Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

occupational performance, components and capacities > exam revision > Flashcards

exam revision Flashcards

1
Q

what is a person’s physical capacity?

A

musculoskeletal capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the concepts associated with bones, joints, and muscle?

A

-joint ROM
-strength
endurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is joint ROM?

A

amount of motion available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the strength of muscle?

A

the ability of muscles to produce tension for maintaining postural control and moving body parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is endurance?

A

ability to sustain effort overtime required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

does AROM client lead?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

does PROM client lead?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

is AROM greater than PROM?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are some biomechanical influences on ROM?

A
  • muscle weakness
  • tendon ruptures
  • adhesions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are some personal causes that influence ROM?

A
  • pain
  • fear of injury
  • fatigue
  • time of day
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is an environmental influence on ROM?

A

temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

when is ROM affected?

A
  • trauma
  • oedema
  • immobilization
  • muscle weakness
  • pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are some intervention strategies when ROM is decreased?

A
  • if due to tightness: stretching
  • if oedema: compression/elevation
  • splinting may help contracture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is an intervention strategy when there is weakness in muscle groups?

A

increase stress through resistance, duration, rate/speed, and frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is work hardening?

A

individualised approach aimed at returning people to work, simulated work tasks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the worker role interview based on?

A

MOHO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what type of interview is the worker role interview?

A

semi-structured interview with 16 item rating scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how are the 16 items of the WRI rated?

A

implications of each for the likelihood of work success

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the WRIs use in practice?

A

assess impacts of personal causation, values, interests, roles, habits, and perception of enviro on the potential of a return to work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the 4 point rating scale for the 16 items of WRI?

A
  • strongly supports
  • supports
  • interferes
  • significantly interferes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how long does the WRI approximately take?

A

30-60mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the work environment impact scale (WEIS) designed to gather information on?

A

info on people with physical/psychosocial disability in work enviros

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is WEIS based on?

A

MOHO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the WEISs use in practice?

A

assess features that support/impede performance, satisfaction, and wellbeing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how many topics is the WEIS organized around?

A

17 enviro factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what 4 point scale ratings does the WEIS use?

A

SS, S, I, SI,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how long approx does the WEIS take to administer?

A

30-60mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the assessment of work performance based on?

A

MOHO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what does the assessment of work performance measure?

A

individuals observable work-related skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what 3 domains are the 14 skills assessed by the AWP?

A

motor, process, communication/interaction skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are motor skills related to?

A
  • posture
  • mobility
  • coordination
  • strength
  • energy use
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are process skills related to?

A
  • knowledge
  • temporal organisation
  • space and objects
  • energy
  • adaption
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are communication and interaction skills related to?

A
  • physicality
  • language
  • relations
  • information
  • exchange
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the AWPs use in practice?

A

assesses the performance of motor, process, and communication/interaction skills in work activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what does occupational analysis explore the relationship between?

A
  • occupation itself
  • person
  • contexts surrounding occupational participation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what does activity analysis not consider?

A

all aspects and contexts of person, groups/communities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what does the top-down approach first focus on?

A

outcome or overall goal first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the process involved in a top-down approach?

A
  • identify abilities
  • understand strengths/weaknesses
  • assessment of capacities that support performance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is the process involved in the bottom-up approach?

A
  • start with underlying capacities

- goal to improve those

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is occupation-as-means activity related to restoring?

A

capabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what does occupation-as-end activity enable?

A

independent performance to fulfil life roles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is grading activities?

A

sequentially increasing/decreasing activity demands for improvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what may adapting information involve?

A
  • modifying
  • reducing/increasing demands
  • use of assistive devices
  • changing physical/social demands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what are some reasons for adapting activity?

A
  • modify to make therapeutic
  • graduate exercise to accomplish goals
  • enable person to do what they usually do
  • prevent trauma injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what are some guidelines for managing fatigue?

A
  • pacing
  • planning ahead
  • use correct equip
  • use efficient methods and posture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is acquired brain injury occurred due to?

A

occurs when the brain becomes damaged through trauma, stroke, infection, tumor, lack of oxygen, substance abuse, degenerative neurological disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is traumatic brain injury induced by?

A

induced by structural injury and/or physiological disruption of brain function as result of external force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is ABI?

