Ciencias del comportamiento Flashcards

1
Q

34.1.
A 7-year-old boy is shown two identical glasses of water. When
asked which glass has more water, he says they have the same
amount. The water in one glass is then poured into a taller, thinner
glass in front of him. When asked which glass has more water, he
says the taller glass. The water in the tall glass is poured back into
the original glass, and he says the amount of water in the two glasses
is the same. What cognitive development skill has the child not yet
achieved?

A. Inductive reasoning
B. Deductive reasoning
C. Reversibility
D. Conservation
E. Operational thought

A

34.1. D. Conservation
The child has not yet understood the concept of conservation, which is the
principle that an object maintains its overall size or volume even if the
shape or distribution changes. Reversibility is the understanding that some
things can be changed into another state, then back again, such as ice to
water. A child who has developed operational thought is able to see things
from the point of view of someone else. Deductive reasoning involves using
logic to go from the general to the specific, while inductive reasoning
moves in the opposite direction.

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2
Q

34.2.
A 6-month-old child is continuously amused when her father places
his hands in front of his face, then moves them to reveal his face.
This goes on for a full minute, after which the father is exasperated
with the child wanting to repeat the game. When he does the same
actions a month later, his daughter shows little interest. What is the
most likely explanation for the child’s change in reaction?

A. The child has become habituated to the game with her father but
would engage with her mother
B. The child is no longer able to pay attention to one stimulus for
that length of time
C. The child is now able to crawl away and seek novel stimulation
D. The child realizes her father is still there even when his hands are
closed
E. The child now experiences the game as frightening instead of
amusing

A

34.2. D. The child realizes her father is still there even when his
hands are closed
A child learns object permanence between 7 and 8 months old. Prior to
that time, a child does not understand that something still exists even
though she cannot see it. Once they develop object permanence, her father
revealing his face behind his hands is no longer a surprise, so the game
then has little meaning

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3
Q

34.3.
After several weeks of therapy, a patient and therapist discover the
patient’s core belief of “I’m a failure.” They are most likely engaging
in what psychotherapeutic modality?

A. Psychodynamic psychotherapy
B. Supportive therapy
C. Interpersonal therapy
D. Cognitive therapy
E. Dialectical behavior therapy

A

34.3. D. Cognitive therapy
One of the aims of cognitive therapy is to get to the patient’s core belief,
which is thought to be the ultimate driving force of thoughts, behaviors,
and emotions. Patients can talk about feelings of being a failure, but only in
cognitive therapy is it called the core belief and is a focus of treatment.

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4
Q

34.4.
Much like monkeys separated from their mothers and isolated at
birth, babies who were separated from their mothers and placed in a
hospital or other institution for prolonged periods of time eventually
demonstrated what behavioral response?

A. Anger
B. Hyperactivity
C. Acting out
D. Withdrawal
E. Anxiety

A

34.4. D. Withdrawal
Harry Harlow’s famous monkey experiment showed that when monkeys
were separated from their mother at birth, they became withdrawn, unable
to mate or relate to peers, and incapable of caring for their offspring.
Similarly, human babies become depressed and withdrawn when separated
from their mother, as was described by René Spitz when he studied
children who were hospitalized or institutionalized.

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5
Q

34.5.
A 60-year-old man starts a new oral medication for cancer
treatment that he is supposed to take every morning with food. On
the first morning, he takes the medication as he reads the
newspaper, and 5 minutes later starts to retch and vomit. This
occurs every day of the 30 days he is on the medication. As he walks
to the store one afternoon, he passes a newspaper stand and vomits.
The newspaper represents what element in classical (Pavlovian)
conditioning?

A. Conditioned response
B. Conditioned stimulus
C. Unconditioned response
D. Unconditioned stimulus

A

34.5. B. Conditioned stimulus
In classical conditioning, two stimuli, in this case the medication and the
newspaper, lead to the same response, vomiting. The natural
(unconditioned) stimulus is the medication, which causes the natural
(unconditioned) response, vomiting. Newspapers do not usually trigger
vomiting, and only do so in this man because it has been consistently
paired with the natural trigger prior to the unconditioned response. He has
become conditioned to the newspaper (the conditioned stimulus), which
now produces a response that does not usually occur, making vomiting
specifically to the newspaper
a conditioned response

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6
Q

34.6.
A 13-year-old girl presents with her mother to the outpatient clinic
for a routine physical examination. While alone with the doctor, she
talks about how her mother “nags me all the time about doing my
homework. I tell her I’m going to do it eventually, but she keeps
bothering me until I finally do it just to get her to be quiet.” The
child’s mother is training her daughter by what method of operant
conditioning?

A. Positive reinforcement
B. Negative reinforcement
C. Positive punishment
D. Negative punishment

A

34.6. B. Negative reinforcement
Reinforcement always increases a behavior, and punishment decreases it.
Positive is applying something and negative is taking it away. In this case,
the behavior of doing the homework is reinforced by taking something
negative (the nagging) away, so it is negative reinforcement. Positive
reinforcement would be giving her extra money or privileges for doing her
homework, which would also increase the likelihood of her daughter
getting it done. Conversely, positive punishment would be placing her on
restriction (applying something) for
not
doing her homework, in hopes of
reducing the behavior of
not
getting the work done. Negative punishment
would be taking away her cell phone (removing something) to reduce the
behavior of not doing her work

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7
Q

34.7.
A 17-year-old girl who was diagnosed with social anxiety disorder a
week ago comes to the outpatient clinic for therapy. She is afraid to
shake hands with others because she fears she will “catch a disease
from their germs.” She describes a racing pulse, sweaty palms,
feeling like she will vomit, and shortness of breath “when I even
think about touching someone else.” The therapist teaches her how
to engage in deep breathing, then has her imagine shaking hands
with someone else. As her anxiety builds, the therapist guides her
through the breathing techniques. This progresses to her watching
videos of people shaking hands, followed by shaking hands with
gloves on, to finally shaking hands without gloves, while pairing the
anxiety with deep breathing each time. What technique is being used
to decrease her anxiety?

A. Extinction
B. Preparedness
C. State-dependent learning
D. Reinstatement
E. Counterconditioning

A

34.7. E. Counterconditioning
In this example of counterconditioning through systematic desensitization,
the conditioned stimulus (shaking hands) is paired with a new stimulus
(deep breathing), whereas before, the conditioned stimulus was paired
with extreme anxiety. Extinction would involve unpairing the conditioned
stimulus and the unconditioned stimulus through a technique such as
exposure therapy. Preparedness is the concept that organisms have a
predisposition to associate certain stimuli with fear or anxiety.
Reinstatement occurs when the current context is associated again with the
unconditioned stimulus, leading to a return in fear or anxiety. Statedependent
learning is the concept that retention of information is best
when tested in the same state in which it was learned.

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8
Q

34.8.
Parents wish to increase the frequency of their 14-year-old son
cleaning his room and decide to use a reinforcer of allowing an extra
30 minutes of video game time before bed. Which reinforcement
schedule is most likely to result in the highest number of times he
cleans his room?

A. Rewarding him every seventh time he cleans the room
B. Rewarding him on average every seventh time, but varying the
number of times needed
C. Rewarding him once every 7 days
D. Rewarding him on average every 7 days, but varying the number
of days

A

34.8. B. Rewarding him on average every seventh time, but
varying the number of times needed
Variable ratio reinforcement schedules, in which the desired behavior is
reinforced after an average but unpredictable number of times, generate
the highest rate of behavior. In a fixed ratio schedule, the reinforcement
occurs after a certain number of times the behavior occurs, which leads to
increasing rates of behavior up until the reinforcer is delivered, followed by
a drop-off. In a fixed interval schedule, the reinforcer is delivered for the
first response after a certain length of time. This leads to the lowest rate of
desired behavior, as the deliverance of the reinforcer
is completely
predictable and only depends on the behavior being done once. In a
variable interval schedule, behaviors are reinforced after an average but
unpredictable length of time, leading to a higher behavior rate than on a
fixed interval schedule, but lower than on a ratio schedule.

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9
Q

34.9.
A 7-year-old boy tells his parents that he does not want to eat his
vegetables, but instead would rather have ice cream. They try to
convince him to eat the vegetables, but he refuses. Using the
Premack principle, how should the parents respond to get him to
engage in the desired behavior?

A. Make him stay at the table until he eats his vegetables
B. Stop saying anything about the situation and carry on with the
meal
C. Tell him he can have ice cream once he eats his vegetables
D. Tell him he cannot have ice cream today, but that he possibly can
tomorrow
E. Ask him to eat just half the amount of the vegetables

A

34.9. C. Tell him he can have ice cream once he eats his
vegetables
The Premack principle states that a person may engage in a less-preferred
behavior if it grants access to a more-preferred one. The child’s morepreferred
behavior is eating ice cream. To follow the principle, the parents
should tell him that engaging in the less-preferred behavior (eating his
vegetables) will result in getting ice cream.

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10
Q

34.10.
A 45-year-old man reports to his supervisor for his quarterly
performance review. Despite meeting his sales goals, he is yelled at
by his boss, who is known to be unusually harsh. He increases his
sales for the next quarter and experiences the same result by his
boss. The treatment by his boss continues for the next three
quarters. He feels demoralized, and his production drops to the
point that he no longer meets his goals. The man is then
transferred to a new boss. According to learned helplessness, how
will the man most likely perform prior to his next review?

A. He will sell just enough to meet the goal
B. He will sell more than he ever has
C. His sales will remain subpar
D. His sales will drop substantially

A

34.10. C. His sales will remain subpar
In the learned helplessness model, an individual repeatedly exposed to an
aversive stimulus with no way to avoid it will have difficulty learning
behaviors to escape the situation even when escape is possible. In this
situation, the new boss presumably would not deliver the aversive stimulus
of yelling if the man performs as expected. Because he has learned that his
actions are not connected to the deliverance of the negative stimulus, he is
much less likely to change his behavior to try to effect change. Therefore,
he will continue performing at a subpar level

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11
Q

34.11.
A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department (ED)
one evening by emergency medical services (EMS) following an
accident in which the all-terrain vehicle he was riding flipped over.
He was thrown backward from the vehicle, landed on his head and
lost consciousness. He has no prior medical illnesses and is on no
medications. He is a graduate student at the local university. A
head CT in the ED shows a lesion in the medial portion of the
temporal lobe. When asked if he remembers the accident, he says
he does not. He is likely to have difficulty answering which of the
following memory questions?

A. “What is your birthdate?”
B. “Can you repeat these three words? Flag, ball, tree.”
C. “Who was the first president of the United States?”
D. “What did you have for lunch this afternoon?”
E. “What are you studying in school?”

A

34.11. D. “What did you have for lunch this afternoon?”
Damage to the medial portion of the temporal lobe can lead to anterograde
and retrograde amnesia. Retrograde deficits are often most severe for
information most recently learned. Immediate memory is usually
preserved, which is why he should be able to repeat three words. The most
recent nonimmediate information he is asked to recall is what he had for
lunch earlier in the day. The other questions involve memories that were
consolidated years ago. (1024)

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12
Q

34.12.
Two friends recount during a conversation where they were and
what they were doing on 9/11/2011 when they learned that the
Twin Towers fell in the United States. They were both in their 20s
at the time and recall the disbelief upon first hearing the news. One
of them states that she was driving to work, talking with her
mother on the phone about the next family vacation. The other
states that he was in his physiology class, listening to his professor
talk about the heart. Besides the hippocampus, what brain
structure is activated in the production of the memories of this
event as compared to memories of routine events?

A. Amygdala
B. Dentate gyrus
C. Subiculum
D. Parahippocampal cortex
E. Entorhinal cortex

A

34.12. A. Amygdala
The hippocampus, dentate gyrus, subiculum, parahippocampal cortices,
and entorhinal cortices are all normally crucial for any memory. However,
memories for emotional or arousing events include the activation of the
amygdala

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13
Q

34.13.
Amnesia due to Korsakoff syndrome results from alcoholic
damage and thiamine deficiency to the frontal lobe and what other
region of the brain?

A. Telencephalon
B. Diencephalon
C. Metencephalon
D. Mesencephalon
E. Myelencephalon

A

34.13. B. Diencephalon
The diencephalon, which consists of the thalamus, hypothalamus,
epithalamus, and subthalamus is damaged in Korsakoff syndrome. The
frontal lobe damage seen in Korsakoff syndrome produces problems with
cognition as well as memory retrieval and evaluation. The diencephalon
damage adds problems with being able to remember items of one type after
switching categories of information to be recalled, as well as the ability to
hold verbal and visual information in mind and sustaining mental control.

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14
Q

34.14.
A person with severe amnesia would be expected to be able to
remember which of the following?
A. The name of their spouse
B. How to get from their house to their favorite store
C. The melody of their favorite song
D. How to ride a bicycle
E. What they did last New Year’s Eve

A

34.14. D. How to ride a bicycle
Amnesia affects only declarative (explicit), not procedural (implicit)
memory. Declarative memory is divided into episodic (specific events in a
person’s history) and semantic memory (recall of facts and concepts).
Procedural memory involves being able to carry out muscle actions without
much conscious thought, such as with riding a bicycle

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15
Q

34.15.
A 40-year-old female with amnesia is shown a picture of a woman
in a bright red dress holding an umbrella on a rainy day. Also in
the scene is a lake with ducks and a boat in the distance. The next
day, she is asked to read out loud a set of words as quickly as
possible. The set includes the words “duck,” “umbrella,” and
“dress.” A patient without amnesia would read words represented
in the picture more quickly than neutral words, and remember
being shown the picture. How will this patient most likely
perform?
Quicker reading speed Remember picture
A. Yes No
B. Yes Yes
C. No Yes
D. No No

A

34.15. A. Quicker reading speed, not remembering the picture
The patient is participating in an experiment to measure the effect of
priming, which is the facilitation of the ability to detect or identify a
particular stimulus based on a specific recent experience. Studies have
shown that the effect of this type of priming remains intact in participants
with amnesia, as demonstrated by increased reading speed of words
represented in the priming picture. However, as expected, the participant
would not remember being shown the picture

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16
Q

34.16.
A 45-year-old man presents to the outpatient clinic with a
complaint of difficulty remembering names, facts, and events. He
states that this has been a problem “for as long as I can remember.”
He works as a welder and denies that the memory problems impact
his job. “It’s just embarrassing to forget things and it bothers me.”
He has no chronic medical illnesses and is on no prescription
medications. He takes over-the-counter ginkgo biloba “because I
heard it might help with memory.” Vital signs are within normal
limits. Body mass index (BMI) is 31. Physical examination is
noncontributory. The physician orders a memory assessment,
which should also include what test?

A. Visual field studies
B. Audiologic examination
C. Polysomnogram
D. Intellectual function
E. Adaptive functioning

A

34.16. D. Intellectual function
General intellectual functioning testing should be a part of any
neuropsychological examination, including one focused on memory. This
would give information about the patient’s test-taking ability and help test
certain types of memory impairment. Though disrupted sleep due to
obstructive sleep apnea could impact memory, this is less likely the
etiology for him as the problem is longstanding. Audiologic and visual
examinations should always be performed in children with learning
difficulties, as should adaptive functioning.

17
Q

34.17.
A researcher wishes to assess a person’s ability to learn new
information, and designs a test that involves the participant trying
to remember a string of words. What would be a necessary part of
the testing procedure for it to be sensitive to detecting deficits in
new learning?

