Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

History 2022 > EXAM REVISION > Flashcards

EXAM REVISION Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® U.S. History flashcards European History 101 flashcards AP® European History flashcards AP® World History flashcards World History 102 flashcards U.S. History 102 flashcards World History 101 flashcards U.S. History 101 flashcards
1
Q

what is a revolution?

A

a time of change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

when did the industrial revolution take place?

A

1750-1850

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what was life like pre-industrial revolution?

A
  • rural lifestyle

- focus on agriculture and food production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what were the large changes during the industrial revolution?

A
  • nations changed from mainly agricultural to urban societies
  • growth in modern transport overseas
  • mechanisation of labour, mass production of goods
  • movement of lots of people through slavery, convict transport, and immigration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what was the agricultural revolution?

A

major changes in farming meant an increase in farming production, which provided more food for a growing population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

one invention/innovation that helped improve farming during the agricultural revolution:

A

the Rotherham plough -> required less people to use/more efficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how did farming become more like a business?

A 
pre-18th century = local production only produced enough food and clothing needs for family, not much left over
agricultural rev. = new techniques for farming led to huge surplus of products, sold to the working class and to overseas markets for huge profits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

why did more people move to the cities?

A

due to the new farming techniques that required less people but created more products, they were being pushed off their land and were forced to move to cities for jobs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

when was the population explosion?

A

1750-1850

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

reasons for the population explosion:

A
  • improvements in medical science (vaccinations such as ones for smallpox, eradication of the plague)
  • agricultural rev. meant more good quality food (healthier diets, no famine, diseases like scurvy and rickets declined)
  • child labour to earn more money (people were having more children to boost the family income)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the relationship between then industrial rev. and the population explosion?

A

the industrial rev. started the population explosion, and the population explosion helped develop the industrial rev.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what was the main industry that drove the industrial rev.?

A

textile/cotton industry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what kind of industries did the industrial rev. cause to decline and increase?

A

the ‘cottage industry’ (small-scale, family based, at home) shifted to the ‘factory industry’ (centralised place, machines, lots of unskilled workers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what did the textile industry in England focus on rather than cotton and why?

A

focus on wool, because India, America, and the West Indies provided cheaper cotton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

one invention that revolutionised the textile industry?

A

the Spinning Jenny (1760’s) -> faster spinning and better quality fabrics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what was a cotton mill/textile factory?

A

a specialised factory that could house these new big machines for creating textiles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

where were cotton mills located?

A

at first they were located near water (for water power), then they moved inland when steam power was invented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what were the conditions like in textile factories?

A
  • 12+ hours per day
  • poor light
  • little ventilation
  • very hot temperatures
  • dangerous machines, led to lots of injuries (especially for children)
  • harsh overseers (supervisors)
  • physically demanding labour
  • dusty and dirty, led to lung disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what were the conditions like in coalmines?

A
  • hazardous due to the new depths of the mines (steam power allowed them to pump water away and create deeper mines)
  • little ventilations
  • explosive gases, led to cave ins
  • physically demanding labour
  • lung disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what year was the Mines Act created?

A

1842

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what did the Mines Act prevent?

A

it prevented women and girls from working in the mines, and prevented boys under 10 from working in the mines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what was the lead-up to the creation of the Mines Act?

A

a 2 year investigation into the conditions in the mines + interviews with the miners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

why was it normal practise for children to work in the 18th century?

A
  • they helped support the family income
  • they were supervised by their parents
  • they worked in safe conditions
  • they worked at home with their other siblings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

why did more children than adults work in cotton mills/textile factories?

A
  • they were cheaper to hire (were owed a lower wage)
  • they were easier to control (they didn’t have the strength to fight back/protest against their wages or working conditions)
  • they were able to do dangerous jobs that required small hands and bodies (e.g. crawling underneath/around big machinery)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what did children work as in textile factories?

A
  • piecers: climbed around machines to tie up loose thread that broke
  • scavengers: climbed under machines to collect scraps/loose thread
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what did children work as in the mines?

A
  • hurriers: pulled/carried large loads of coal along mines or up ladders
  • trappers: sat alone in the dark and opened/closed doors hurriers were going through
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what job could a child do other than work in factories or mines?

A

they could be employed as chimney sweeps, called ‘climbing boys’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what were the risks of children being employed as chimney sweeps?