A

permanent change to bran structure/function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is the mild form of ABI?

A

cerebral contusions that manifest as concussion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what does mild form of ABI result in?

A

mild problems with memory and self regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what occurs in severe ABI?

A

coma with non recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is motor control?

A

ability to regulate or direct mechanisms essential to movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what does cortical damage lead to?

A

tonal change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what does subcortical damage affect?

A

quality of movement (dystonias)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what can cerebellar lesions result in?

A
  • ataxia
  • hyptonia
  • disequiillibrum
  • dysmetria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what is ataxia?

A

wide based gate, poorly controlled movement, intention tremor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is hypotonia?

A

low tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is dysmetria?

A

target accuracy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what is disdiaokinesia?

A

poorly coordinated rapid alternating movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what is disequilibrium?

A

reduced balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what can result from basal ganglia lesions?

A
  • bradykineasia
  • resting tremor
  • dystonia including rigidity
  • ballistic movement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what is bradykineasia?

A

slowness in carrying out movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what is spasticity?

A

motor disorder characterised by velocity-dependent increase in tonic stretch reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is contracture?

A

shortening of soft tissue results in joint ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what is muscle tone?

A

resistance of muscle to passive elongation or stretching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what is hypertonia?

A

more than normal resistance of muscle to passive elongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what is hypertonicity?

A

increase in tone/more than normal resistance of muscle to elongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what is the glascow coma scale?

A

gauge severity of acute brain injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what is the severe score in glascow coma scale?

A

8 or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what is the moderate score in glascow coma scale?

A

9-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what is the mild score in glascow coma scale?

A

13-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what does PTA effect?

A
  • disorientation
  • disinterested/distractible
  • difficulty with thinking, concentration and memory
  • anxiety, agitation and rapid mood changes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

when is PTA usually over?

A

when patient begins to retain info and continuous memory returns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what does a 0 on the modified ashworth scale represent for muscle tone?

A

no increase in muscle tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what does a 1 on the modified ashworth scale represent for muscle tone?

A

slight increase, manifested by minimal resistance at end of ROM in flexion/extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what does a 1+ on the modified ashworth scale represent for muscle tone?

A

a slight increase, manifested by minimal resistance throughout remainder of ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what does a 2 on the modified ashworth scale represent for muscle tone?

A

more marked increase, throughout most ROM, easily moved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what does a 3 on the modified ashworth scale represent for muscle tone?

A

considerable increase, passive movement difficult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what does a 4 on the modified ashworth scale represent for muscle tone?

A

affected part rigid in flexion/extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what items are assessed by Tardieu scale?

A
  • intensity of resistance to muscle strength
  • angle at which catch is first appreciated
  • differences noted when muscle is stretched at different velocities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what does neuroplasticity mean?

A

brain continues to respond to changes in behavioural demands over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what areas should be assessed for cognitive impairments following PTA?

A
  • attention
  • visuospatial
  • executive function
  • langauge, social communication
  • social cognition
  • learning/memory
  • awareness of impairments
  • expression of emotion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what are some common and challenging behaviours associated with brain injury?

A
  • verbal/physical aggression
  • inappropriate sexual behaviour
  • wandering
  • risk-taking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what are five principles for effective behavior management of brain injury??

A
  • manage: day to day rather than fix
  • structure and routine
  • consistency
  • add positives
  • seek assistance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

why should OTs measure muscle strength?

A
  • impacts daily occupations
  • communication
  • detection of change
  • motivation
  • justify role
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what can impairment in cognition result from?

A
  • developmental; or learning disorders
  • brain injury
  • psychiatric dysfunction
  • socio-cultural conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

what are some higher level functions of cognition?

A

awareness and executive functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what are basic cognitive functions

A
  • attention
  • concentration
  • memory
  • perception of spatial relations
  • visual attention
  • thinking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what areas of cognition are impaired in dementia?

A

-language
-memory
-perception
-personality
cognitive skills

90
Q

what are the most common forms of dementia?

A
  • alzheimer’s
  • vascular dementia
  • dementia with Lewy bodies
  • front temporal dementia
91
Q

what are some risk factors for dementia?

