
D. client who may pose a dange to others because of past violent behavior or their current mental state
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Correct answer is C.
The application of the Tarasoff decision, remains controversial and continues to be modified by case law. This response best describes the current status of Tarasoff. Most jurisdictions require psychologists to warn/protect an identifiable potential victim of a client, and, in some jurisdictions, this has been extended to an identifiable class of victims. Additional information about the Tarasoff decision is provided in the chapter on ethics and professional issues in the written study materials.
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109
To hire only the most qualified applicants, a personnel director raises the cutoff score on the selection test. Which of the following accurately describes a consequence of changing the cutoff score in this way?
A. The number of true positives is reduced
B. the number of false negatives is reduced.
C. the number of true negatives is reduced
D. the number of false positives is increased
Correct answer is A.
Moving the predictor cutoff score to the right in the scatterplot(i.e. raising the predictor cutoff) will decrease the number of true and false positives and increase the number of true and false negatives. Thus the number of true positives is reduced.
110
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Damage to which part of the brain blunts emotoins in most regards, impairs decision making, and causes impulsive decisions without pausing to consider the consequences?
A. Cingulate gyrus
B. Amygdala
C. Hypothalamus
D. prefrontal cortex
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Correct is D.
Individuals with damage to the prefrontal cortex tend to perform poorly on tasks that require the use of long-term strategies and the inhibition of impulses. Short-term memory deficits and difficulties with planning are often displayed
111
______ refers to the percentage of true positives that an instrument has identified.
A. Specificity
B. Sensitivity
C. Cncurrent validity
D. Face validity
Correct answer is B.
Sensitivity is related to discriminate and convergent validity. A structured clinical interview might be sensitive in that it would accurately identify 90% of people with schizophrenia in an admitting ward of a hospital
112
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Rideye (1984) addressed the distrust that often exists between African American clients and their therapists and proposed that the therapist's ethnicity is the MOST important factor for:
A. a confluent paranoiac
B. a cultural paranoiac
C. A nonparanoiac
D. A dissonant paranoiac
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Correct answer is A.
Ridley's model distinguishes between nonparanoiacs, functional paranoiacs, healthy cultural paranoiacs, and confluent paranoiacs. A confluent paranoiac exhibits high cultural and functional paranoia, and his or her nondisclosure in therapy is due to a combination of pathology and the effects of racism. According to Ridley, these clients do better with a therapist of the same racial/ethnic group.
113
To manifest all of the following traints exvept ______, an offspring must inherit a homozygous pair of genes from his or her parents
A. blond hair
B. nearsightedness
C. Rh-negative blood
D. brown eyes
Correct answer D
Some inherited traits are manifested only when an offspring inherits the same recessive gene from each parent -i.e. when the offspring inherits a homozygous pair of genes. Bow eyes are transmitted by a single dominant gene and therefore is the exception of the responses given
114
Dr. Green is contacted by an insurance company, which wants information about a previous client of hers. The client's fee was paid by the insurance company when he was seeing her, and the insurance company now wants information for part of its regular peer review process. Dr. Green's best course of action would be to __________.
A. provide the insurance company with the information it requests
B. provide the insurance company with the information it requests only after ensuring that the company will take steps to protect the client's confidentiality
C. Provide the insurance company with the information that it requests in a way that allows the client's identity to be concealed
D. refuse to release any information to the company unless she feels it is in the client's best interests
Correct answer is B.
Problems related to confidentiality constituted one of the original objections to the peer review process. Insurance companies and other third-party payers have, however, been fairly responsible in finding ways to maintain the confidentiality of clients. Normal confidentiality requirements are relaxed in cases of peer review because of the necessity to provide review committees with information about clients. However, confidentiality is always an issue when releasing information about a client and, consequently, this answer would be the best course of action
115
A depressed client says she feels worthless and unlikable and every time she tries to do something to make things better, she is faced with barriers put up by her husband, parents, and boss, who don't seem to recognize her efforts. In terms of the third component of Beck's cognitive triad, you would expect the client to also say:
A. other people are "out to get her"
B. she had a "lousy childhood"
C. she feels that things will never change
D. nothing seems to make her feel good
The correct answer is C
This person's statements reflect a negative view of the self and the world, which are two of the three elements of Beck's cognitive triad. The third element is a negative view of the future. According to Beck, depressed people feel that failures and disappointments will never stop or change.
116
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Role disputes, role transitions, unresolved grief, and interpersonal deficits are the primary targets of:
A. Interpersonal therapy
B. reality therapy
C. solution-focused therapy
D. narrative therapy
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Correct answer is A.
Of the therapies listed in the answers, only one explicitly targets the problem areas listed in the question. Interpersonal therapy (IPT) is a brief structured manual-based therapy that was originally developed as a treatment for depression but has since been applied to other disorders. Its primary targets are the four problem areas listed in this question
117
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Which of the following terms describes a way of assessing reliability by comparing the amount of shared variance, or covariance, among the items making up an instrument to the amount of overall varianace?
A. Test-retest reliability
B. Interrater reliability
C. Coefficient alpha
D. Internal reliability
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Correct answer is C.
Coefficient alpha is a widely used statistical measure that provides the mean of all possible split-half combinations, measured on a scale on which the upper limit is 1.0. In general, a coefficient alpha of 0.7 is considered a minimum to consider on assessment technique to be evidence based.
118
As defined in the DSM-5 a diagnosis of ADHD, predominantly inattentive presentation is assigned when a child exhibits:
A. at least six symptoms of inattention and no symptoms of hyperactivity-impulsivity
B. at least six symptoms of inattention and fewer than six symptoms of hyperactivity-impulsivity
C. at least eight symptoms of inattention and fewer than four symptoms of hyperactivity-impulsivity
d. at least eight symptoms of inattention and fewer than eight symptoms of hyperactivity-impulsivity
correct answer is B
The DSM-5 distinguishes between three subtypes of ADHD: predominantly inattentive presentation, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive presentation, and combined presentation. The number of symptoms listed in this answer (at least six symptoms of inattention and fewer than six symptoms of hyperactivity-impulsivity) is the requirement for the predominantly inattentive type. For the predominantly hyperactive-impulsive presentation, the requirement is at least six symptoms of hyperactivity-impulsivity and less than six symptoms of inattention. Finally, for the combined presentation, the requirement is at least six symptoms of inattention and at least six symptoms of hyperactivity-impulsivity. (note that for individuals age 17 nd older, the minimum number of symptoms for the diagnosis of each subtype is five rather than six).
119
To identify "critical incidents," you would most likely:
A. review job descriptions
B. ask employees what they typically do on-the-job
C. ask supervisors to identify employee behaviors that are associated with outstanding and inferior performance
D. ask supervisors to identify specific supervisor behaviors that are associated with outstanding employee performance.
Correct answer is C.
The critical incident technique was developed by Flanagan in the 1950's as a performance appraisal technique. As described by Flanagan, the critical incident technique begins by asking supervisors to observe employees and identify specific behaviors associated with particularly effective and ineffective performance.
120
An assumption underlying the notion of "groupthink" is that:
A. pressures toward uniformity limit task effectiveness
B. increasing cohesiveness results in more extreme decisions
C. excessive pressures toward conformity produce reactance
D. lack of familiarity with task demands leads to the maintenance of the status quo.
Groupthink is characterized by a decrease in willingness to consider divergent points of view, resulting in inappropriate decisions and actions (although not necessarily more extreme ones). According to Janis, groupthink results when groups become excessively cohesive.
121
Dr. Baron's husband owns an advertising agency that caters to small businesses. One of Dr. Baron's clients has just started a new business and tells Dr. Baron that he's in need of someone to handle his advertising. If Dr. Baron recommends her husband, this is _________.
A. acceptable since her husband's business is unrelated to her work as a therapist
B. acceptable as long as Dr. Baron never discusses the client with her husband
C. acceptable as long as Dr. Baron discusses the possible consequences of the situation with the client
D. unacceptable because of Dr. Baron's therapeutic relationship with the client
The correct answer is D.
The general "spirit" of the Ethics Code advises not to become involved with a therapy client in any way that is outside the scope of the therapeutic relationship. R. Woody addresses this issue in "Legally safe mental health practice: Psycholegal questions and answers." He argues that any recommendations to a client should be limited to issues that are within the "perimeter of treatment: and do not benefit the therapist beyond his/her customary fee.
122
Of the cases processed by the APA's Ethics Committee as the result of the revocation of a psychologist's license by a state licensing board, the most common complaint processed by the committee is which of the following?
A. loss of licensure in another jurisdiction
B. Sexual misconduct
C. Breach of confidentiality
D. Issues related to competence
The correct answer is A.
A review of the reports of the APA's Ethics Committee published in the American Psychologist from 2000 through 2008 reveals that loss of licensure is the most frequent reason for the complaints processed by the Ethics Committee, followed by, in order, sexual misconduct with an adult, inappropriate practice involving child custody, nonsexual dual relationship, and inappropriate practice involving insurance or fees.
123
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A friend asks you how you liked the concert you went to last Saturday night. As you try to recall the concert, you realize that your memory is being affected by other concerts you have attended in the past. In other words, your memory of last Saturday's concert is being affected by:
A. your implicit memory of concerts
B. a lack of encoding specificity
C. cue-dependent forgetting
D. your schema for concerts
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The correct answer is D.
A schema is a group of cluster of knowledge about an object or event. Your recollection of last Saturday's concert is being affected by you "cluster of knowledge" regarding concerts. In this situation, your memory of a particular concert is affected by your previous experiences with concerts
124
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According to Piaget, which of the following is a necessary prerequisite for the development of reversibility?
A. self-awareness
B. meta-cognition
C. symbolism
D. Hypothetico-deductive reasoning
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The correct answer is C.
| Piaget argued that symbolism, and in particular language, is critical for reversibility and conservation
125
Research conducted by Mayo and his colleagues at the Hawthorne plant of the Western Electric Company in the mid-1920s led to the identification of the "Hawthorne effect" which attributed observed increases in worker productivity to which of the following?
A. Changes in the physical characteristics of the work environment
B. A change in the reward structure that more directly linked performance to pay
C. The direct result of evaluation apprehension
D. The special attention the workers received as research participants.
The correct answer is D.
The original intent of the Hawthorne studies was to investigate the effects of altering the level of illumination and other work conditions on worker productivity, However, the results indicated that other factors -"especially human motives, needs, and relationship- had a stronger impact on worker productivity and satisfaction. In one series of studies, May found that, regardless of the change in the level of illumination, worker productivity increased. Subsequent research suggested that the increase was not due to changes in illumination, but to the special attention workers received as research participants and the novelty of participating in a research study.
126
The theory of social facilitation predicts that:
A. The mere presence of others increases the likelihood that the dominant response will be activated
B. When members of opposing groups are of equal status, increased contact between groups reduces intergroup hostility
C. People will work less hard when in a group then when alone
D. People believe that others think and act more like them Then they actually do
The correct answer is A.
The theory of social facilitation predicts that, under certain circumstances, the mere presence of others facilitates (enhances) performance. If the dominance response is the right one, then the presence of others will enhance performance. (When the dominant responses is incorrect, the presence of others results in social inhibition).
127
Which of the following illustrates “diagnostic overshadowing”?
A. A therapist lists an inaccurate diagnosis on an insurance form because she knows the insurance company will be unwilling to pay for therapy for the correct diagnosis
B. The therapist does not recognize a coexisting clinical disorder and an intellectually disabled patient because of the salience of the intellectional disability
C. A therapist misdiagnosed as a patient because the salience of an atypical symptom causes her to over look at the patient’s other symptoms
D. A therapist and cultural beliefs and values and Peed her ability to recognize how cultural differences impact diagnosis and treatment
The correct answer is B.
Diagnostic overshadowing was originally described by S. Reiss and colleagues in connection with the assessment of people with an intellectual disability. It has sense for the flight to other situations and diagnoses. Overshadowing occurs when the salience of one disorder or condition “overshadows “consideration or recognition of another disorder.
128
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Sexual activity among older adults is most related to:
A. Sexual activity earlier in life
B. Attitudes towards sex and sexuality
C. Interest in sex
D. Overall life satisfaction
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The correct answer is A.
Several factors are determinements of sexual activity in old age. These factors include physical health, the availability of a partner, and past sexual activity. Sexual activity in midlife and earlier is a good predictor of activity and old age, especially for males
129
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As defined by Aaron Beck, _________ involves drawing a specific conclusion about an experience in the absence of supporting evidence for that conclusion.
A. Selective abstraction
B. Emotional reasoning
C. Personalization
D. Arbitrary inference
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Correct answer is D.
All four answer choices describe cognitive distortions, which are targets of practitioners of Beck’s cognitive therapy. Arbitrary inference occurs when a person draws a conclusion about an event or experience without there being corroborating evidence and/or when there is contradictory evidence
130
Research on Kohlberg’s theory of moral development has found that very few people ever reached stage 6. However, some do engage in stage five reasoning base their moral judgments on:
A. Social constructs
B. Self-chosen universally-applicable standards
C. Rules and laws
D. The motivation underlying an act
The correct answer is A.
Kohlberg theory distinguishes between three levels of moral development (preconventional, conventional, and postconventional) The age consisted to stages. Stage five is the first stage in the post conventional level. People in the stage considers social contracts and democratically – chosen laws when making moral judgments.