A
  • they could choke on dust/soot
  • they could fall down the chimney
  • they could get stuck inside the chimney
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

where did towns and cities grow the most quickly?

A

near factories and mines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

cities where the population doubled between 1800-1830:

A
  • liverpool
  • manchester
  • leeds
  • glasgow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

who was in charge/had control over the cities and towns?

A

the wealthy factory and mine owners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what did factory/mine owners do to maximise their profits?

A

built houses as cheaply as possible and rented them out to their workers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what was missing in the cheaply built, one room houses of the industrial rev.?

A

bathrooms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

why were there no bathrooms in industrial rev. houses?

A

there was no water supply for toilets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what happened to the streets due to the lack of bathrooms in houses?

A

the narrow streets of the time had poor drainage, and they were filled with rubbish and raw sewrage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what did ‘nightmen’ do?

A

men who emptied the cesspools of raw sewrage and garbage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is a cesspool?

A

a pit that buckets/chamber pots were emptied into

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

how did water-borne disease begin spreading during the industrial rev.?

A

cesspools of rubbish and human waste overflowed and leaked into rivers and wells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

examples of water-borne diseases from the industrial rev.:

A

cholera and typhus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

how many British and Irish convicts were transported to Australia between 1788 and 1868?

A

160,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what minor crimes led to the punishment of transportation?

A
  • pickpocketing
  • petty theft
  • forgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

why was there widespread unemployment?

A

because, due to the new inventions, less people were required to work, so there weren’t enough jobs for everyone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

how did the widespread unemployment lead to an increase in crime?

A
  • gambling and alcohol were used as a form escape from the bad reality
  • people had to commit petty crime to survive (e.g. stealing a loaf of bread so their family could eat)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what was the government response to the high crime rate?

A

to make punishments harsher, as a deterrent from crime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

how many crimes resulted in the death penalty?

A

200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

why did the government making punishments harsher not reduce the crime rate?

A

because public hangings became entertainment for the people instead of a deterrent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

where were convicts sent in the 1700’s?

A

America

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

why could convicts no longer be sent to the British colonies in America?

A
  • America had a preference for slaves, not convicts, because they were easier to control
  • America had recently gained independence from the British and didn’t want to take their convicts anymore
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what did the British use as prisons because of the jail overcrowding?

A

old, unused ships called ‘hulks’, but eventually these floating prisons became crowded as well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

when did Captain Cook chart most of the eastern coast of Australia?

A

1770

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

who supported the idea of transportation to NSW?

A

a botanist named Joseph Banks supported the idea of creating a colony located at Botany Bay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what were the pros for the British of creating a new penal colony in Australia?

A
  • they had just lost the American colonies so now they could replace them with Australian ones
  • it could give them a military and imperial presence in the south pacific region (more land, more people, more resources, more power)
  • they could make it a penal colony and send the convicts from the overcrowded prisons and hulks there
  • the convicts could build the colony for free
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what year did the First Fleet leave England?

A

1787

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

how many ships were in the First Fleet?

A

11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

how far was the voyage to Australia?

A

20,000km

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

who led the First Fleet?

A

Captain Arthur Phillip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

how many people were on board the First Fleet?

A

1500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

how many convicts were on board the First Fleet and what was the ratio of men to women?

A

759 convicts total, ratio = 3 men : 1 woman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

why was Botany Bay not a good choice for a colony?

A
  • the soil wasn’t suitable for planting crops

- the bay was too shallow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

where did the settlement move after discovering Botany Bay was a bad choice?

A

a bay further north of Botany Bay named Port Jackson, later renamed Sydney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what day was the new colony in Port Jackson officially procliamed?

A

January 26th 1788 -> Australia Day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

why did the colony have a rough start?

A

crops failed, leading to food shortages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

how did the settlement survive with little food?

A

they had to ration their food, and then the Second Fleet thankfully arrived with more supplies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

where did the colony find better soil?

A

at the edge of the colony, now called Parramatta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

why was it safe for NSW to be an open-air prison (no chains/gates)?

A
  • it was isolated
  • it was surrounded by bush
  • it was on a foreign country
    therefore, the convicts had nowhere to escape to
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what were the harsh conditions faced by the convicts?

