Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Kinesiology Gr 12 > Exam Review > Flashcards

Exam Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is Anatomy?

A

The branch of science that deals with the structural organization of living organisms (how they are built and what they consist of)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Physiology?

A

The study of the functions of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Kinesiology?

A

The study of the dynamics of human movement and its components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are planes of movement?

A

Imaginary flat surfaces passing through the body or organs. Relates to positions in space and are at right angles to one another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Transverse Plane

A

Superior (upper) and inferior (lower) segments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Sagittal Plane

A

Right and left segments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Frontal Plane

A

Anterior (front) and posterior (back) segments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are axes of movement?

A

Series of imaginary lines used to describe the direction of movement at the joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Horizontal Axis

A

Extends from 1 side of the body to the other (east-west)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Longitudinal Axis

A

Vertical, running from head to toe (north-south)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Antero-Posterior Axis

A

Extends from the front of the body to the back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Planes & Axes

A

Horizontal → Sagittal
Longitudinal → Transverse
Antero-Posterior → Frontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Axis of rotation are always what to planes of motion?

A

Perpendicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the anatomical position?

A

The universally accepted, standard position used to view the human body. Used to describe the locations and relationships of anatomical parts on the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the key features of the anatomical position?

A
  • Upright standing position
  • Head, eyes, and toes facing
    forward
  • Feet are together with arms
    slightly out to the side
  • Forearms fully supinated
    (palms facing forward)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the anatomical relationships?

A
  • Anterior/Posterior
  • Superior/Inferior
  • Medial/Lateral
  • Proximal/Distal
    Proximal - closer to the
    point of attachment of the
    limb to the body
    Distal - further away from
    the point of attachment of
    the limb to the body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Movement at Joints

A
  • All flexion/extension
    movements happen in the
    sagittal plane
  • All abduction/adduction
    movements happen in the
    frontal plane
  • All rotational movements
    happen in the transverse
    plane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Flexion vs. Extension

A

Flexion - Bending at a joint such that the joint angle decreases (eg. bending elbow to bring palm up towards face)

Extension - Opposite to flexion; occurs when joint angle increases (eg. straightening arm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Abduction vs. Adduction

A

Abduction - Occurs when you move a body segment to the side and away from your body (eg. moving arm out to the side and bringing it level with the shoulder)

Adduction - Opposite to abduction; occurs when you move a body segment towards your body (eg. bringing the arm back down to the side)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Plantar Flexion vs. Dorsiflexion

A

Plantar Flexion - Specific to the ankle joint; occurs when you point your toes (eg. on tiptoes)

Dorsiflexion - Specific to the ankle joint; opposite to plantar flexion; occurs when you bend at the ankle to bring the top of your foot closer to your shin (eg. walking, jumping, etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Supination vs. Pronation

A

Supination - Rotating the wrist such that the palm is facing forward (eg. catching a softball underhand with one hand)

Pronation - Occurs in the opposite direction to supination; rotating the wrist such that the palm of your wrist is facing backward (eg. wrist would have to pronate when dribbling a basketball)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Inversion vs. Eversion

A

Inversion - Associated with ankle joint; is the result of standing on the outer edge of your foot (eg. twisted ankle)

Eversion - Associated with ankle joint; occurs in opposite direction to inversion; is a result of standing on the inner edge of your foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

External Rotation vs. Internal Rotation

A

External Rotation - Results when you twist or turn a body part outward from the midline (eg, turning your toe outward)

Internal Rotation - Results when you twist or turn a body part inward toward the midline (eg. turning your toe inward)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Elevation vs. Depression

A

Elevation - Refers to movement in a superior (upwards) direction (eg. raising your shoulders upwards)

Depression - The opposite of elevation; is a movement in an inferior (downward) direction (eg. slouching to bring down) your shoulders)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Circumduction

A

A combination of flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction (eg. a softball pitcher throwing the ball using a windmill action)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Protraction vs. Retraction

A

Protraction - Moving in an anterior (forward) direction (eg. sticking your chin out)

Retraction - The opposite of protraction; moving in a posterior (backward) direction (eg. pushing your shoulders back to squeeze your shoulder blades)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Opposition vs. Reposition

A

Opposition - Occurs when the thumb comes into contact with one of the other fingers

Reposition - The opposite of opposition; occurs when the thumb is returned to the anatomical position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the functions of the skeletal system?

A
  • Structural Support (soft
    tissue, muscles, and
    organs)
  • Protection (delicate parts of
    the body. Eg, the brain is
    protected by the skull;
    heart and lungs are
    protected by rib cage)
  • Growth Center for cells (red
    blood cells and platelets are
    produced in bones)
  • Reservoir of Minerals (body
    can call upon to regulate
    the level of calcium and
    phosphorus)
  • Movement (muscles attach
    to bones by tendons.
    Muscles contract and move
    bones to facilitate
    movement)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the Axial Skeleton?

A
  • 80 bones (skull, spine, ribs
    + breastbone)
    Functions:
  • Support & Protection
  • Surface for muscle
    attachment (most muscles
    originate and insert on the
    appendicular skeleton; core
    muscles)
  • Stability & Support (core
    muscles provide proper
    posture and alignment)
  • House Special sense organs
    (taste, smelling, hearing,
    balance, sight)
  • Blood Formation
    (vertebrae, ribs, and
    sternum contain bone
    marrow which is where red
    blood cells are formed)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the Appendicular Skeleton?

A
  • 126 bones
  • 64 in upper extremity
    (attached to pectoral girdle.
    Arms, shoulders, hands)
  • 62 in lower extremity
    (attached to pelvic girdle.
    Legs, feet, pelvis)
    Functions:
  • Movement
  • Mobility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are ligaments?

A

Thick bands of fibrous tissue that help thicken and reinforce joint capsule and connect bone to bone; prevent bone from dislocating during movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is an ACL tear?

A
  • The anterior cruciate
    ligament (ACL) is a ligament
    in the knee that prevents
    the tibia from sliding out in
    front of the femur
  • Most common in sports
  • Tear or sprain that occurs
    in the ACL; tears can be
    partial or complete
  • Grade 1 (least severe) -
    stretched but not teared
  • Grade 2 (partial tear) -
    cannot provide full stability
    for the joint
  • Grade 3 (complete tear) -
    split into 2 pieces
  • The ACL is a dense
    connective tissue which
    runs from the femur to the
    tibia. Forms a cross-section
    with the posterior cruciate
    ligament (PCL) which fits
    perfectly in the
    intercondylar notch.
  • Common causes include
    suddenly stopping, sudden
    change of direction,
    pivoting with your foot
    firmly planted, landing
    awkwardly, direct blow,
    collision
  • Symptoms of injury include
    a loud pop or popping
    sensation, severe pain,
    rapid swelling, loss of
    motion, instability
    ACL injuries are diagnosed
    by:
  • Tests - pulling tibia away
    from femur; if ACL is still
    intact, they won’t move.
  • MRI - shows soft tissues
    and bones.
  • Listen - popping noise in
    when the knee moves
  • Walking - limping
  • X-rays - WON’T work. ACL
    are tears, not breaks
    Recovery treatments involve:
  • Knee brace - many
    continue to wear a knee
    brace after an ACL
    injury for extra support
  • Physical Therapy - usually
    used after surgery.
    Exercises that strengthen
    muscles around knee to
    help regain full range of
    motion
  • Stretches - help support
    and strengthen the ACL.
  • Surgery
    Grade 3 tears usually
    require surgery
    Grade 2 may sometimes
    heal over time with physical
    therapy
    Involves replacing the
    damaged ACL with new
    tissue to help new
    ligaments grow in its place
    Recovery time is typically
    between 6-9 months and
    physical therapy is required
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Inversion vs. Eversion Sprains

A

Inversion - occurs when standing on the outside of the foot and ankle rolls in. Very common and causes damage to lateral ligaments (anterior and posterior talofibular and calcaneofibular ligaments)

Eversion - occurs when standing on the inside of the foot and ankle rolls out. Uncommon due to the fibula restricting the ankle and is often accompanied by a fibula fracture. Causes damage to medial ligaments (deltoid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is smooth muscle?

A
  • Surrounds the body’s
    internal organs (including
    blood vessels, hair follicles,
    and the urinary, genital,
    and digestive tracts)
  • Contracts more slowly than
    skeletal muscle but can
    remain contracted for
    longer periods
  • Involuntary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is cardiac muscle?

A
  • Found only in the heart
  • Responsible for creating
    the action that pumps
    blood.
  • Involuntary (directed to act
    by the autonomic nervous
    system)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is skeletal muscle?

A
  • Attached to the bone
    (tendons)
  • Most prevalent muscle type
    (30-40% of weight)
  • Voluntary – humans have
    conscious control (the brain
    can tell them what to do)
  • Referred to as striated or
    striped because it appears
    as a series of alternating
    light and dark stripes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How are muscles named?