A
  • TIA/stroke
  • repeated head trauma
  • prolonged hypertension
  • uncontrolled diabetes
  • atrial fibrillation
92
Q

what are some early indications of dementia?

A
  • forgetfulness
  • language problems
  • mood swings/behavioural changes
  • loss of initiative
93
Q

what are the areas that must have decline in one or more for diagnosis of dementia on DSM-5?

A
  • complex attention
  • executive functions
  • learning and memory
  • language
  • perceptual-motor
  • social
94
Q

what is Alzheimer’s categorised by the presence of?

A

plaques and tangles

95
Q

what are the second stage characteristics of dementia?

A
  • behavioural disturbances
  • repetitive
  • confused
  • behave inappropriate
96
Q

what are the third and last stage characteristics of dementia?

A
  • loss of independence
  • altered perception and social relationships
  • physical problems
97
Q

what are some demands of dementia on carers?

A
  • exhaustion
  • sadness
  • mental health issues
  • role changes
98
Q

what makes a good team?

A
  • shared load
  • collaboration
  • flexibility
  • trust
  • team decision making
99
Q

what makes a poor team?

A
  • difficulty speaking up
  • differing level of effort
  • reliance on self discipline
  • no space to learn, lack of reinforcement
100
Q

what are the five stages of Tuckman’s model of team development?

A
  • forming
  • storming
  • norming
  • performing
  • adjourning
101
Q

what are some factors that inhibit group decision-making?

A
  • lack of maturity
  • social loafing
  • free riding
  • group think
  • poor conflict management
  • inappropriate group size
102
Q

how can social loafing be reduced?

A
  • member’s contributions are identifiable
  • strong incentive
  • cohesiveness
  • goals meaningful and challenging
103
Q

what professionals make up a stroke unit team?

A
  • neurologist
  • nurse
  • OT
  • physio
  • speech pathologist
  • social worker
  • dietician
104
Q

what are the OTs role in acute stroke management?

A
  • assessment
  • intervention
  • discharge planning
105
Q

what time frame is an initial assessment conducted with stroke?

A

1 day

106
Q

what does stroke initial assessment involve?

A

allied health pre-morbid and OT initial assessment

107
Q

what aspects are involved in an allied health pre-morbid assessment for stroke?

A
  • previous health status
  • home enviro
  • previous function/ADLs
  • social history
108
Q

what aspects are involved in an OT initial assessment for stroke?

A
  • current physical status
  • plan
  • goals
  • cognition/perception/behaviour
  • OPIs
109
Q

what are the guidelines for vision screening assessment of stroke?

A

those with difficulty recognising objects should be screened and if deficit is found refer to comprehensive assessment

110
Q

what visual screening assessment should all stroke survivors have?

A
  • assessment of visual acuity to see newspaper and distant objects
  • presence of visual filed and eye movement deficits
111
Q

what are the guidelines for upper limb assessment for stroke?

A

upper limb training should commence early

112
Q

what is the none hole peg test for stroke developed to measure?

A

finger dexterity

113
Q

what sensations should be tested in a hand assessment for stroke?

A
  • cutaneous
  • hot/cold discrimination
  • proprioception
  • coordination
114
Q

how can cutaneous sensation be assessed?

A
  • random tactile stimuli to forearm and hand patient indicate when recognized
  • localisation tested by closing eyes and pointing to the area being touched
115
Q

how is proprioception of hand assessed?

A
  • demonstrate thumb up/down

- patient distinguishes between thumb positions

116
Q

how is digit opposition coordination assessed for stroke?

A

each finger touching in succession

117
Q

how are rapid alternating movements of coordination assessed for stroke?

A

position hand on knee, rapid alternating supination/pronation

118
Q

what is sustained attention?

A

maintain focus on relevant info without interference from irrelevant stimuli

119
Q

what is selective attention?

A

maintains attention in presence of conflicting sensory info

120
Q

what is alternating attention?

A

moves attention flexibly between tasks and respond to demands of task

121
Q

what is divided attention?

A

responds simultaneously to two or more tasks

122
Q

what are some conditions that may impair attention?

A
  • hypoxic brain damage
  • TBI
  • stroke
  • cerebral tumour
  • dementia
  • mental health issues
123
Q

how does the midbrain reticular activating system affect attention?

A
  • arousal
  • mood
  • motivation
  • sustained attention
  • vigilance
124
Q

how does the parieto-temporo-occipital area affect attention?

A

-orientating
-engaging/disengaging
object recognition

125
Q

how does the frontal lobes, anterior cingulate gyrus and basal ganglia affect attention?

A
  • response selection
  • intentional control
  • active switching/inhibiting
  • strategies for manipulating info
126
Q

how does the right hemisphere affect attention?

A
  • mediates alertness and sustained attention

- detecting/interpreting full visual field

127
Q

how does the left hemisphere affect attention?

A

selective or focused attention

128
Q

what are the primary areas of each lobe associated with?

A

PSC processes primary sensory and motor input

129
Q

what are the secondary areas of each lobe associated with?

A

integration of incoming stimuli with adjacent areas

130
Q

what are the tertiary areas of each lobe associated with?

A

complex integration of sensory input with other modalities and lobes

131
Q

what is unilateral neglect?

A

lateral disorder of spatial cognition and space-related behaviour

132
Q

what do people with uni-lateral neglect usually fail to respond to?

A

stimuli occurring on side of space opposite to lesioned hemisphere

133
Q

what occurs in neglect of the primary area of parietal lobe?

A

self and personal self

134
Q

what occurs in neglect of the secondary area of parietal lobe?

A

immediate enviro and less complex reactions

135
Q

what occurs in neglect of the tertiary area of parietal lobe?

A

interpretation of complex enviro input

136
Q

what are the levels of assessment OTs must attend to for unilateral neglect?

A
  • personal (self and sensations)
  • peripersonal (reaching)
  • extrapersonal (locomotor space)
137
Q

what are some subtests of the Behavioural Inattention Test?

A
  • star cancellation

- line crossing and bisection

138
Q

what are some implications of neglect on mobility?

A
  • does not symmetrically weight-bear while standing
  • difficulty initiating movement on left
  • difficulty completing left turns
139
Q

what are some implications of neglect on daily activities?

A
  • fail to dress/groom left half of body
  • ignores food on left side
  • may complete activity in half space available
  • overly attentive to items on right
140
Q

what is the aim if the cognistat?

A

assess intellectual function

141
Q

what domains are assessed by cognistat?

A
  • attention, level of consciousness, orientation
  • language
  • constructions
  • memory
  • calculations
  • reasoning
142
Q

what is the aim of the RBMT-II?

A

detect impairment of everyday memory functioning and to monitor treatment

143
Q

what domains are assessed by the RBMT-II?

A
  • short-term
  • long-term
  • prospective
  • semantic memory
144
Q

what are the aims of LOTCA?

A

assess cognitive performance as baseline

145
Q

what are the domains assessed by the LOTCA?

A
  • orientation
  • visual/spatial perception
  • motor praxis
  • visuo-motor organisation
  • thinking
146
Q

what functional impairment is affected by in tetraplegia?

A

arms, trunk and legs

147
Q

what is a complete spinal cord injury?

A

absence of sensory or motor function in lowest sacral segments

148
Q

what is an incomplete spinal cord injury?

A

only used when there is a partial preservation of sensory or motor function below neurological level and including sacral segment

149
Q

what is central cord syndrome?

A

incomplete injury, centre cord damaged, more weakness in upper limbs

150
Q

what is brown-sequard syndrome?

A

half of cord damaged causing ipsilateral loss of proprioception and motor function; contralateral loss of pain and temp

151
Q

what is anterior cord syndrome?

A

front of cord damaged resulting in variable loss of motor and sensory function, preservation of proprioception

152
Q

what is conus medullaris syndrome?

A

damage to sacral cord and lumbar nerve roots, impaired bladder, bowel and lower limb function

153
Q

what is cauda equina syndrome?

A

lower motor neuron injury to lumbar nerve roots, impaired bladder, bowel and lower limb function

154
Q

what are some secondary health conditions of spinal cord injury?

A
  • autonomic dysreflexia
  • postural hypotension
  • pressure sores
  • spasticity and spasm
  • pain
155
Q

what is autonomic dysreflexia as a secondary health condition of spinal cord injury?

A

dangerously high bp in response to noxious stimulus

156
Q

what is postural hypotension as a secondary health condition of spinal cord injury?

A

dangerously low bp as a result of lying down to upright too quickly

157
Q

what are pressure sores as a secondary health condition of spinal cord injury?

A

caused by constant pressure due to immobility

158
Q

what is spasticity and spasm as a secondary health condition of spinal cord injury?

A

hyperactive stretch reflex

159
Q

what are some barriers to social and community participation following spinal cord injury?

A
  • professionals help or hinder
  • social attitudes
  • enviro inaccessible
  • depression
160
Q

what are some facilitators to social and community participation following spinal cord injury?

A
  • adequate financial resources
  • social support
  • transport
161
Q

what are the main parts of a wheelchair?

A
  • frame
  • brakes
  • foot rests
  • arm rests
  • wheels
162
Q

what is newton’s 3rd law?

A

every action has an opposite and equal reaction

163
Q

what is normal force?

A

when force is perpendicular to material

164
Q

what is shear force?

A

parallel or tangential to face of material

165
Q

what does normal force in sitting compression?

A

means blood vessels, muscles, skin tissues are compressed, means oxygention of cells is reduced

166
Q

what does shear force result in?

A

causes rubbing of skin over bone, leads to sores which combined with compression leads to pressure injuries

167
Q

what are the common symptoms areas of ASD?

A
  • social
  • cognition
  • emotional
  • language
168
Q

what does the diagnosis of ASD rely on?

A

observation of behaviour and checklists/testing with diagnostic criteria

169
Q

what are the four criteria of the DSM V that must be met for ASD?

A
  • deficit in social communication
  • repetitive/restricted behaviour and interests
  • symptoms present in early childhood
  • limit daily functioning
170
Q

what are some other associated features that are present with ASD but not parr of diagnostic criteria DSM V?

A
  • gross/fine motor
  • sleep
  • sensory processing
  • diet
  • organisation skills
171
Q

what are some co-morbidities of ASD?

A
  • intellectual disability
  • depression
  • speech and language disorders
  • attention disorders
172
Q

what sensory processing occurs in frontal lobe?

A

emotions, judgement and voluntary movement

173
Q

what sensory processing occurs in temporal lobe?

A

hearing and memory

174
Q

what sensory processing occurs in the occipital lobe?

A

vision and reading

175
Q

what sensory processing occurs in parietal lobe?

A

sensory integration centres

176
Q

what is responsivity in ASD?

A

range within which sensory input is tolerated and used

177
Q

what are some tools for assessing sensory processing?

A
  • sensory profile 2
  • sensory processing measure (SPM) (preschool)
  • sensory integration and praxis test
178
Q

what is sensory profile 2?

A

family of assessments that provide tools to evaluate sensory processing patterns in context of home, school and community based activities

179
Q

what does the sensory profile 2 help determine?

A
  • identify how SP interferes
  • contribute info to assessment strengths and challenges in context
  • develop interventions
180
Q

who is the child sensory profile 2 for?

A

care-giver questionnaire for children 3-14

181
Q

what does the child sensory profile 2 measure?

A

sensory processing, modulation and emotional responses

182
Q

what are the four clusters of factors of the sensory profile 2?

A
  • poor registration
  • sensitivity to stimuli
  • sensation seeking
  • sensation avoiding
183
Q

what are the 4 areas of the adult sensory profile?

A
  • sensory seeking/avoiding
  • sensory sensitivity
  • low registration
184
Q

what are some disruptive features of low registration of sensory processing?

A
  • uninterested
  • dull affect
  • withdrawn
  • self absorbed
185
Q

what are some useful features of low registration of sensory processing?

A

high ability to focus and unaffected by varying enviros

186
Q

what are some disruptive features of sensory sensitivity of sensory processing?

A
  • distractible
  • hyperactive
  • vigilant
187
Q

what are some useful features of sensory sensitivity of sensory processing?

A

particular about task and high ability to notice enviro

188
Q

what are some disruptive features of sensory seeking of sensory processing?

A
  • active
  • fidgety
  • excitable
  • continuously engaging
189
Q

what are some useful features of sensory seeking of sensory processing?

A

generates ideas and notices/enjoys activity in enviro

190
Q

what are some disruptive features of sensory avoiding of sensory processing?