A
  • hot climate (unlike the climate in England)
  • physcially hard labour (building roads, farms, buildings, etc.)
  • little food/rationed food (food crops failed)
  • threat of secondary punishment for being unmanageable and defiant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what were some of the secondary punishments that convicts faced if they rebelled and didn’t cooperate?

A
  • sent to isolated prisons (e.g. Port Arthur, Norfolk Island)
  • floggings and beatings
  • hard labour
  • isolation and hoods to strip individuality and connectedness among the convicts (psychological punishment)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

why did many convicts get tattoos?

A

so they could be seen as an individual instead of just a number/a convict

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

2 success stories of convicts:

A
  • Mary Reiby - a convicts who became a respected/wealthy businesswoman
  • Francis Greenway - a convict who went on to design many famous buildings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what is the definition of a push factor in the context of transportation to Australia?

A

a factor that made people want to leave England/their country

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what is the definition of a pull factor in the context of transportation to Australia?

A

a factor that made people want to come to Australia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

examples of push factors for free settlers away from England/Ireland/Europe:

A
  • Europe: wars and revolutions
  • Britain: industrial rev. (unemployment, rising rents, rising taxes, conditions in factories and mines, overcrowded and unhygienic cities, disease and pollution)
  • Ireland: famine (potato crop failed)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

examples of pull factors for free settlers towards Australia:

A
  • assisted migration (the gov. helped with the cost of transport)
  • seen as a way to make money (the colonies needed good tradespeople and businessmen)
  • the government gave land grants and free convict labour to migrants
  • money would go further in Australia (it had more value)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

how long did the voyage to Australia take?

A

4 and a half months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what percent of people were in steerage class on the ships?

A

90%

76
Q

what were the conditions like in steerage class on the ships?

A

confined, crowded, and smelly

77
Q

what did the free settlers do while they were on board the ships?

A
  • they socialised with all different types of people and created friendships and bonds
  • however, there were lots of fights on board too
78
Q

what did the free settlers have to do when they arrived in Australia?

A

they had to find work and support their families

79
Q

what problem did free settlers deal with?

A

they dealt with homesickness (it took a whole year to send a letter and receive a reply)

80
Q

what did the colonies adopt the British attitudes towards?

A

class, gender, and religion, however these attitudes changed over time

81
Q

what does egalitarian mean?

A

equal, not determined by social classes

82
Q

what does stratified mean?

A

based on classes/social hierarchy

83
Q

when did Captain Cook name NSW and claim it for King George III of England?

A

1770

84
Q

who was the first governer of NSW

A

Captain Arthur Phillip

85
Q

what were the orders to the colony from Britain in regards to the Aboriginal people?

A

to cultivate friendly relations with them and offer them protection under British law

86
Q

what does terra nullius mean?

A

it is a latin term for ‘unused or wasted lands’ that could be taken without permission

87
Q

why did the British think that Australia was unused/wasted land?

A

because the Aboriginal people, depsite having a strong connection with the land, didn’t use it in the same way that the British would’ve used it

88
Q

why did the British think that Australia was unused/wasted land?

A

because the Aboriginal people, depsite having a strong connection with the land, didn’t use it in the same way that the British would’ve used it (e.g. farming, buildings, roads, etc.)

89
Q

what did the British use the land for?

A

crop farming and sheep grazing

90
Q

what did the Aborigines think about the British taking and using the land?

A

they saw it as stealing and breaking the Aboriginal laws connected to land; they saw the British as ‘invaders’

91
Q

what are some examples of Aboriginal laws connected to land?

A
  • clearing land
  • fencing off water holes and hunting grounds
  • fishing without permission
  • trampling sacred sites
92
Q

what were the main British attitudes towards the Aborigines?

A
  • the British saw them as ‘noble savages’ (primitive people who live in harmony with the natural world)
  • most British people didn’t understand the Aboriginal way of life or why they behaved differently from them
93
Q

what did Arthur Phillip do to try and create a relationship with the Aborigines?

A

he kidnapped them and tried to make them British

94
Q

examples of Aborigines who were kidnapped by Arthur Phillip and what happened to them:

A
  • Arabanoo: died of smallpox within 6 months
  • Colebee: escaped
  • Bennelong: sent to England, then returned to Australia, but couldn’t fit into the white culture or back into the Aboriginal culture
95
Q

what was the effect of pushing the Aborigines off their land?

A
  • fights over land
  • constant retaliation after attacks
  • deaths on both sides (Aboriginal and British)
96
Q

what diseases did many Aborigines die from?

A
  • small pox
  • whooping cough
  • influenza
97
Q

why did Aborigines die from diseases so often?

A

because they weren’t used to/hadn’t ever been exposed to the diseases that the white settlers were bringing from Europe, so they didn’t have any built up immunity from them

98
Q

by the end of the 19th century, who controlled most of the land?

A

the white settlers, however, this had led to a lot of bloodshed

99
Q

which British group was mainly involved in the conflict and why?

A

the squatters (farmers) who were given land grants from the British government were in conflict with the Aboriginal people, because both groups believed that the land belonged to them

100
Q

how did the British attack the Aborigines?

A

they shot them and/or posioned them

101
Q

what did John Batmam end up doing when he went to find good grazing land at Port Phillip Bay?

A

he signed a treaty with the Kulin people and was given land in exchange for clothes, blankets, tools, etc.

102
Q

was John Batman’s treaty a fair exchange and why/why not?

A

it wasn’t a fair exchange because the Aboriginal people didn’t need any clothes or tools, they had already been surviving and making their own long before the white settlers came, however, due to terra nullius, the land could have been taken without giving anything in return, so at least they were being acknowledged

103
Q

when did Melbourne become the centre of the new colony of Victoria?

A

1851

104
Q

how many Kulin people were alive in 1863?

A

250

105
Q

what year was the Myall Creek Massacre?

A

1838

106
Q

where did the Myall Creek Massacre take place?

A

northern NSW

107
Q

who died at the Myall Creek Massacre and who killed them?

A

approximately 30 Aboriginal women, children, and elderly men were killed by a group of convicts

108
Q

what did the Myall Creek Massacre lead to?

A

it resulted in the first ever group of white settlers being found guilty and subsequently hanged for the murder of Aborigines

109
Q

why were the convicts found guilty in the Myall Creek Massacre/what made it different from other attacks on Aborigines?

A
  • because there were children being murdered

- because the murderers were convicts, not free settlers

110
Q

after the Myall Creek Massacre, did the attacks on Aborigines come to an end?

A

they didn’t stop, however, before the Myall Creek Massacre, the settlers would openly speak/brag about their murders, but after, they kept them secrets

111
Q

why were Aboriginal attacks kept secret after the Myall Creek Massacre?

A

because the people now knew that they could actually be found guilty for the murders, and they didn’t want to be hanged

112
Q

how many people were killed during the constant conflicts between the European settlers and the Aborigines?

A

2,000 white settlers and 20,000 Aborigines

113
Q

how long did massacres between white and Aboriginal people continue for?

A

until the 20th century

114
Q

when was the last instance of a massacre of Aboriginal people?

A

in the 1920’s in WA and NT

115
Q

when was proposed federation of the 6 British colonies debated?

A

1880 - 1900

116
Q

before Federation, how were the colonies governed?

A

each colony had it’s own independent government

117
Q

what kinds of laws differed from colony to colony before Federation?

A
  • trade and tariff laws
  • postal services
  • railway line widths
  • telegraph systems
  • defence forces
118
Q

what would federation mean for the states?

A

that a national government would take over certain areas of law-making, however some power would remain with the states

119
Q

who was Henry Parkes?

A

the 5 times premier of NSW who gave an extremely long speech (the Tenterfield Oration) in 1889 to advocate for Federation

120
Q

what was Henry Parkes’ stance on Federation?

A

he wanted Australia to federate

121
Q

why were initial attempts to become a Federation rejected?

A
  • it was believed it wouldn’t be democratic
  • it was believed it would prevent regular people from having a say in their government
  • Australia was in a bad economic state at the time, and they were more focused on fixing their economy than on federating
122
Q

what role did Alfred Deakin play in Australia becoming a Federation?

A

he convinced the colonies to hold a vote for Federation and give it another chance after the previous rejections

123
Q

what is a constitution?

A

a set of rules by which a country or state is run

124
Q

when/where was the Australian Constitution drafted?

A

at a series of constitutional conventions held in the 1890’s

125
Q

who attended the constitutional conventions?

A

representatives/the premiers of each colony, including a representative of New Zealand

126
Q

when was the national referendum held to approve the Constitution?

A

in June 1899

127
Q

which was the last colony to hold a referendum to approve the Constitution and when did they hold it?

A

WA, and they held their referendum in 1900 instead of 1899 like the other colonies

128
Q

who passed the Constitution and what law was it a part of?

A

the British Parliament passed it as part of the Commonwealth of Australia Constitution Act 1900

129
Q

when did the Act signifying federation of Australia take affect?

A

January 1st, 1901

130
Q

was Australia completely seperate from the British after Federation?

A

no, they were still a part of the British Commonwealth

131
Q

who is the Queen’s representative in Australia?

A

the Governer General

132
Q

when was the first Federal election held?

A

in March 1901 over 2 days

133
Q

who was the first Prime Minister of Australia?

A

Edmund Barton

134
Q

when/where did the first Commonwealth Parliament open in Melbourne?

A

May 9th, 1901, at the Royal Exhibition Building

135
Q

why did Parliament eventually move to Canberra?

A

because both Sydney and Melbourne wanted to be the capital’s of Australia, and ACT is halfway between them both

136
Q

what are some reasons that people wanted Federation?

A
  • a united defence force for the country would help prevent invasion
  • promoting Australia as a united country made it more attractive to overseas investors, improving the economy
  • Federation would mean the abolition of inter-colonial tariffs (taxes) and this would promote trade within the colonies, improving the economy
  • a standardized rail size could be decided on
  • Federation made a common immigration policy possible (because most of the colonies agreed that Australia should be kept white)
  • a sense of Australian nationalism and identity was growing (80% of the population were native-born Australians by 1890) and many people wanted to become an independent country
137
Q

what are some reasons that people didn’t want Federation?

A
  • the smaller colonies (QLD, SA, WA, Tas) were worried that they would have less of a say in how they were run
  • Vic and NSW both wanted to be capital of Australia, causing conflict between them
  • some colonies (Vic) didn’t want to abolish inter-colonial tariffs because they wanted financial security
  • in SA and WA, women had earned the right to vote, but in all the other colonies they hadn’t, so they were worried that they were going to lose this right in Federation
  • the economy in QLD relied on labour from Pacific Islanders, but the other colonies wanted Australia to remain white, meaning they would create stricter immigration laws and the QLD economy would suffer
  • many people were not interested in Federation/saw it as a matter only for the upper class (the country was going through an economic depression so people were also more worried about surviving than federating)
138
Q

define ‘federal’

A

a system of government in which power is distributed between a central authority and a number of states where they deal with internal affairs

139
Q

define ‘democracy’

A

power is vested in the people, who either rule directly or through freely elected representatives to govern on their behalf

140
Q

define ‘parliament’

A

the group of (usually) elected politicians or other people who make the laws for their country; a formal conference for discussion of public affairs

141
Q

define ‘constitution’

A

a very important legal document that outlines the way a country should be run

142
Q

define ‘bicameral’

A

a government structure involving two houses, or two legislative bodies, that are separate in deliberation from one another

143
Q

define ‘executive’

A

the members of parliament that are part of the ruling political party; they form the government

144
Q

define ‘legislature’

A

the law-making branch of government

145
Q

define ‘judiciary’

A

the courts of law; the branch of the government that enforces law and punishes those who go against the law

146
Q

define ‘government’

A

the group of people with the authority to govern a country or state; a particular ministry in office

147
Q

define ‘governer general’

A

the chief representative of the Crown in a Commonwealth country of which the British monarch is head of state

148
Q

define ‘cabinet’

A

the committee of senior ministers responsible for controlling government policy

149
Q

define ‘minister’

A

the Prime Minister and ministers—also called the minister are who lead and manage government departments and are responsible for putting into action government policy and the laws made by the Parliament

150
Q

define ‘member of Parliament’

A

a person who has been elected by the people in a particular area to represent them in a country’s Parliament

151
Q

define ‘house of representatives’

A

the Federal lower house, consisting of 151 elected members of Parliament (one from each electorate) who represent the voters from their area, and have the power to make laws (along with the senate)

152
Q

define ‘senate’

A

one of the two houses of the Australian Federal Parliament. It consists of 76 senators, twelve from each of the six states and two from each of the mainland territories, who have the power to make laws (along with the house of representatives)

153
Q

define ‘referendum’

A

a vote in which all people in a country or an area are asked to give their opinion about or decide an important political or social question

154
Q

define ‘legislation’

A

laws, and the process of making or enacting laws

155
Q

define ‘bill’

A

a proposal for law or legislation, that is introduced into parliament; it is must be passed by both the house of representatives and the senate before it can become law

156
Q

define ‘act’

A

a written law passed by Parliament

157
Q

define ‘royal assent’

A

a bill passed by the Australian Parliament does not become an Act until it is formally accepted by the Governor-General; this particular process for making laws is referred to as royal assent

158
Q

define ‘electorate’

A

a certain area within a country that consists of approximately 100,000 voters; each electorate has an elected representative in the government (house of representatives)

159
Q

define ‘candidate’

A

a person who is seeking to be considered for a position, especially a government position; for example, Federal election candidates might campaign for the position of Prime Minister

160
Q

define ‘absolute majority’

A

an absolute majority consists of more than half of the total votes of all those eligible to vote; in a house of Parliament, an absolute majority requires one more than half of the votes of the total number of members of the house, whether they are present or not

161
Q

define ‘preferential voting’

A

a type of vote where the voters indicate their order of preference for each of the candidates; this way, if everyone’s first preferences reveal no clear winner (nobody has the majority of votes), then the second preferences can be counted, and so on until a winner prevails

162
Q

define ‘first past the post voting’

A

a “plurality” voting system; the candidate who wins the most votes is elected

163
Q

what are the 3 levels of government?

A

local, state, and federal

164
Q

what type of government is Australia under?

A

a consitutional monarchy

165
Q

what rights are supported in Australia?

A

freedom of speech, freedom of the press, freedom of religion, freedome of association

166
Q

what was one of the measures that was put into place to balance state and federal powers?

A

the Constitution officially divided powers between the state and federal parliaments, ensuring that there was no overlap in their jurisdiction

167
Q

what are some things that the federal government has control over?

A
  • medicare
  • defence
  • immigration
  • foreign policy
168
Q

what are some things that the state government has control over?

A
  • roads
  • housing
  • prisons
  • public transport
169
Q

what are some things that the local government has control over?

A
  • town planning
  • sewerage
  • rubish collection
  • local roads
170
Q

if there is conflict over who has control of a certain part of the law, which government takes control?

A

the Constitution states that federal law overrules state law

171
Q

who is the head of state in Commonwealth countries?

A

the Queen

172
Q

how many seats are in the senate?

A

76

173
Q

how many seats are in the house of representatives?

A

151

174
Q

how many votes electorates does a political party have to win in order to win the election?

A

76 (half the electorates plus 1)

175
Q

who becomes the prime minster after an election?

A

the leader of the winning political party

176
Q

what is the westminster parliamentary system?

A
  • the monarch is the Head of State (but the Governer General is their rep. in Australia)
  • it is bicameral, meaning there are 2 houses of Parliament (an upper house and a lower house)
177
Q

how often are elections for the members of the house of representatives?

A

every 3 years

178
Q

who makes up the senate?

A

76 elected members, 12 from each state and 2 from each territory

179
Q

what are electorate sizes based on?

A

population (100,000 voters in each electorate) not land mass

180
Q

how is government formed?

A

government is formed by the political party who wins a majority of seats in the lower house (at least 76 seats); the leader of this political party becomes the prime minister.

181
Q

how does a bill become an act?

A
  • the bill is introduced to the lower house, where it is read, debated, and voted on
  • once the bill is passed by the lower house, it’s introduced to the upper house, where it’s once again read, debated, and voted on
  • the bill then returns to the lower house for a final vote and approval
  • then royal assent must be given by the governer general for it to become an act of parliament so it can officially become law
182
Q

what are the types of voting systems?

A

first past the post voting and preferential voting

183
Q

what are the 3 levels of government?

A

local, federal, and state

184
Q

what are the 3 arms of government?

A

executive, legislative, judiciary

185
Q

how does first past the post voting work?

A

the candidate with the most votes wins

186
Q

how does preferential voting work?

A

voters order the candidates from first to last preference. the 1 votes are counted. the candidate has to receive 50% + 1 (an absolute majority) of the votes to win. if no candidate receives this on the first count, then the candidate with the last 1 votes is eliminated, and the 2 votes on their ballot papers are redistributed to the other candidates. this continues until 1 candidate receives an absolute majority

History 2022 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions