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BIOLOGY101 > Exam2 > Flashcards

Exam2 Flashcards

1
Q

The totality of an organism’s chemical reactions

A

Metabolism

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2
Q

Pathways that release energy by breaking down complex molecules into simpler compounds

A

Catabolic pathways

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3
Q

Pathways that consume energy to build complex molecules from simpler ones

A

Anabolic pathways

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4
Q

Energy that matter possess because of is location or structure

A

Potential energy

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5
Q

Potential energy available for release in a chemical reaction

A

Chemical energy

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6
Q

Energy can be transferred and transformed, but it cannot be created or destroyed

A

1st law of thermodynamics

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7
Q

Every energy transfer or transformation increases the entropy of the universe

A

2nd law of thermodynamics

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8
Q

the energy associated with the relative motion of objects. Moving matter can perform work by imparting motion to other mater

A

Kinetic energy

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9
Q

Energy that can do work when temp and pressure are uniform, as in a living cell

A

Free energy

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10
Q

the type of reaction that proceeds with a net release of free energy and is spontaneous

A

exergonic reaction

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11
Q

type of reaction that absorbs free energy from its surroundings and is nonspontaneous

A

endergonic reaction

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12
Q

the type of reaction that cells use to manage energy recourses by using exergonic ractions to drive and endergonic reactions

A

Energy coupling

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13
Q

The cells energy shuttle that cats as a coenzyeme and is a nucleoside triphosphate

A

ATP

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14
Q

what a recipient molecule is called when it is energized by a phosphate from ATP

A

Phosphorylated

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15
Q

A chemical agent that speeds up a reaction without being consumed by the reaction

A

Catalyst

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16
Q

Catalytic proteins in cells that speed up chemical reactions required for cellular metabolism

A

Enzyme

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17
Q

The reactant that an enzyme acts on

A

Substrate

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18
Q

chance in enzyme shape that brings chemical groups of the active site into positions that enhance their ability to catalyze the reaction

A

Induced Fit

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19
Q

The initial energy needed to start a chemical reaction

A

Activation energy

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20
Q

molecules that bind to the active site of an enzyme, competing with the substrate and slowing the reaction

A

Competitive inhibitors

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21
Q

molecules that bind to another part of an enzyme, causing the enzyme to change shape and making the active site less effective

A

Noncompetitive inhibitor

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22
Q

Non protein enzyme helpers that may be inorganic or organic

A

Cofactors

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23
Q

small organic enzyme cofactors that include vitamins and ATP

A

coenzyme

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24
Q

Energy is required to sustain life. Of the statements below, which one correctly describes energy?

A

Energy cannot be created or destroyed.

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25
Q

The second law of thermodynamics states that every energy transformation increases entropy. Which of these options is an example of entropy?

A

The aerobic respiration of glucose generates heat.

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26
Q

ATP hydrolysis facilitates cellular work by

A

releasing free energy that can be coupled to other reactions

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27
Q

ATP can provide energy to a chemical reaction by adding which of these to a substrate inside a cell?

A

Phosphate group

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28
Q

Some reactions in cells proceed spontaneously. These exergonic reactions

A

releases energy when proceeding in the forward direction

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29
Q

Enzymes have several properties. One important property of enzymes is that they act as catalysts which means that enzymes

A

change the rate of a reaction without being consumed by the reaction

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30
Q

Enzymes can speed up chemical reactions by

A

lowering the energy of activation of a reaction

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31
Q

Acetylcholine is a small organic molecule released from your neurons that causes your muscles to contract. An enzyme breaks down acetylcholine after it is released so that your muscles stop contracting. A molecule that is very similar to acetylcholine called succinylcholine prevents the enzyme from breaking down acetylcholine when it is present. This suggests that

A

succinylcholine must be a competitive inhibitor of the enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine

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32
Q

The enzyme polyphenol oxidase requires copper in its active site to catalyze a reaction. Copper in polyphenol oxidase is

A

a cofactor necessary for enzyme activity

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33
Q

Metabolic pathways are important series of chemical reactions in our cells that must be regulated. To control a metabolic pathway, the product often inhibits an early step in the pathway. This type of regulation is called

A

feedback inhibition

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34
Q

Partial degradation of sugars that occurs without O2

A

Fermentation

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35
Q

consumes organic molecules and O2 and yields ATP

A

Aerobic respiration

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36
Q

Chemical reactions that transfer electrons between reactants

A

Oxidation-Reduction Reactions (Redox reactions)

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37
Q

in a redox reaction the substance that loses elections is

A

Oxidized

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38
Q

In a redox reaction the substance that gains electrons is

A

Reduced

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39
Q

the electron doner in a redox reaction

A

Reducing agent

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40
Q

the electron acceptor in a redox reaction

A

Oxidizing agent

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41
Q

A coenzyme involved in redox reactions that represents stored energy that is tapped to synthesize ATP

A

NADH

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42
Q

The first stage of cellular respiration that breaks down glucose into two molecules of pyruvate

A

Glycolysis

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43
Q

The second stage of cellular respiration that completes the breakdown of glucose

A

The citric acid cycle

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44
Q

The third stage of cellular respiration that generates most of the ATP in cellular respiration through redox reactions and the use of an electron transport chain and chemiosmosis

A

oxidative phosphorylation

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45
Q

The process that produces a smaller amount of ATP during glycolysis and the citric acid cycle by the transfer of phosphate groups during enzyme reactions

A

Substrate-level Phosphorylation

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46
Q

The product of glycolysis that enters the mitochondria

A

Pyruvate

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47
Q

The starting molecule for the citric acid cycle

A

Acetyl-CoA

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48
Q

Electron carrier molecules that are the starting molecules for the electron transport chain

A

NADH and FADH2

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49
Q

A series of protein complexes in the inner membrane (cristae) of the mitochondrion that reduce the free energy of electrons and finally pass electrons to O2, forming H2O

A

Electron transport chain

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50
Q

Proteins in the electron transport chain that contain iron atoms allowing them to shuttle electrons through the chain

A

Cytochromes

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51
Q

The use of energy in a H+ gradient to drive cellular work like the oxidative phosphorylation of ATP

A

Chemiosmosis

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52
Q

A channel protein in the inner membrane of the mitochondrion that can couple the energy in the proton motive force to the phosphorylation of ATP

A

ATP synthase

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53
Q

Another name for the H+ gradient created by the electron transport chain that has significant potential energy

A

Proton motive force

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54
Q

The overall chemical reaction for cellular respiration is which of these?

A

glucose + oxygen carbon dioxide + water + energy

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55
Q

Substrate-level phosphorylation is

A

the process that produces ATP by transferring phosphate groups from substrates.

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56
Q

Which of the following best describes oxidation reduction (redox) reactions?

A

electrons are lost from one substance and added to another substance

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57
Q

The reaction for cellular respiration is C6H12O6 + 6 O2→ 6 CO2 + 6 H2O. During this reaction

A

oxygen becomes reduced

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58
Q

Each stage of cellular respiration occurs in a specific part of the cell. Glycolysis occurs in the

A

cytosol

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59
Q

Glycolysis is an important part of cellular respiration. Which of the following describes glycolysis the best?

A 
ALL
generates NADH
splits glucose to form two molecules of pyruvic acid
it begins the breakdown of glucose
it produces a small amount of ATP
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60
Q

Glycolysis and the citric acid cycle completely break down glucose but only produce a few ATP molecules. The remaining energy from glucose is

A

in NADH and FADH2

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61
Q

Oxygen (O2) is required for which stage of cellular respiration?

A

the electron transport chain

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62
Q

While pyruvate oxidation produces acetyl CoA,

A

CO2 and NADH are formed

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63
Q

The electron transport chain is found in

A

the inner membrane of the mitochondria

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64
Q

The electron transport chain is best described by which option below?

A

Electrons pass from one carrier to another, releasing a little energy at each step.

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65
Q

During the electron transport chain, the energy from electrons is used to

A

pump H+ thru a membrane

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66
Q

Fermentation maintains production of ATP at low levels. Fermentation does this by

A

enabling the cell to recycle NAD+

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67
Q

During fermentation how many ATP are produced for each molecule of glucose?

A

2 ATP

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68
Q

The most ancient metabolic pathway for generating small amounts of ATP is most likely

A

glycolysis

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69
Q

The process that converts solar energy into chemical energy in the chloroplast

A

Photosynthesis

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70
Q

Organisms that sustain themselves without eating anything derived from other organisms

A

Autotrophs

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71
Q

Organisms that obtain their organic material from other organisms

A

Heterotrophs

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72
Q

Microscopic pores for gas exchange in the leave that CO2 enters and O2 exits

A

Stomata

73
Q

The dense fluid inside the chloroplast

A

Stroma

74
Q

Connected sacs in the chloroplast which compose a third membrane system

A

Thylakoids

75
Q

Reactions of photosynthesis in the thylakoids that split H2O, Release O2, Reduce the electron acceptor NADP+ to NADPH and Generate ATP from ADP

A

The light reactions

76
Q

Reactions of photosynthesis in the stroma that form sugar from CO2, using ATP and NADPH

A

The calvin cycle

77
Q

The pigment which gives leaves their green color that resides in the thylakoid membranes

A

Chlorophyll

78
Q

Instrument that measures a pigment’s ability to absorb various wavelengths

A

Spectrophotometer

79
Q

Property of light that determines the type of electromagnetic energy (and color for visible light)

A

Wavelength

80
Q

The sites of light energy harvesting in thylakoids that consists of a reaction-center complex surrounded by light-harvesting complexes

A

Photosystem

81
Q

A type of protein complex where a primary electron acceptor accepts excited electrons and is reduced

A

Reaction-center complex

82
Q

Pigment molecules and proteins in the thylakoids that transfer the energy of photons to the reaction center

A

Light-harvesting complex

83
Q

The process of making ATP using a proton-motive force generated across the thylakoid membrane of chloroplasts

A

Photophosphorylation

84
Q

The 3 carbon sugar produced by the Calvin cycle and an intermediate sugar in glycolysis

A

Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate

85
Q

The enzyme that normally catalyzes the addition of CO2 to RuBP as the first step of the Calvin cycle

A

Rubisco

86
Q

A lion eating a gazelle is an example of

A

a consumer eating a heterotroph

87
Q

Photosynthesis requires stomata for

A

gas exchange

88
Q

Plants appear green to us because we see

A

The wavelengths that are reflected or transmitted by a pigment object

89
Q

The reason pigments like chlorophyll are so important for photosynthesis is that when a pigment absorbs light, one of its electrons is raised to the ______ state.

A

excited

90
Q

In photosynthesis, the light reactions transform ______ energy to ______ energy.

A

solar… chemical

91
Q

Linear electron flow during the light reactions produces

A

ATP and NADPH

92
Q

Both photosynthesis and cellular respiration use oxidative phosphorylation to make ATP. A difference is that the H+ ion gradient forms across the ______ in photosynthesis.

A

Thylakoid membrane

93
Q

The part of photosynthesis called the Calvin cycle performs which of these functions?

A

making sugar

94
Q

Variations of photosynthesis have evolved for plants to survive in more extreme habitats. For instance, the C4 type of photosynthesis is seen in desert plants because

A

they can incorporate low level of CO2 into organic acids during the day and transport the carbon to the Calvin cycle in high amounts.

95
Q

Photosynthesis is critical for our survival because the ultimate source of the energy in our food is ______.

A

sunlight

96
Q

The cell cycle phase before cell division when DNA is replicated and the chromosomes condense

A

Interphase

97
Q

The cell cycle phase when the genetic material in the nucleus is divided equally and the cytoplasm is divided into two cells

A

Miotic Phase

98
Q

Joined copies of the original chromosome found in each duplicated chromosome that are attached along their lengths by cohesins

A

Sister chromatids

99
Q

The narrow “waist” of the duplicated chromosome, where the two chromatids are most closely attached

A

Centromere

100
Q

The life of a cell from formation to its own division

A

Cell cycle

101
Q

A structure of DNA and protein present in non-dividing cells that condenses during cell division

A

Chromatin

102
Q

Highly condensed packages of DNA molecules wrapped around proteins that can be moved easily when the cell is dividing

A

Chromosomes

103
Q

Interphase stage when growth and duplication of chromosomes and centrosomes occurs

A

S

104
Q

Interphase stages when only growth occurs

A

G1/G2

105
Q

Mitotic stage when the nuclear membrane breaks down, the centrosomes organize the production of microtubules that form the spindle fibers, and the chromosomes condense into compact structures

A

Prophase

106
Q

Mitotic stage when some spindle microtubules attach to the kinetochores of chromosomes and begin to move the chromosomes

A

Prometaphase

107
Q

Mitotic stage when the chromosomes align themselves along the center of the cell between the spindle poles

A

Metaphase

108
Q

Mitotic stage when the centromeres divide, and the sister chromatids of each chromosome are pulled apart and move to the opposite ends of the cell, pulled by spindle fibers attached to the kinetochore regions

A

Anaphase

109
Q

Stage of mitosis when the nuclear membrane reforms around the chromosomes grouped at either pole of the cell, the chromosomes uncoil and become diffuse, and the spindle fibers disappear

A

Telophase

110
Q

The system like a clock that guides the sequential events of the cell cycle

A

Cell cycle control

111
Q

Places where the cell cycle stops until a go-ahead signal is received

A

Checkpoints

112
Q

A cell cycle regulatory protein that phosphorylates target proteins when activated by cyclin

A

Cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk)

113
Q

A cell cycle regulatory protein that changes in concentration during the cell cycle

A

Cyclin

114
Q

Tumors created by abnormal cells that only remain at the original site

A

Benign tumor

115
Q

Tumors that invade surrounding tissues and cause disease symptoms

A

Malignant tumor

116
Q

The export of cancer cells to other parts of the body

A

Metastasis

117
Q

The fertilized egg that has one set of chromosomes from each parent

A

Zygote

118
Q

The two chromosomes in each pair of chromosomes (23 pairs in humans) found in somatic cells

A

Homologous chromosomes

119
Q

The chromosomes that determine the sex of the individual, called X and Y

A

Sex chromosomes

120
Q

All of the chromosomes that are not sex chromosomes

A

autosomes

121
Q

A cell has two sets of chromosomes (2n)

A

Diploid cell

122
Q

A cell has one set of chromosomes (n)

A

Haploid cell

123
Q

The type of cell division that produces sex cells (gametes)

A

Meiosis

124
Q

The reductional division in meiosis when homologs pair up and separate, resulting in two haploid daughter cells with replicated chromosomes

A

Meiosis I

125
Q

The equational division in meiosis when sister chromatids separate

A

Meiosis II

126
Q

A group of four chromatids formed by a pair of chromosomes in Prophase I

A

Tetrad

127
Q

When homologous chromosomes loosely pair up, aligned gene by gene, in Prophase I

A

Synapsis

128
Q

The process of nonsister chromatids exchanging DNA segments

A

Crossing over

129
Q

X-shaped regions where crossing over occurred

A

Chiasmata

130
Q

Changes in an organism’s DNA that are the original source of genetic diversity

A

Mutations

131
Q

Different versions of genes created by mutations

A

Alleles

132
Q

A source of genetic variation that happens when each pair of chromosomes sorts maternal and paternal homologs into daughter cells independently of the other pairs

A

Independent assortment

133
Q

A source of genetic variation that happens when crossing over combines DNA inherited from each parent

A

Recombiant chromosomes

134
Q

A source of genetic variation that happens when any sperm can fuse with any ovum (unfertilized egg)

A

Random fertilization

135
Q

In what way are sexual and asexual reproduction alike?

A

They can both occur in multicellular organisms

136
Q

Of the following, which incorrectly describes genes?

A

Genes are transmitted during sexual reproduction, but not during asexual reproduction.

137
Q

For meiosis, which option below is not one of the functions of this type of cell division?

A

multiplication of body cells

138
Q

A normal human has 46 total chromosomes. Of these chromosomes, how many are autosomes?

A

44

139
Q

Which of the following is the best description of a karyotype?

A

photograph of persons chromosomes

140
Q

A normal female would have which of the sex chromosome combinations?

A

XX

141
Q

You are studying a new type of insect. You discover that this insect has a haploid chromosome number of n=4. During meiosis for this insect, how many tetrads will form?

A

4

142
Q

Which of the options below best explains the difference between Prophase I and Prophase II?

A

During prophase I there is one diploid cell; during prophase II there are two haploid cells.

143
Q

When comparing Meiosis I with Meiosis II, which of the following is a difference?

A

crossing over occurs in meiosis I, but not in meiosis II

144
Q

There is/are ____ cell(s) at the end of Telophase I and Cytokinesis.

A

2 haploid

145
Q

Which of these structures are seen at the sites of crossing over in the chromosomes?

A

Chiasmata

146
Q

When do homologous chromosomes pair during meiosis?

A

Prophase I

147
Q

Comparing mitosis and meiosis, you will see _____ at the end of mitotic cell division and _____ at the end of meiotic cell division.

A

two diploid cells … four haploid cells

148
Q

During Metaphase I, homologous chromosomes can align in alternative arrangements that produce genetic variation. What is this specific mechanism of genetic variation called?

A

independent assortment

149
Q

Meiosis creates genetic variation in several different ways. Of the following, which one is not a way that genetic variation is created?

A

the events of anaphase II

150
Q

Inside the nucleus, chromatin is made up of

A

DNA and protein

151
Q

After S phase each chromosome consists of two

A

sister chromatids

152
Q

During prophase, a human cell will contain 46 chromosomes. How many sister chromatids make up the 46 chromosomes?

A

92

153
Q

Cell division involving mitosis performs all of the following functions for eukaryotes except

A

production of gametes

154
Q

During the interphase portion of the cell cycle, which of the following happens?

A

DNA is synthesized

155
Q

Which of the following is the correct order of stages during the mitosis portion of the cell cycle?

A

Prophase, Metaphase, anaphase, and telophase

156
Q

During mitotic cell division the daughter cells that are produced

A

are genetically identical to the parent cell (assuming no mutation has occurred)

157
Q

Anaphase includes which of the following events?

A

centromeres divide

158
Q

Of the following, which is the best description of telophase?

A

the events of prophase are reversed

159
Q

During the cell cycle microtubules play an important role in moving around chromosomes. When do the centrosomes that produce microtubules separate and move to opposite sides of the cell?

A

Prophase

160
Q

What is the stage of mitosis when duplicated chromosomes are aligned in preparation to separate into individual chromatids and move to opposite poles?

A

metaphase

161
Q

An obvious way to tell that a dividing cell is a plant cell instead of an animal cell is the

A

formation of cell plate

162
Q

Cancer progresses from benign tumors to malignant tumors. Which of these statements correctly explain the different between benign and malignant tumors?

A

benign tumors do not metastasize; malignant tumors do

163
Q

Enzymes that add a phosphate group to other proteins to control their activity are very important during the cell cycle. What are these type of enzymes called?

A

kinases

164
Q

During cell division specific cyclin and cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk) pairs control different checkpoints. The cyclin E and Cdk 2 pair are important for the G1 checkpoint that determines whether the cell will enter S phase. Given this information, which statement below is correct for cyclin E and Cdk 2?

A

The amount of cyclin E is highest during G1.

165
Q

The cell cycle phase before cell division when DNA is replicated and the chromosomes condense.

A

interphase

166
Q

The type of cell division in which the genetic material in the nucleus is divided equally and the cytoplasm is divided into two cells.

A

mitosis

167
Q

The type of cell division that produces sex cells (gametes)

A

meiosis

168
Q

A structure of DNA and protein present in non-dividing cells that condenses during cell division

A

chromosome

169
Q

Joined copies of the original chromosome found in each duplicated chromosome that are attached along their lengths by cohesins

A

sister chromatids

170
Q

The narrow “waist” of the duplicated chromosome, where the two chromatids are most closely attached

A

centromere

171
Q

A localized region at a growing tip of a plant body where one or more cells divide repeatedly.

A

meristem

172
Q

A hollow ball of cells that marks the end of the cleavage stage during early embryonic development in animals.

A

blastula

173
Q

A cell has one set of chromosomes (n)

A

haploid

174
Q

A cell has two sets of chromosomes (2n)

A

diploid

175
Q

An offspring that results when crossing over does not happen.

A

non-recombinant

176
Q

An offspring created when crossing over recombines DNA from two parents.

A

recombinant

177
Q

The process of nonsister chromatids exchanging DNA segments

A

crossing over

178
Q

The continuous and prolific production of mature sperm in the testis.

A

spermatogenesis

179
Q

If a cell of an organism has 46 chromosomes before meiosis, how many chromosomes will exist in each nucleus after meiosis?

A

23

BIOLOGY101 (3 decks)

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