A

Location of the Muscle
Action of the muscle
Direction of muscle fibres
Shape of the muscle
Number of origins
Origins & insertions
Relative Size

(LADSNOR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Agonist vs. Antagonist

A

Agonist - the muscle primarily responsible for
movement

Antagonist - the muscle that counteracts the agonist, lengthening when the agonist muscle contracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Origin vs. Insertion

A

Origin - the point where the
muscle attaches to the
more stationary
(motionless) bones on the
axial skeleton

Insertion - the point where
the muscle attaches to the bone that is moved during
contraction

Eg. When you contract your
biceps, you pull your
forearm towards your shoulder, meaning you are
pulling towards the origin.
The insertion is located on
the tibial tuberosity of the
forearm that moves during
contraction

40
Q

What is the Epimysium?

A

A larger and stronger sheath, that envelops the entire muscle (binding the fascicles together)

41
Q

What is the Perimysium?

A

A sheath of connective tissue (within the epimysium) that binds groups of muscle fibres (fascicles) together

42
Q

What is a tendon?

A

All the connective tissues of the muscle fibre extend beyond the muscle and become one with this structure. This then extends and becomes one with the bone’s periosteum. Attaches muscle to bone. Located on each end of skeletal muscles and crosses joints to attach to the bone.

43
Q

What is the Endomysium?

A

A sheath of connective tissue that surrounds each muscle fibre

44
Q

What is a Muscle Fibre?

A

A cylindrical, multinucleate cell composed of numerous myofibrils that contract when stimulated

45
Q

What is Myofibril?

A

Thread-like structures that run along the length of the muscle fibre. Contain finer “thick” and “thin” filaments (myosin and actin)

46
Q

What is Actin?

A

A cellular protein that contains 2 other proteins - troponin, which has a binding site for calcium, and tropomyosin, which is the “stringy-looking” cord-like structure that covers the binding site on actin. Together these 2 proteins behave like a swivel-locking mechanism – they will not allow the myosin head to attach until calcium is released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum

47
Q

What is Myosin?

A

A cellular protein consists of a “head” and “tail”, similar to the look of a golf club. The myosin head will have an attachment site for actin, and actin will have a binding site for the myosin head

48
Q

What is the Sarcolemma?

A

A plasma membrane found beneath the endomysium that contains the muscle cell’s cytoplasm (sarcoplasm)

49
Q

What is the Sarcomere?

A

Compartments found along the myofibril containing actin and myosin

50
Q

What is the Sarcoplasm?

A

The muscle cell’s cytoplasm, which is contained by the sarcolemma

51
Q

What is the Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

A

A network of channels in each muscle fibre that transports the electrochemical substances involved in muscle activation

52
Q

What is the All or None Principle?

A

The motor neuron, its axon
(pathway), and the muscle
fibres it stimulates are
together referred to as the
motor unit
- Nerves transmit impulses
in “waves” that ensure
smooth movements
- A single neuron impulse
and the resulting
contraction is called a
muscle twitch
- One neuron or nerve
(called the “motor neuron”)
may be responsible for
stimulating a number of
muscle fibres
Motor units comply to a
rule known as the all-or-
none principle (or law)
- When a motor unit is
stimulated to contract, it
will do so to its fullest
potential
- If a motor unit consists of
10 muscle fibres and they
are “turned on” either all
fibres will contract or none
will

53
Q

What is the Sliding Filament Theory?

A

Muscles contract as a result of the overlapping of actin and myosin filaments, relative to one another. This causes the sarcomere (and the whole muscle fibre) to contract.
It is possible to detect small bridges on the thick filaments that extend to the thin filaments called “myosin cross bridges.” These attach, rotate, detach, and re-attach in rapid succession which causes the sliding or overlapping of the filaments, a shortening of the sarcomere, and the muscle contraction
The “trigger mechanism” for the process is the release of calcium ions when the nerve impulse is transmitted through the muscle fibre. The release of calcium in the presence of the proteins troponin and tropomyosin facilitates (or removes obstacles to) the interaction of myosin and actin molecules
Muscle relaxation caused by the re-uptake of calcium ions requires adenosine triphosphate (ATP), the energy-carrying molecule that results from food metabolism. ATP is also used to detach myosin from the actin molecule. As the work of the muscles increases, more ATP is used up and must be replaced through food metabolism for the process to continue

54
Q

What is the Reflex Arc?

A

Neurons in our bodies transmit information to each other through a series of neural connections that form a pathway, or circuit
A reflex arc is a simple neural pathway along which an initial sensory stimulus and a corresponding message travel
- The stimulus from sensory
neurons is sent to the
central nervous system
(CNS), but there is little or
no interpretation of the
signal. Few, if any,
interneurons are involved
- The signal is transmitted to
a motor neuron, which
elicits a response (Eg. a
knee jerk)
5 parts
- Receptor - receives the
initial stimulus
- Sensory (or afferent) Nerve
Carries the impulse to the
spinal column or brain
- Intermediate Nerve Fibre
(adjustor or interneuron) -
interprets the signal and
issues an appropriate
response
- Motor (or efferent) Nerve -
carries the response
message from the spinal
cord to the muscle or organ
- Effector Organ - carries out
the response

55
Q

What are Reflexes?

A

Reflexes are automatic, rapid, and unconscious responses to a particular stimulus.
- Cerebral reflex - the control
for the reflex is located in
the brain.
- Spinal reflex - the control
for the reflex is located in
the spinal cord

56
Q

How are Reflexes classified?

A

Autonomic reflexes - mediated by the autonomic nervous system and usually involve the activation of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands (regulate body functions such as digestion, elimination, blood pressure, salivation, and sweating)

Somatic reflexes - involve stimulation of skeletal muscles by the somatic nervous system and include reflexes such as the stretch reflex and the withdrawal reflex

57
Q

Aerobic vs. Anaerobic Systems

A

Anaerobic - Occurs without the requirement of oxygen. It can occur in 2 separate metabolic pathways, 1 not involving the breakdown of glucose and the other involving the partial breakdown of glucose

Aerobic - A separate, but to some extent overlapping energy system, that requires oxygen. Involves many enzymes and several complex sub-pathways that lead to the breakdown of glucose (fats and proteins also enter the cycle at this stage)

58
Q

ATP-PC (Anaerobic Alactic)

A
  • Allows for a quick, surge of
    power
  • 1-2 chemical reactions
  • Simplest of the 2 anaerobic
    pathways
  • It is “alactic” - lactic acid is
    not a byproduct (no by-
    products)
  • Relies on the action of
    phosphocreatine
    (compound stored in
    muscle and readily
    accessible) to sustain the
    levels of ATP required
    during the initial phase of
    short but intense activity
  • Yields 1 molecule of ATP for
    about 10-15 seconds
  • Intense activities that are of
    short duration (eg. shotput,
    100m sprint) rely heavily on
    ATP-PC because it provides
    the highest rate of ATP
    resynthesis.
  • PC + ADP → ATP + creatine
  • Occurs in the cytoplasm
59
Q

Glycolysis (Anaerobic Lactic)

A
  • Allows for a quick surge of
    energy
  • Glucose is the main energy
    source
  • Involves the partial
    breakdown of glucose, with
    lactic acid as a byproduct
  • The buildup of lactic acid is
    painful and further activity
    is hampered
  • 11 separate reactions
  • Yields 2 molecules of ATP
    for approximately 15-90
    seconds of high-level
    performance (eg. 200m
    sprint, hockey shift)
  • Transfers energy from
    glucose and rejoins
    phosphate to ADP
    (adenosine diphosphate)
  • C6H12O6 + 2ADP + 2Pi →
    2C3H6O3 + 2ATP + 2H2O
  • Occurs in the cytoplasm
60
Q

Cellular Respiration

A
  • Main source of energy
    during endurance events
  • Involves oxygen and the
    complete breakdown of
    glucose
  • Yields large amounts of ATP
  • 36 molecules of ATP for
    every molecule of glucose.
  • Can sustain activity for a
    long time or until other
    physiological limits are
    reached (120 secs and
    beyond)
  • Endurance events (eg.
    marathon run)
    Involves 3 sub-pathways - – – Glycolysis:
    Same as the aerobic lactic
    system except that, in the
    presence of oxygen, pyruvic
    acid is converted to acetyl
    CoA rather than lactic acid.
  • Kreb’s Cycle (or “citric acid cycle”)
    Involves 8 chemical
    reactions
    2 ATP molecules are
    produced at the end, along
    with new compounds
    capable of storing high-
    energy electrons
  • Electron Transport Chain
    Large amounts of ATP are
    produced (36 molecules)
    CO2 and H2O are the only
    by-products
    Series of electron carriers
    and protein complexes that
    accept and donate
    electrons in a sequential
    series. The final electron
    acceptor is oxygen
  • Fats, proteins, and glucose
    are used as energy sources
  • During exercise the primary
    sources of energy are
    carbohydrates and fats;
    protein is accessible and
    only contributes a small %
    of total energy used
  • Slow; requires a large
    amount of oxygen
  • C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 +
    6H2O + ATP
  • Occurs in the Mitochondria
    of cells
61
Q

What is Pyruvate?

A

A created byproduct from glycolysis. When oxygen is available it can be the starting point of the third metabolic pathway (cellular respiration) by helping to start the Kreb’s cycle.