A

rule bound and rigid routines

191
Q

what are some useful features of sensory avoiding of sensory processing?

A

designs and implements structure and enjoys routine

192
Q

what are some parent observations common with children with sensory processing difficulties?

A
  • no sense of humour
  • avoids getting dirty
  • touches things
  • slow to respond to name
  • dislikes haircuts
193
Q

what are some things to consider when assessing children?

A
  • areas of development interrelated
  • parents experts on child’s ability
  • needs to be fun
  • performance influenced by experiences
194
Q

who typically completes COPM for children?

A

primary caregiver

195
Q

what are some functional goal-setting assessments for children?

A
  • Miller Function and Participation scales (M-FUN-PS)
  • school function assessments (kinder-year 6)
  • school AMPS (3-15yrs)
196
Q

what are some developmental goal-setting assessments for children?

A
  • developmental indicators of the assessment of. learning (DIAL4)
  • developmental profile 3 (DP-3)
197
Q

what does the DIAL4 measure for goal setting for children?

A

physical, adaptive behaviours: social-emotional, cognitive and communication

198
Q

what are some motor skills (fine and gross motor) for goal-setting assessments for children?

A
  • Bruininks-Osertesky test of motor proficency, 2nd Ed (BOT-2)
  • movement assessment battery for children (Movement ABC-2)
  • peabody developmental motor scales (PDMA-2)
199
Q

what age. is the sensory processing measure for?

A

preschoolers 2-5yrs

200
Q

what is an assessment tool for handwriting for children?

A

shore handwriting screener (early hand writing 3-7yrs)

201
Q

what is an assessment tool for visual ability for children?

A
  • developmental test of visual perception (DTVP-3)

- beery buktenica developmental test of visual motor integration (Beery VMI)

202
Q

what is an assessment tool for play skills for children?

A
  • symbolic and imaginative play developmental checklist (SIP-DC)
  • child-initiated pretend play assessment
203
Q

what age is the SIP-DC for play skills of children for?

A

1-5yrs

204
Q

what age is the child-initiated pretend play assessment for play skills of children for?

A

4-7yrs

205
Q

what is an assessment tool for ADLs for children?

A
  • the roll of evaluation of activities of life (REAL)
  • paediatric evaluation of disability inventory (PEDI
  • PEDI-CAT
206
Q

what age is the PEDI assessment for ADLs for?

A

6months- 7yrs

207
Q

what age is the PEDI-CAT assessment for ADLs for?

A

birth- 20yrs

208
Q

what does the M-FUN assess?

A
  • visual
  • fine
  • gross motor skills
209
Q

how long does the M-FUN take to complete?

A

45-65 mins

210
Q

what are some strengths of M-FUN?

A
  • enjoyable
  • sections scored independently
  • easy to follow
  • holistic understanding
211
Q

what are some weaknesses of M-FUN?

A
  • limited age range

- assessing and scoring at same time can be hard

212
Q

what are some subacute mental health services for adults?

A
  • prevention and recovery care service (PARC)

- community care unit (CCU)

213
Q

when was the national mental health strategy first launched?

A

1992

214
Q

what are the aims of the national mental health strategy?

A
  • reform service delivery
  • promote mental health
  • reduce impacts
  • assure rights of people
215
Q

what are some key principles embedded in practice standards in mental health?

A
  • promote QoL
  • value lived experience
  • recognise rights
  • involve people in decisions
  • tailor treatments to specific needs
216
Q

what does the CHIME stand for?

A
  • connectedness
  • hope and optimism
  • identity
  • meaning and purpose
  • empowerment
217
Q

what is connectedness as part of CHIME?

A
  • peer support
  • being part of community
  • relationships
218
Q

what are hope and optimism as a part of CHIME?

A
  • belief in recovery
  • motivation
  • positive thinking
219
Q

what is identity as part of CHIME?

A
  • individually defined
  • rebuilding identity
  • positive self identity
220
Q

what are meaning and purpose as part of CHIME?

A
  • rebuilding life
  • quality of life
  • spirituality
221
Q

what is empowerment as part of CHIME?

A
  • personal responsibility
  • control
  • focus on strengths

occupational performance, components and capacities (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions