Examination and Diagnosis of the Psychiatric Patient Flashcards
1.1.
Which of the following first steps is most appropriate in
conducting a psychiatric interview of a patient?
A. Obtain consent from the patient
B. Offer to meet with family and patient together
C. Identify elements of the process the patient wishes to alter
D. Perform a safety assessment
E. Review HIPAA laws and limits of confidentiality
1.1. A. Obtain consent from the patient
After introductions, consent to proceed with the interview should be
obtained. The nature of the interview and length of time should be
discussed and then the patient should be encouraged to give
feedback regarding altering elements in the process. While
discussion of limits of confidentiality and performing a safety
assessment should be included in all interviews, these are not the
initial steps that need to be done. If a family member wants to be
involved, it is typically best to have the patient present, though this is
often best suited for the end of the interview. (1)
1.2.
Which of the following elements differentiates empathy from
identification?
A. Ability to maintain objectivity
B. Association with poor boundaries
C. Being able to experience the emotion
D. High association with physician burnout
E. True understanding of the situation
1.2. A. Ability to maintain objectivity
The ability to maintain objectivity is crucial in a therapeutic
relationship and can differentiate empathy from identification. With
identification, psychiatrists experience as well as understand the
emotion, which can lead to boundary problems along with physician
burnout. (2)
1.3.
A person-centered approach, as opposed to a traditional medial
one, focuses on which of the following aspects during an
interview?
A. Deficits
B. Illness
C. Safety
D. Strengths
E. Transference
1.3. D. Strengths
A psychiatric interview should be person centered to best help
understand the patient and their goals. A person-centered approach
focuses on strengths and assets, as well as deficits, compared to a
traditional medical approach focusing only on illness and deficits.
1.4.
Which question is a part of the the Rapid Alcohol Problem
Screen 4 (RAPS4) screening tool for substance use?
A. Have you ever been arrested for your drinking?
B. Have people annoyed you by criticizing your drinking?
C. Have you ever cut down on your drinking?
D. Have you ever driven drunk?
E. Have you ever failed to remember things after drinking?
1.4. E. Have you ever failed to remember things after
drinking?
The RAPS4 and CAGE are brief standardized questionnaires that
psychiatrists can use to assess substance abuse or dependence. There
is some overlap between the two. The RAPS4 includes the following
four questions: Have you ever felt guilty after drinking (Remorse),
could not remember things did or said (Amnesia), failed to do what
was normally expected after drinking (Perform), or had a morning
drink (Starter)? The CAGE also includes four questions: Have you
ever cut down on your drinking (Cut)? Have people annoyed you by
criticizing your drinking (Annoyed)? Have you ever felt bad about
your drinking (Guilty)? Have you ever needed a drink first thing in
the morning (Eye-opener)? Though driving drunk or getting arrested
for drinking can be a sign of abuse or dependence, it is not part of
these screening tools.
1.5.
Which of the following medical conditions can resemble an
anxiety disorder?
A. Arthritis
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Lupus
D. Malnutrition
E. Transient ischemic attacks
1.5. B. Hyperthyroidism
Obtaining a past medical history is a key part of all psychiatric
interviews. Some medical illness can contribute to or mimic
psychiatric disorders, or they might be caused by treatment of a
psychiatric disorder. A classic psychiatric disorder that can resemble
an anxiety disorder is hyperthyroidism. The other disorders listed
are more likely to mimic or cause depressive symptoms.
1.6.
A family history of which illness might affect the choice of an
antipsychotic medication?
A. Diabetes
B. Cancer
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypothyroidism
E. Kidney stones
1.6. A. Diabetes
Obtaining a family history is essential in helping to define the
patient’s risk factors for psychiatric illness and can also be useful in
guiding medication choices. A family history of diabetes or
hyperlipidemia might make one utilize an atypical antipsychotic with
caution due to risk of worsening both conditions, along with causing
other metabolic side effects.
1.7.
An increase in amount of speech noted on mental status
examination can be a sign of which of the following psychiatric
symptoms?
A. Depression
B. Disinterest
C. Mania
D. Paranoia
E. Thought blocking
1.7. C. Mania
An increase in the amount of speech on mental status examinations
could be a sign of mania or hypomania. A decrease in the amount of
speech can be from depression, anxiety, or disinterest. Decreased
speech could also be a sign of thought blocking or psychosis
1.8.
A patient with manic symptoms replies in this manner when
asked what he did yesterday- “I hiked and biked with Mike and
Mat and ate rat that sat cat.” This is an example of which of the
following types of thought processes?
A. Clang association
B. Neologism
C. Perseveration
D. Tangentiality
E. Thought blocking
1.8. A. Clang associations
Thought process is the way in which thoughts are organized, formed,
or expressed. Clang associations are when words are put together by
the sound of the words rather than for the meaning (i.e., rhyming is
prominent). Neologisms are new words or combinations of a few
words that are not actually understandable or true words.
Perseveration is the repetition of words out of context. Tangential
thought process means never returning to the previous statement.
Thought blocking appears when a patient stops and the thought is
unable to come out, often leading to a stop midsentence.
1.9.
Asking a patient a hypothetical example of what they would do
upon finding a stamped envelope on the street can help test for
which of the following cognitive functions?
A. Abstract reasoning
B. Impulse control
C. Fund of knowledge
D. Insight
E. Judgment
1.9. E. Judgment
Judgment refers to a person’s ability to make good decisions and act
on them. A classic example of a question to test judgment is, “What
would you do if you found a stamped envelope on the street?”
Abstract reasoning is the ability to shift between concepts and
examples, identifying similarities between like objects, for example.
Fund of knowledge can be tested by fact-based questions (i.e., “Who
is the president of the United States?”).
Insight refers to the patient’s
understanding of how they are functioning and potential
contributing factors to their illness.
1.10.
Using empathy to convey understanding and noting the
patient’s strengths, along with exploring their ambivalence
and conflicts about change is a part of which of the following
techniques?
A. Acknowledgment of emotions
B. Minimizing patients’ concerns
C. Motivational interviewing
D. Premature interpretation
E. Summarizing
1.10. C. Motivational interviewing
Motivational interviewing is a technique used to motivate the patient
to change maladaptive behaviors. Relaying empathy and highlighting
ambivalence and conflicting feelings are key to motivating change.
Nonverbal actions, such as moving a tissue box, can sometimes be
used to help acknowledge emotions. Minimizing the patient’s
concerns might happen when attempting to reassure patients; thus,
concerns should be explored. Premature interpretations, even if
accurate, should be avoided as they can lead to the patient becoming
defensive and feeling misunderstood. Summarizing is a useful technique that should be done periodically to help clarify
understanding
1.11.
Which of the following elements would constitute a passive
suicidal statement?
A. Being able to state many reasons to live
B. Denial of intent to act on the thoughts
C. Lack of having a plan
D. Not possessing the means to do it
E. Not taking preparatory steps toward the plan
1.11. B. Denial of intent to act on the thoughts
A suicide assessment should be performed for all patients during the
initial interview. The patient should be asked about any current
thoughts of suicide and if present, what the intent is. If a patient has
thoughts of suicide but denies intent to act on these thoughts or
denies a wish to be dead, that is referred to as passive suicidal
ideation. Higher-risk patients include those who have specific plans
to end their life and access to the means to complete the plan, along
with those who have taken preparatory steps to move forward with
the plan.
1.12.
A patient presenting with anxiety has a mental status
examination notable for a tremor and pallor. Vital signs are
significant for an elevated heart rate. Which of the following
medical conditions should be ruled out?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Normal pressure hydrocephalus
C. Pheochromocytoma
D. Temporal arteritis
E. Ulcerative colitis
1.12. C. Pheochromocytoma
Pheochromocytomas produce symptoms that mimic anxiety
including rapid heartbeat, tremors, and pallor. Increased urinary
catecholamines are diagnostic for a pheochromocytoma. Hyper, not
hypothyroidism can lead to anxiety. Normal pressure hydrocephalus
can be present with dementia, shuffling gait, and incontinence.
Temporal arteritis can cause unilateral throbbing headaches and can
lead to blindness. Ulcerative colitis can present as weight loss and
depressive symptoms.
1.13.
What is an element that is included in a psychotherapy note,
but not a progress note?
A. A detailed assessment and plan
B. Comments on countertransference and dreams
C. Data that can be disclosed to the patient
D. Inclusion with the rest of the medical record
E. Information about third-party payer access
1.13. C. Data that can be disclosed to the patient
Psychotherapy notes include details of transference,
countertransference, fantasies, dreams, and personal information
about name of contacts of the patient, etc., which would not be
included in the actual progress notes in the medical record. Unlike
progress notes, psychotherapy notes should be kept separate from
the rest of the medical record and the data in them should not be
disclosed to any person, including the patient. Detailed assessments
and plans should be included in progress notes, not the
psychotherapy note.
1.14.
Reliability data on the Structured Clinical Interview for the
DSM (SCID) suggests that it performs better on more severe
disorders for which of the following diagnoses?
A. Alcohol abuse
B. Bipolar disorder
C. Dysthymia
D. Social phobia
E. Unspecified eating disorder
1.14. B. Bipolar disorder
The SCID, Structured Clinical Interview for DSM, is designed to be
administered by an experienced clinician, requires training and is
primarily focused on research and is used to verify diagnoses in
clinical trials. Reliability data suggests that it performs better on
more severe disorders and alcohol dependence compared to milder
disorders, such as dysthymia
1.15.
What rating scale was designed to assess change in psychotic
inpatients with significant impairment, and cover a broad
range of symptoms of depression and anxiety, with flaws
including needing a large amount of clinical training to achieve
good reliability?
A. Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS)
B. Hamilton Anxiety Rating Scale (HAM-A)
C. Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale (PANSS)
D. Scale for the Assessment of Positive Symptoms (SAPS)
E. Structured Clinical Interview for DSM (SCID)
1.15. A. Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS)
The BPRS was developed in the late 1960s as a short scale to
measure the severity of psychiatric symptomatology and is primarily
designed to assess changes in psychotic inpatients. However, good
reliability is difficult to achieve without extensive training and this
scale is often only suitable for patients with a fairly significant level
of clinical impairment. The HAM-A is often used to monitor
treatment response in clinical trials and in some clinical settings for
generalized anxiety disorders. The PANSS was designed to remedy
the deficits in the BPRS in the assessment of positive and negative
symptoms in schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders by adding
additional items and providing anchors for each. It is a highly
reliable tool which has become the standard for assessing clinical
outcomes in treatment studies for schizophrenia and other psychotic
disorders. The SAPS and the Scale for the Assessment of Negative
Symptoms (SANS) provide a detailed assessment of positive and
negative symptoms in schizophrenia, with the SAPS assessing for
hallucinations, delusions, thought disorders, etc., and the SANS
assessing for poverty of speech, apathy, anhedonia, etc. The SCID,
Structured Clinical Interview for DSM, is primarily used in research
and to verify a variety of diagnoses in clinical trials.
1.16.
The Child Behavior Checklist (CBCL) is unable to assess which
of the following elements?
A. A clinical diagnosis
B. Cutoff scores for problems
C. Parent ratings
D. Symptoms within a clinical range
E. Teacher ratings
1.16. A. A clinical diagnosis
The CBCL includes different self-rated versions for parents, teachers,
and children to help assess preschoolers through adolescents. It does
not generate diagnoses, rather it suggests cut-off scores for problems
in the clinical range and provides a good overall view of
symptomatology and can be used to track changes over time.
1.17.
The Connors Rating Scale is most commonly used in the
assessment of which psychiatric disorder?
A. Attention deficit hyperactivity
B. Bipolar
C. Major depressive
D. Obsessive compulsive
E. Substance use
1.17. A. Attention deficit hyperactivity
The Connors Rating Scale includes teacher-, parent-, and selfreported
measures and assesses a range of childhood and adolescent
psychopathology. The Connors Scale is most commonly used in
screening for ADHD in schools and in clinical populations, and can
be used to follow changes in symptom severity over time.
1.18.
Finger agnosia, dyscalculia, dysgraphia, and right–left
disorientation are components of which of the following
syndromes?
A. Dressing apraxia
B. Gerstmann
C. Hurler
D. Neglect
E. Pickwickian
1.18. B. Gerstmann
Aside from language, the left hemisphere is responsible for limb
apraxia. Lesions in the left hemisphere can result in finger agnosia,
dyscalculia, dysgraphia, and right–left disorientation, referred to as
Gerstmann syndrome. Dressing apraxia is associated with special
deficits from right hemisphere damage and include right–left
confusion and difficulty putting limbs into clothing. Hurler
syndrome, an autosomal recessive condition, includes symptoms
such as hirsutism, corneal clouding, coarse facial features, and
moderate-to-severe intellectual disability. Neglect syndromes are
most commonly associated with right hemisphere damage in the
parietal region and include failure to detect visual or tactile stimuli,
or to move the limb in the contralateral hemispace. Pickwickian
syndrome is recognized by a puffy appearance, as seen in
hypothyroidism, obesity, and periodic respirations.
1.19.
Impairment in which of the following features is unique to
Broca aphasia as opposed to other types of aphasias?
A. Awareness of deficit
B. Breakdown of syntactic structure
C. Comprehension
D. Fluency
E. Repetition
1.19. D. Fluency
Broca aphasia, or nonfluent or expressive aphasia, caused by a left
inferior frontal convolution lesion, is characterized by nonfluent
speech (i.e., telegraphic or agrammatism) with intact auditory
comprehension. This is in contrast to Wernicke aphasia, caused by a
superior temporal gyrus lesion, which has fluent speech but impaired
comprehension. Repetition can be somewhat impaired in both
aphasias. Unlike those with Broca aphasia, those with Wernicke are
not typically aware of their communication deficits
1.20.
A patient is unable to bisect a line placed midline. This is
most commonly indicative of a lesion in which of the following
areas of the brain?
A. Cerebellum
B. Medulla
C. Parietal
D. Pons
E. Temporal
1.20. C. Parietal lobe
Failure to bisect a line placed midline is an example of a neglect
syndrome. It is characterized by failure to detect visual or tactile
stimuli or move the limb in the contralateral hemisphere. It is most
commonly associated with right hemisphere damage in the parietal
region, though other areas in the cortex and subcortical areas can
also cause it.
1.21.
For older individuals, the technique of having them draw a
clock is a sensitive measure of which of the following
neuropsychological functions?
A. Attention and concentration
B. Planning and organization
C. Remote and recent memory
D. Sensory and motor
E. Speech and language
1.21. B. Planning and organization
The clock-drawing technique is widely used in elderly individuals at
risk for dementia as a test that is a sensitive measure of planning and
organization. More subtle difficulties can also be detected when
comparing performance to premorbid expectations such as
perseveration and neglect. Double simultaneous stimulation of visual
and auditory modalities can test for sensory and motor functions and
can also test for neglect. The WMS-III can measure attention,
memory, and new learning. Expressive language is often measured
by testing verbal fluency, via generating words within semantic and
phonetic categories. Conducting a digit span is a measure of
attention.
1.22.
A high level of which of the following types of validity would
be shown if a test measuring hypochondria demonstrates the
patient with high scores had more doctor’s visits due to
symptoms of physical complaints?
A. Criterion validity
B. Discriminant
C. Face validity
D. Factor
E. Predictive validity
1.22. A. Criterion validity
Face validity refers to the content of the test items and if they
measure what they intend to measure. While it refers to the degree
the items on the surface measure what the instrument is supposed
to, criterion validity uses data outside the test to measure validity.
Discriminant validity tells whether the test can discriminate between
groups of patients at times (i.e., discriminate between mild,
moderate, vs. severe major depressive disorder). Factor validity
utilizes a multivariate statistical technique, factor analysis, to
determine if a group of items on a test empirically cluster together.
1.23.
Which type of neuroimaging measures blood flow by using
heme molecules as an endogenous contrast agent?
A. fMRI (functional magnetic resonance imaging)
B. MRA (magnetic resonance angiography)
C. MRS (magnetic resonance spectroscopy)
D. PET (positron emission tomography)
E. SPECT (single-photon emission computed tomography)
1.23. A. fMRI (functional magnetic resonance imaging)
fMRIs measure regional cerebral blood flow by measuring heme
molecules as an endogenous contrast agent. MRA creates a 3-D map
of brain blood flow and is typically used by neurologists and
neurosurgeons. MRS is a research method used to measure brain
metabolism and is done in an MRI machine with additional software
to allow signals from protons to be suppressed and signals from
other compounds to be measured. PET scans involve the detection of
emitted positron radiation, typically by using FDG
(fluorodeoxyglucose) to measure regional brain glucose metabolism.
SPECT scans are not typically used to study the brain. They are more
commonly used to study other organs.
1.24.
A young adult with chronic substance use has an MRI of the
brain which is significant for loss of gray-white matter and
atrophy. Mental status examination demonstrates
abnormalities in short-term memory, “scanning” speech, and a
notable tremor. Which of the following substances is most
likely being abused?
A. Alcohol
B. Amphetamines
C. Cannabis
D. MDMA (ecstasy)
E. Toluene
1.24. E. Toluene
Inhalants, such as toluene, as found in paints, glues, and cleaning
solutions, can cause significant brain damage, as well as damage to
other organs, such as the liver, kidneys, lung, bone marrow, etc. It
can
lead to hypoxia and can cause a loss of gray-white matter and
brain atrophy on MRIs. Chronic use can also be associated with
panic attacks and personality changes.