A. Distracting the test taker between the learning and recall phases
of the test
B. Ensuring the test taker knows the meaning of the words used in
the test
C. Consistency in the number of syllables in each word used in the
test
D. Presenting words with at least a 5-second pause between them
E. Presenting the words both visually and aurally

A

34.17. A. Distracting the test taker between the learning and
recall phases of the test
Memory tests can properly assess impairment in new learning ability using
one of two strategies. The first is to present more information than can be
held in immediate memory. This may be asking the test taker to memorize
a string of 14 digits or learn pairs of unrelated words. The second strategy
is to distract the test taker between the learning and
recall phases, such as
is done in the mental status examination with the 5-minute recall of three
words.

18
Q

34.18.
In self-reports of memory difficulty, how do patients with
depression report their performance with new learning capacity
and immediate and remote recall?
New learning Immediate Remote
A. Impaired Normal Normal
B. Normal Impaired Normal
C. Normal Normal Impaired
D. Impaired Impaired Normal
E. Normal Impaired Impaired
F. Impaired Normal Impaired
G. Impaired Impaired Impaired

A

34.18. G. Impaired Impaired Impaired
Patients with depression who report problems with memory as a symptom
tend to endorse difficulty in all three domains of new learning capacity,
immediate recall, and remote recall. In contrast, patients with amnesia do
not report difficulty with immediate and remote memory, as those
domains are not usually deficient.

19
Q

34.19.
A 56-year-old man presents to the emergency department (ED)
with his wife who reports that her husband was accused of
embezzling at his job a month ago, and that he has a court hearing
tomorrow. She states that they were walking to the car when he
slipped on a patch of ice, hit his head, and blacked out. “When he
came to, he couldn’t remember anything, not even who I was, and
we’ve been married for 30 years!” The man tells the physician that
he does not know where he is and does not know the lady who
brought him to the ED. What question should the examiner ask
that would lead to the most likely diagnosis?

A. “What is your name?”
B. “Who is the lady with you today?”
C. “Who was the first president of the United States?”
D. “Where were you born?”
E. “Where do you work?

A

34.19. A. “What is your name?”
In contrast to an individual with psychogenic amnesia or who is
malingering, patients with neurogenic amnesia do not forget their name. A
patient with neurogenic amnesia would also likely remember their city of
birth, which could be used as a question to detect psychogenic amnesia or
malingering. However, that is not as specific as asking the person’s name

20
Q

34.20.
A 50-year-old woman who is president of a major manufacturing
company starts a mentorship program for early-career female
managers with a goal of “getting more women into the top
positions in business.” According to Erik Erikson’s model, she is
working on what developmental task?

A. Avoiding isolation
B. Mastering integrity
C. Avoiding despair
D. Mastering generativity
E. Mastering intimacy

A

34.20. D. Mastering generativity
The developmental task of generativity involves guiding the next
generation, which could be accomplished by serving as a mentor. Erikson
felt that this stage occurred between young adulthood and senior
adulthood. The developmental task of isolation versus intimacy begins in
adolescence and is centered on being able to become involved with a
partner. Integrity versus despair occurs in old age and is centered on
feeling whether or not one is at peace with the life they have lived

21
Q

34.21.
What part of the brain is most responsible for feelings of
attachment and pairing meaning to past experiences?

A. Medial temporal lobe
B. Amygdala
C. Anterior cingulate gyrus
D. Hippocampus
E. Diencephalon

A

34.21. C. Anterior cingulate gyrus
The anterior cingulate gyrus is the area of the brain most responsible for
making the past meaningful, and creates attachment by linking memory
and the capacity to react and reunite with others. Regarding memory, the
amygdala is instrumental in memories with a high arousal or emotional
content. The medial portion of the temporal lobe, diencephalon, and
hippocampus can all lead to amnesia if damaged.

22
Q

34.22.
A 30-year-old man who has constant urges to steal to “see if I can
get away with it” applies for a job with a department store chain to
devise ways to decrease vulnerability to merchandise theft. This is
an example of what defense mechanism?

A. Repression
B. Altruism
C. Sublimation
D. Displacement
E. Suppression

A

34.22. C. Sublimation
Sublimation involves channeling an unacceptable urge or impulse into an
acceptable outlet. It is generally not acceptable to steal, but it is acceptable
to act as a consultant to help businesses mitigate theft. Repression results
when a person unconsciously forgets a threatening stimulus, whereas
suppression occurs voluntarily. Displacement occurs when an impulse
toward someone is redirected to a powerless substitute target. Altruism
involves satisfying one’s needs by helping others.

23
Q

34.23.
Which of the following defense mechanisms is considered
immature?

A. Humor
B. Sublimation
C. Suppression
D. Anticipation
E. Projection

A

34.23. E. Projection
Defense mechanisms are responses to anxiety. Healthy, or mature, defense
mechanisms are conscious, rooted in reality, and are often constructive.
They include humor, altruism, sublimation, suppression, and anticipation.
Immature defense mechanisms are out of touch with reality, can be socially
undesirable, and can lead to problems with effective coping. Examples
include projection, passive aggression, regression, and somatization

24
Q

34.24.
In a famous ethology experiment, researcher Konrad Lentz
discovered that if he was the first moving object a newly hatched
gosling saw, the gosling responded to him as if he were its mother.
This is an example of what ethologic concept?

A. Displacement activity
B. Priming
C. Redirection activity
D. Instinct
E. Imprinting

A

34.24. E. Imprinting
Imprinting occurs during a particular developmental window during which
a young animal is highly sensitive to a particular stimulus. In this case, the
young gosling is highly sensitive to the movement of an organism, which it
then follows as its mother. Priming is the facilitation of the ability to detect
or identify a particular stimulus based on a specific recent experience.
Redirection activity occurs when an animal is attacked by the dominant
animal, and then fights a less-dominant organism instead. Instinct is a
developmental process resulting in species-typical behavior. The
imprinting of the gosling is instinctual, but does not explain the specific
behavior. Displacement activity occurs when an animal cannot choose
between two competing drives, such as fight or flight, and engages in an
unrelated activity instead.

25
Q

34.25.
In ethologic studies, young rhesus monkeys who were fearful and
anxious after being socially isolated or separated showed the
strongest response to what source of comfort?

A. Food and nourishment
B. Visual stimulation
C. Aural stimulation
D. Physical touch
E. Increased physical space

A

34.25. D. Physical touch
In one of Harry Harlow’s experiments, young rhesus monkeys separated
from their mother preferred a cloth-covered surrogate that provided no
food to a wire surrogate that provided food. Seeing or hearing other
monkeys, but not being able to touch them, did not relieve fear and
anxiety, and they tended to isolate themselves. In one of Stephen Soumi’s
experiments, isolated monkeys could sometimes be rehabilitated if
exposed to “therapist” monkeys who initiated gentle physical contact.

26
Q

34.26.
The administration of the drug reserpine in both animals and
humans can produce symptoms of what psychiatric illness?

A. Anxiety
B. Psychosis
C. Depression
D. Mania
E. Delirium

A

34.26. C. Depression
Reserpine is a catecholamine-depleting drug that was originally used to
treat hypertension, and later used as an antipsychotic. It is now rarely used
because of a possible side effect of severe depression

27
Q

34.27.
A 57-year-old man presents to the outpatient clinic with a
complaint of feeling “tired and run down, and I have headaches
and stomach aches every night.” He has felt this way for the past 3
weeks, and denies having these symptoms together for this amount
of time before. He works two jobs, one from the morning to
afternoon as a clerk at an office supply store, and one in the late
afternoon to late night as a security guard in a mall. He takes
lisinopril for hypertension diagnosed 3 years ago. When the
physician comments on stress from work being a contributing
factor, he states that he is a first-generation immigrant, and that
people in his home country are used to his work hours. How should
the physician respond?

A. “I really think you’re worn out from constant work.”
B. “Let’s get some lab work to help see what’s going on.”
C. “What do you think is causing your symptoms?”
D. “Would you like to get a second opinion?”
E. “Is everyone in your home country tired with headaches?”

A

34.27. C. “What do you think is causing your symptoms?”
For any patient, not just someone who emigrated from another country, a
patient’s idiom of distress
can be culturally bound. The patient should be
asked about their cultural identity to avoid misconceptions based on
stereotypes or inadequate information. One way to obtain an explanation
of a patient’s illness is to ask the patient what they believe is the cause of
their symptoms.

28
Q

34.28.
Data from the National Comorbidity Study shows that, in
comparison to Whites, African Americans have what relative risk
for developing substance use, anxiety, and depressive disorders
and what degree of persistence once a mental illness is developed?
Relative risk Persistence

A. Lower Lower
B. Lower Higher
C. Higher Lower
D. Higher Higher

A

34.28. B. Lower relative risk, higher persistence
Though African Americans were found to have lower rates of substance use
disorder, anxiety, and depression than Whites, they tend to have more
persistent disorders. A notable exception is schizophrenia, in which African
Americans are diagnosed at three times the rate of Whites

29
Q

34.29.
A 17-year-old girl is preparing her Indian dress for her senior
prom. Her great-grandparents emigrated from India to the United
States prior to the birth of her parents. She has been raised in a
traditional Indian home, in which the family members speak both
English and Hindi. She never hesitates to tell someone that she is
“Indian first, American second.” That declaration refers to what
aspect of her identity?

A. Race
B. Ethnicity
C. Culture
D. Nationality

A

34.29. B. Ethnicity
Ethnicity is the subjective sense of belonging to a group of people who
share commonalities including heritage, homeland, history, and values,
and is what the girl is expressing in her statement. Race is a grouping of
people largely based on physical characteristics. Culture is a set of
meanings, norms, beliefs, values, and behavior patterns shared by people.
(One of the aspects of ethnicity is a shared culture.) Nationality is the
country of one’s citizenship, often the same as their place of birth.

30
Q

34.30.
Sigmund Freud’s infant through adolescent stages focused on
what aspect of child development?

A. Physical
B. Cognitive
C. Moral
D. Sexual
E. Social

A

34.30. D. Sexual
Freud’s stages of child development were focused on sexuality and libidinal
energy, which he postulated shifted to different parts of the body at
different ages of an individual. The oral stage involved erotic activity from
chewing biting and sucking, the anal stage focused on bowel function, and
the phallic stage focused on urination. After the latent stage, in which he
theorized that erotic activity was relatively dormant, came the genital stage
in which erotic activity is focused on the penis, vagina, and clitoris

31
Q

34.31.
A 35-year-old woman presents to a therapist for psychoanalysis to
“work out some anxiety I think stems from my childhood.” During
the session, the therapist will encourage her to talk about what
aspect of her life?

A. Her relationship with her mother
B. The effect anxiety has on sexual functioning
C. Her identity as someone with anxiety
D. The effect of her upbringing on her adult life
E. Anything she can think of to say about any subject

A

34.31. E. Anything she can think of to say about any subject
The cornerstone of psychoanalysis is free association, in which the patient
says whatever comes to mind. The goal is to analyze the feelings toward the
therapist, called transference, and the resultant resistance to free
association. “Tell me about your mother” is a pop-culture punchline often
associated with psychoanalysis, but by definition, would not be free
association as it is directive. The same directiveness would result from
asking the patient any pointed question.

32
Q

34.32.
Erik Erikson’s psychosocial stages focused on what aspect of an
individual’s development?

A. Identity
B. Personality
C. Attachment
D. Cognition
E. Morality

A

34.32. A. Identity
Erik Erikson’s developmental stages centered around identity, identity
crisis, and identity confusion. He postulated that identity was “in the inner
core of the individual,” and that it emerged at the end of adolescence

33
Q

34.33.
According to positive psychology, what is the factor most
associated with being extremely happy?

A. Interpersonal relationships
B. Having at least a high school diploma or GED
C. A marriage lasting over 10 years
D. Age between 30 and 60 years
E. Having a career versus a job

A

34.33. A. Interpersonal relationships
The strongest correlation to extreme happiness is good relationships with
other people, to the extent that relationships may be a necessary condition
for extreme happiness. Employment and being married are robustly
correlated with happiness. Education and age have a small association with
happiness

34
Q

34.34.
A 56-year-old woman tells her 57-year-old husband that her
sister, who lives in the same town, had her first grandchild. “I’m so
happy! I get to be a great-aunt!” According to positive psychology,
which of the following responses would correlate with a
satisfactory marriage?

A. “That’s good to hear.”
B. “Do you think her daughter is ready to care for a child?”
C. “That’s good news. I bet your sister is thrilled!”
D. “It’s been a long day. Let’s go out for dinner.

A

34.34. C. “That’s good news. I bet your sister is thrilled!”
According to positive psychology, positive communication is strongly
correlated with a good relationship. In a marriage, positive communication
is shown through active-constructive responses which are enthusiastic,
such as “That’s good news. I bet your sister is thrilled!” A majority of the
other types of responses have been correlated with marital dissatisfaction.
These include active destructive, which focuses on the potential downside;
passive constructive, which are muted responses; and passive destructive,
which conveys disinterest.

35
Q

34.35.
Increased income has been shown to significantly increase life
satisfaction in which of the following circumstances?

A. The increase is attained as a result of a promotion at work
B. The individual feels they have earned the increase in income
C. The individual donates the amount of the increase to charity
D. The increase lifts the individual out of extreme poverty
E. The increase allows the individual to save money for emergencies

A

34.35. D. The increase lifts the individual out of extreme poverty
Increase in income has a small correlation to life satisfaction with one
exception—when the increase allows the person to be able to meet their
basic needs. Once the person is no longer in extreme poverty, employment
and engagement on the job are much more strongly correlated with
happiness

36
Q

34.36.
A 34-year-old woman presents to the outpatient clinic with a
complaint of “being in a funk” for the past week. She has been
diagnosed with major depressive disorder twice before, with the
last time being 2 years ago. She was on escitalopram both times
and stopped it after she felt better. She is on no medications and
has no chronic medical illnesses. She has never had therapy
“because the medicine worked so well. I just don’t want to be
dependent on it. I may be open to therapy, though.” She denies
current or past suicidal ideation, continues to go to work, and
denies problems with sleep or appetite. “I just feel negative.” After
explaining positive psychology to her, she states that she would be
willing to try it. What would be a possible focus in therapy?

A. Exploring her feelings about being dependent on medication
B. Congratulating her for wanting to engage in therapy
C. Having her write out what is going well in her life
D. Reflecting on the difference between feeling depressed and feeling
happy
E. Helping her learn to live with occasional bouts of depression

A

34.36. C. Having her write out what is going well in her life
Positive psychology looks at strengths and areas of competence in one’s
life, as opposed to deficiencies, weaknesses, and problems. Therefore,
therapy is not likely to focus on learning to live with depression or what she
does not like about medication. Congratulating her on wanting to engage in
therapy does not examine her strengths, nor does reflecting on the
difference between feeling depressed and happy. Having her think about
and write down what is going well in her life could be a technique
employed as an intervention. As noted in the stem, the patient should first
be assessed to see how open
they are to therapy in general and to positive
psychology specifically before beginning an intervention.

37
Q

34.37.
In addition to a willingness of the patient to engage, the
effectiveness of positive psychotherapy is dependent on what
factor?

A. The relationship between the therapist and patient
B. The patient’s ability to be introspective
C. The degree of severity of the patient’s symptoms
D. The patient’s willingness to help others
E. The type of illness the patient has

A

34.37. A. The relationship between the therapist and patient
A person can engage in positive psychotherapy whether or not they have a
mental health issue. Some techniques do not require a high propensity for
introspection, such as noticing and recording things that are going well in
someone’s life. Helping other people can be a therapeutic technique, but is
not the only technique. The common thread among positive
psychotherapies is the therapeutic alliance, or relationship between the
therapist and the patient.