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ATS AIS EXAM PREP > exam_revision_20240710221433 > Flashcards

exam_revision_20240710221433 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the readability scale from 1 through to 5?

A

o 1 = Unreadable
o 2 = Readable now and then
o 3 = Readable but with difficulty
o 4 = Readable
o 5 = Perfectly readable

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2
Q

Advise VH-CTB that the current time is 2135:15

A

CHARLIE TANGO BRAVO TIME TOO WUN TREE FIFE

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3
Q

Instruct Qantas 521 to descend to flight level 190 at the pilot’s discretion

A

QANTAS FIFE TWENTY WUN WHEN READY DESCEND TO FLIGHT LEVEL WUN NINER ZERO

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4
Q

Advise FD 225 that the area QNH is 1014

A

FLY DOC TOO TWENTY FIFE AREA QNH WUN ZERO WUN FOWER

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5
Q

Instruct VOZ 4521 to contact Melbourne Centre on frequency 119.8

A

VELOCITY FORTY FIFE TWENTY WUN CONTACT MELBOURNE CENTRE WUN WUN NINER DAY-SEE-MAL AIT

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6
Q

Advise SIA 243 that the current visibility is 7000m

A

SINGAPORE TOO FORTY TREE VISIBILITY SEV-EN KILOMETRES

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7
Q

Advise Victor Hotel Delta Uniform Zulu of the following weather conditions: 21005kt 9999

A

DELTA UNIFORM ZULU WIND TOO WUN ZERO DEGREES FIFE KNOTS VISIBILITY GREATER THAN WUN ZERO KILOMETRES

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8
Q

Instruct GIA 123 to climb to flight level 360 by Lee Creek

A

INDONESIA WUN TWENTY TREE CLIMB TO REACH FLIGHT LEVEL TREE SIX ZERO BY LEE CREEK

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9
Q

Advise BAW 14 that the RVR is 1100m

A

SPEEDBIRD FOURTEEN RUNWAY VISUAL RANGE WUN TOUSAND WUN HUNDRED METRES

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10
Q

Instruct TGG623 to descent to FL 320 without delay

A

TIGOZ SIX TWENTY TREE DESCEND TO FLIGHT LEVEL TREE TOO ZERO IMMEDIATELY

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11
Q

Instruct UAL 95 at flight level 240 to operate in a block flight level 320 to flight level 360

A

UNITED NINETY FIFE CLIMB TO AND MAINTAIN BLOCK FLIGHT LEVEL TREE TOO ZERO TO FLIGHT LEVEL TREE SIX ZERO

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12
Q

Phonetically write the correct time for the following:

0327:47

1314:50

0300:10

2329:55

A

ZERO TREE TOO AIT

WUN TREE WUN FIFE

ZERO TREE ZERO ZERO

TOO TREE TREE ZERO

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13
Q

Using the four-digit format, phonetically write the time 1422:21 as would be transmitted by the tower

A

WUN FOWER TOO TOO AND A HALF

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14
Q

What are the six elements of a position report?

A

o Aircraft identification
o Position
o Time
o Flight level or altitude
o Next position and estimated time over
o Ensuing significant point

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15
Q

What phrase would be used in an initial clearance to describe any route or portion thereof that is identical to that filed in the flight notification and sufficient routing details are given to definitely establish the aircraft on its route?

A

FLIGHT PLANNED ROUTE

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16
Q

At what distance prior to entering controlled airspace must aircraft be transferred to the control area frequency?

A

10NM prior to the boundary

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17
Q

Flights operating under which flight rules require continuous two-way radio communications in Class C airspace

A

IFR, VFR & Special VFR

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18
Q

Flights operating under which flight rules require continuous two-way radio communications in Class G airspace?

A

IFR, VFR for operations above 5000FT AMSL and at aerodromes where carriage and use of radio is required

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19
Q

What HF communications tool is used to allow pilots to receive messages without directly monitoring HF frequency?

A

Selective Calling (SELCAL)

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20
Q

Which mode must be selected for a controller to send and receive on a selected frequency?

A

Traffic

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21
Q

Which function allows aircraft to hear aircraft broadcasting on a frequency different from the frequency that the aircraft is monitoring?

A

Re-transmit

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22
Q

Which data link text allows pilots to communicate using text-based messaging?

A

Controller Pilot Data Link Communication (CPDLC)

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23
Q

Definition of what a CTAF is?

A

Common Traffic Advisory Frequency: A designated frequency on which pilots make positional broadcasts when operating in the vicinity of a non-controlled aerodrome

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24
Q

What phrase would be used by the pilot of VH-ABC approaching Ayers Rock for landing to advise you they are leaving your frequency for the CTAF frequency 128.9?

A

“ABC CHANGING TO AYERS ROCK CTAF WUN TOO AIT DAY-SEE-MAL NINER”

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25
Q

Which frequency must be used by pilots if no specific CTAF frequency is allocated to the broadcast area around an aerodrome?

A

MULTICOM: 126.7MHz

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26
Q

In general terms, when must HF communications equipment be carried on an aircraft?

A

For those operations outside VHF coverage, where the maintenance of a continuous two way communications watch with an airways operation unit is mandatory, the carriage of suitable HF frequencies is required

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27
Q

How many frequencies are allocated to each domestic HF network?

A

3

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28
Q

How many frequencies are allocated to each Brisbane international frequency?

A

5

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29
Q

Which automatic broadcast service would provide METAR information on VHF frequency 119.75 to en-route traffic in the vicinity of Mount William?

A

AERIS (Automatic En Route Information Service)

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30
Q

Which automatic broadcast service provides weather info on HF frequencies to international flights in the Australian FIR?

A

VOLMET

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31
Q

Name three ways the aeronautical information service may be provided:

A

o ATC initiated FIS
o Automatic broadcast services
o On-request services

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32
Q

In which classes of airspace are on-request flight information services provided and on which ATC frequencies?

A

ALL classes of airspace on ATC VHF or HF frequencies

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33
Q

Which phrase must pilots requesting aeronautical information services prefix their request?

A

“FLIGHTWATCH”

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34
Q

An IFR aircraft is unable to contact ATC on VHF or HF when taxiing at a non-towered aerodrome. The aircraft proceeds on a broadcast basis what conditions must be met to allow this?

A

o In the case of an RPT, CHTR or AWK flight, the pilot is assured of radio contact with their operator, or a representative of their operator who has immediate access to a serviceable telephone, until contact is made with ATC, or
o For flights other than RPT, a SARTIME for departure has been established with a maximum of 30 minutes from EOBT

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35
Q

Define ATIS:

A

Automatic Terminal Information Service: the provision of current, routine information to arriving and departing aircraft by means of continuous and repetitive broadcasts

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36
Q

Which aspect of the ATIS must the pilot advise to ATC upon first contact of approach?

A

The ATIS alphabetical code letter

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37
Q

When the tower is shut, which alphabetical letter is used for ATIS?

A

Z = ZULU

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38
Q

Formulate an ATIS based on the following conditions:
o Previous ATIS is information D
o ILS approaches are currently being issued for RWY35
o Visibility is greater than 10km
o 2 oktas of cloud at 2500 ft
o 4 oktas of cloud at 4000 ft
o Current temperature is 8 degrees
o Wind is 330 degrees at 10 knots
o Local QNH is 1013

A

o ATIS YBAS: E
o APCH: EXPECT INSTRUMENT APPROACH
o RWY: 35
o WIND: 330/10
o VIS: GT 10km
o CLD: FEW025 SCT040
o TEMP: 8
o QNH: 1013

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39
Q

Flight data: What category of message would be sent from Melbourne to inform Brisbane that Qantas93 will now be operated by the aircraft with the registration VH-ABC rather than VH-DEF?

This change of aircraft has resulted in a 24 minute delay for the aircraft departure. Is a delay message required?

A

Modification/Change Message (CHG)

NO, a delay message is required when an aircraft is, or will be, delayed for 30 minutes or more

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40
Q

What order of priority should messages be distributed?

A

o 1 = SS emergency
o 2 = DD urgency
o 3 = FF movement & control
o 4 = GG flight information services
o 5 = KK administrative

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41
Q

All AFTN messages have the same format. What are the five main elements?

A

o 1 = Header
o 2 = Address Line
o 3 = Originator Line
o 4 = Text/Message Detail
o 5 = End of Message

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42
Q

ZCZC CMD2933 1508240426
FF YBBBZQZF
240426 YMMMZQZF
(EST-RBA54/A1515-YMML-YUSEF/0456F400-WBSB)

What is the boundary crossing point?

A

YUSEF

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43
Q

ZCZC CMD2933 1508240426
FF YBBBZQZF
240426 YMMMZQZF
(EST-RBA54/A1515-YMML-YUSEF/0456F400-WBSB)

What is the estimate for crossing YUSEF?

A

0456

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44
Q

ZCZC CMD2933 1508240426
FF YBBBZQZF
240426 YMMMZQZF
(EST-RBA54/A1515-YMML-YUSEF/0456F400-WBSB)

What is the destination?

A

WBSB (Brunei)

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45
Q

ZCZC CMD2933 1508240426
FF YBBBZQZF
240426 YMMMZQZF
(EST-RBA54/A1515-YMML-YUSEF/0456F400-WBSB)

What is the address of the receiving unit?

A

YBBBZQZF (Brisbane Centre)

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46
Q

ZCZC CMD2933 1508240426
FF YBBBZQZF
240426 YMMMZQZF
(EST-RBA54/A1515-YMML-YUSEF/0456F400-WBSB)

What is the cleared Flight Level?

A

FL400

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47
Q

Which ATC unit can hold Primary Guard for an aircraft operating in Australian airspace?

A

FlightWatch International (FWI)

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48
Q

What is AIDC?

A

ATC-Interfacility Data Communications.

Messages that are passed across FIR boundaries.

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49
Q

Which of the following does NOT require an arrival message?
o Flight carrying the Governor General
o Aircraft engaged in SAR
o Safe arrival of missing aircraft
o Arrival of SPEEDBIRD10 in SYD from SIN

A

o Arrival of SPEEDBIRD10 in SYD from SIN

50
Q

What are the different AFTN message types?

A

FPL - Flight plan
CHG - Change
DEP - Departure
ARR - Arrival

51
Q

What are three of the elements a regular station holding primary guard is normally responsible for?

A

o Nomination of suitable primary and secondary frequencies
o Receipt of all position reports
o Handling of messages essential to the safe conduct of the flight

52
Q

When will primary guard be transferred?

A

o At a FIR boundary
o When you cannot maintain satisfactory communications
o When an aircraft requests a change of primary guard

53
Q

What callsign is used by a pilot for initial contact with Melbourne area control which provides a control service?

A

“MELBOURNE CENTRE”

54
Q

What are the CPDLC logon addresses for the Melbourne and Brisbane FIRs?

A

o Brisbane = YBBB
o Melbourne = YMMM

55
Q

Callsign for an aircraft engaged in providing an ambulance service

A

AMBULANCE

56
Q

Callsign for an aircraft engaged in federal police operations

A

FEDPOL

57
Q

Callsign for an aircraft engaged in priority state police operations

A

POLAIR RED

58
Q

VEC has departed and is climbing to 10,000 in the MEL FIR and has left 8,000. What phrase would the pilot use on initial contact with ATC?

A

MELBOURNE CENTRE VICTOR ECHO CHARLIE ON CLIMB WUN ZERO TOUSAND LEFT AIT TOUSAND

59
Q

UTY4550 has been advised to contact centre on frequency 199.8. What must the pilot readback?

A

WUN NINER NINER DAY-SEE-MAL AIT UNITY FORTY FIFE FIFTY

60
Q

What is the international distress VHF communications frequency?

A

121.5MHz

61
Q

What phrase is used by a pilot to indicate a state of urgency?

A

“PANPAN PANPAN PANPAN”

62
Q

If you did get a PANPAN call, what is the correct ATC response to that call?

A

o Callsign
o Station identification
o ROGER PAN
o For example, “(callsign) MELBOURNE CENTRE ROGER PANPAN”

63
Q

What phrase is used by a pilot to indicate a state of distress?

A

MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY

64
Q

When first contacting an aircraft with an emergency after transfer from another agency, how does an ATC indicate to the pilot his/her awareness of the emergency?

A

“(callsign) MAYDAY (or PAN) ACKNOWLEDGED”

65
Q

List five items of information an emergency message from a pilot could contain:

A

o Station addressed
o Aircraft identification
o Nature of distress condition
o Intentions
o Position, level and heading

66
Q

What phrase do you use to impose radio silence in an emergency?

A

“STOP TRANSMITTING; MAYDAY”

67
Q

Who may impose radio silence?

A

Only the aircraft in distress or the unit in control of the distress communications

68
Q

What response must a controller provide on receipt of a CPDLC MAYDAY message?

A

“ROGER MAYDAY” in a free text uplink message

69
Q

Your ATC system indicates two aircraft are at risk of collision. What phrase should prefix your transmission advising the pilots of the situation?

A

“SAFETY ALERT” or “AVOIDING ACTION”

70
Q

STANDARD WORDS AND PHRASES
-Permission for proposed action granted.
-I hereby indicate the separation between portions of the message.
-I hereby indicate separation between messages transmitted to different aircraft in a very busy environment.
-Examine a system or procedure

A

APPROVED
BREAK
BREAK BREAK
CHECK

71
Q

STANDARD WORDS AND PHRASES
-Have I correctly received the following…? or Did you correctly receive this message?
-Yes
-Establish radio contact with…
-My aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger and/or I require immediate assistance.

A

CONFIRM
AFFIRM
CONTACT
MAYDAY

72
Q

STANDARD WORDS AND PHRASES
-That is correct
-An error has been made in this transmission (or message indicated) the correct version is…
-What is the readability of my transmission?
-Wait and I will call you.

A

CORRECT
CORRECTION
HOW DO YOU READ
STAND BY

73
Q

STANDARD WORDS AND PHRASES
-Continue in accordance with the condition(s) specified or in its literal sense
-Repeat all, or the specified part, of this message back to me exactly as received
-Listen out on (frequency).
-A change has been made to your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your previous clearance or part thereof.

A

MAINTAIN
READ BACK
MONITOR
RECLEARED

74
Q

STANDARD WORDS AND PHRASES
-Pass me the following information.
-I should like to know or I wish to obtain.
-I have received all of your last transmission
-Reduce your rate of speech.
-Check and confirm with originator.

A

REPORT
REQUEST
ROGER
SPEAK SLOWER
VERIFY

75
Q

What is the primary purpose of an ELT (Emergency Locator Transmitter)?

A

Assist with locating aircraft in the event of an accident.

76
Q

What frequencies are ELTs transmitted on?

A

o COSPAS SARSAT = 406.025MHz
o VHF = 121.5 MHz

77
Q

If you as a controller receive a resolution advisory (RA) on a TCAS equipped aircraft, the pilot is required to do what?

A

“the pilot will respond in accordance with the collision avoidance maneuver prescribed by the TCAS system; advise ATC once clear of the conflict; and then follow ATC instructions”

78
Q

What is required for TCAS to TCAS coordination of RA?

A

Both aircraft have to be fitted with TCAS II.

79
Q

What the difference between GPWS and EGPWS?

A

EGPWS = ENHANCED Ground Proximity Warning System

Both instruments indicate warn pilot when current altitude is too close to lowest safe altitude, however EGPWS also includes:
* Terrain database
* Knowledge of current position

80
Q

During a flight a pilot hears “whoop whoop, pull up, pull up”. This warning is given by what onboard system?

A

GPWS

81
Q

What does RADAR Altimeter measure?

A

Height above terrain

82
Q

What is the radio altimeter mostly used for, as a pilot?

A

Decision Height on a precision approach

83
Q

Which nav aid provides the lowest minima of all approach aids which a pilot can legally use in Australia?

A

ILS (Instrument Landing Systems)

84
Q

Which instrument is described as:

3D precision approach which helps provide guidance to pilots for their arrival into an aerodrome. Equipment on board and on the ground which talk to each other.

A

ILS (Instrument Landing Systems)

85
Q

Where is the localiser antenna of an ILS found?

A

At the end of the runway.

(note: GLIDE SLOPE is ADJACENT to the touchdown point)

86
Q

Which instruments can be used to cross check height/distance-to-run during an ILS approach into an aerodrome?

A

DME & GNSS

87
Q

If there is no DME to provide altitude and distance guidance for an aircraft, sometimes an aerodrome will utilise marker beacons. What is the primary purpose of marker beacons for an ILS approach?

A

Provide fixed distance markings on the approach to the aerodrome for the pilot to establish their altitude and distance from the aerodrome

88
Q

Based on a 3° Glide Path, how far would an aircraft be expected to descend in 1NM?

A

300ft

89
Q

The INS uses gyroscopes and accelerometers to measure what?

A

Angular velocity and linear acceleration

90
Q

How does IRS differ from INS?

A

IRS uses ring-laser gyroscopes

91
Q

GBAS (Ground Based Augmentation System) = a safety system that supports all phases of an aircraft approach, landing, departure, runway operations, etc.

How does GBAS improve accuracy of GNSS?

A

Through error correction obtained from differential GPS at surveyed locations

92
Q

At which airports is GBAS (Ground Based Augmentation System) currently used in Australia?

A

SYD and MEL

93
Q

What is the purpose of HIAL (High Intensity Approach Lighting)?

A

Designed to assist the pilot in transitioning from flight in IMC to visual conditions

94
Q

What is the range of primary and secondary radar?

A

o Primary = 50NM
o Secondary = 250NM

95
Q

True/False: A radar responder such as an aircraft transponder sends back information about aircraft squawk codes and pressure altitude when interrogated by radar.

A

TRUE

96
Q

What is the main purpose of primary radar?

A

To detect non-transponder control area penetrations

97
Q

What is the advantage of primary radar?

A

It has capability of detecting all aircraft, including non-transponder equipped aircraft

98
Q

Can Secondary surveillance radar (SSR) detect non-transponder equipped aircraft?

A

No

99
Q

What does SSR (Secondary Surveillance Radar) rely on?

A

Aircraft carrying a serviceable transponder

100
Q

True/False: The rotation speed of a long-range radar (SSR) is higher than that of a short-range radar.

A

o FALSE;
o Note: Short range spins faster

101
Q

What is the effect and purpose of the SPI (special purpose identification) function?

A

The SPI is used to highlight the ATC SSR symbol. It may be used to receive responses from aircraft experiencing radio transmission failure.

102
Q

A desirable ATC Radar characteristic is?

A

Minimum ‘blind space’ overhead

103
Q

Radar antennas are designed with a cosecant2 beam to ________

A

Achieve minimum ‘blind space’ overhead

104
Q

What is the function and purpose of WAM (Wide Area Multilateration)?

A

WAM is a system that triangulates an aircraft’s position, used to fill in areas of poor SSR coverage.

105
Q

In the event of a mains power supply failure, what is the means of providing power to ground nav aids?

A

Backup diesel generators

106
Q

What situation will occur in the event of close proximity traffic if your aircraft is fitted with TCAS II and the threat aircraft is fitted with TCAS I?

A

Your aircraft (TCAS II) will give an RA.
The threat aircraft (TCAS I) will only give a TA.

107
Q

What is the maximum range of airborne weather radar?

A

250NM

108
Q

What is Airborne Weather Radar used for?

A

Used for the detection of Cb due to presence of moisture of hail

109
Q

How does a Stormscope work?

A

By detecting and mapping the radiated signals of electrical discharge

110
Q

What the purpose of RNAV (Area Navigation)?

A

Area navigation allows pilots to fly routes that are not aligned with ground navigation aids

111
Q

SSR Non-Discrete Codes:
0100 Aircraft ops at ______ (or as instructed by ATC)
1200 VFR in ______ airspace
2000 Civil ____ in G airspace
2100 ______ testing
3000 Civil flights in ______ airspace, IFR in __
4000 Civil flights (Non SAR) in G ______ offshore
5000 ______ Flights in A, C, D or E airspace
6000 ______ Flights in G airspace
7615 Civil ________

A

Aerodromes
E or G
IFR
Ground
A, C or D E
> 15NM
Military
Military
surveillance

112
Q

SSR Emergency Codes:

A

7400 RPAS use
7500 Unlawful interference
7600 Radio failure
7700 Emergency

113
Q

What are the two approved RNAV systems in Australia?

A
  • Inertial Navigation System (INS/IRS)
  • Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS/GPS)
114
Q

What is RAIM?

(RECEIVER AUTONOMOUS INTEGRITY MONITORING)

A
  • Performs consistency checks on satellites
  • Checks GPS receiver itself
  • Alerts pilot if checks fail
  • RAIM outages are predictable and available at
    pre-flight briefing.
115
Q

What is usually the aggregate error of VOR?

A

Less than +-5º

116
Q

What is the symbol for collated VOR+DME?

A

Hexagon contained within a square with a dot in the middle.

117
Q

What is TACAN?

A

The military equivalent of VOR+DME

118
Q

What are the three possible requirements for a position fix?

A

-Aircraft over DME/VOR/NDB/TACAN

-The intersection of two or more position lines with angles greater than 45 degrees, obtained from DME/VOR/NDBs

-GNSS meeting requirements of GEN1.5

119
Q

Limitations of GPWS:
* Relies on ______
* Limited to below _____ feet AGL
* Inaccurate at bank angles > __°
* Inaccurate at pitch angles > __°
* Produces some __________.
* Some modes can be over-ridden

A

radio altimeter
2500
30
20
false alarms

120
Q

When is HIAL (High Intensity Approach Lighting) required?

A

For CAT 2 and 3 approaches

ATS AIS EXAM PREP (3 decks)

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