62
Q

What is Lactic Acid?

A

When oxygen is not readily available pyruvate turns into lactic acid which can cause exhaustion and pain in the muscles. It is most known for the burning sensation it can create in the muscles.

63
Q

Slow Twitch Muscle Fibres

A
  • Red or dark in colour (high
    levels of myoglobin)
  • Generates tension and
    relaxes slowly; maintains
    lower level of tension for a
    longer periods
  • Slow myosin ATPase
    (enzyme found on thick
    filament, body uses to
    produce instant energy for
    muscle contraction)
  • Low levels of glycolytic
    enzymes (permits release
    of glycogen within muscle)
  • High levels of oxidative
    enzymes (increases rate at
    which ATP is produced
    aerobically)
  • Ideal for activities such as
    long-distance running,
    swimming, and cycling
64
Q

Fast Twitch Muscle Fibres

A
  • Pale in colour (lower levels
    of myoglobin)
  • Ability to tense and relax
    quickly; generate large
    amounts of tension with
    low endurance levels
    (fatigues quickly)
  • Different type of myosin
    ATPase (fast) and high
    levels of glycolytic enzymes
  • Activate at a rate of 2-3
    times faster than slow
    twitch fibres
  • Ideal for fast powerful
    muscle contractions
    needed for activities such
    as short sprints,
    powerlifting, and explosive
    jumping
65
Q

Type I or Slow-Oxidative (SO)

A
  • Generate energy slowly
  • Fatigue-resistant
  • Primarily depend on
    aerobic processes
66
Q

Type IIA or Fast-Oxidative Glycolytic (FOG)

A
  • Intermediate-type muscle
    fibres
  • Allow for high-speed
    energy release
  • Allow for glycolytic capacity
67
Q

Type IIB or Fast-Glycolytic (FG)

A
  • Store glycogen and high
    levels of enzymes
  • Allows for quick contraction
    without the need for
    oxygen
68
Q

What is the Pericardium?

A

Protective sac that surrounds the heart (loose fit allows the heart to expand and contract)

69
Q

What is the Epicardium?

A

Outer layer that lies against the pericardium

70
Q

What is the Myocardium?

A

Muscle tissue that makes up the heart and lies below the epicardium (similar to skeletal muscle, but cells have special contractile properties)

71
Q

What is the Endocardium?

A

Final layer of tissue that lines the inside of the heart (inner layer)

72
Q

What is the Right Atrium?

A

Receives deoxygenated blood from the superior and inferior Vena Cava

73
Q

What is the Right Ventricle?

A

Pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs via the pulmonary arteries

74
Q

What is the Left Atrium?

A

Receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary veins

75
Q

What is the Left Ventricle?

A

Pumps oxygenated blood to the body via the aorta

76
Q

What are the Arteries?

A
  • Blood vessels that carry
    blood away from the heart. - Walls are very thick and
    muscular due to them
    having to withstand the
    pressure of the heart
  • Systemic circulation -
    arteries carry oxygenated
    blood from the left side of
    the heart towards body
    tissues
  • Pulmonary circulation -
    arteries carry deoxygenated
    blood from the right side of
    the heart towards the
    lungs.
77
Q

What are Arterioles?

A
  • Vessels in the blood
    circulation system that
    branch arteries to
    capillaries, where gas
    exchange eventually occurs.
  • Surround by smooth
    muscle
  • Primary site of vascular
    resistance
  • Smaller than arteries
78
Q

What are the Capillaries?

A
  • Smallest of blood vessels
  • Help to enable the
    exchange of water, oxygen,
    carbon dioxide, and other
    nutrients and waste
    substances between the
    blood and the tissues
79
Q

What are Venules?

A
  • Small, thin-walled
    extensions of the capillaries
  • Lead into the veins, which
    return blood to the heart
    from another trip
    throughout the vascular
    system
80
Q

What are Veins?

A
  • Blood vessels that carry
    blood toward the heart
  • Systemic circulation -
    carries deoxygenated blood
    towards the right side of
    the heart from body tissues
  • Pulmonary circulation -
    carries oxygenated blood
    towards the left side of the
    heart from the lungs
81
Q

What is the Thoracic Pump? (3 ways blood is brought back to the heart)

A

Related to breathing. With each breath taken in by the respiratory system, pressure in the chest cavity is very low for a few seconds, while the pressure in the abdominal cavity increases
Pressure within the veins found in the chest decreases, while the pressure in the veins within the abdominal cavity increases. The difference in pressure between the veins in the 2 body cavities pushes blood from the veins in the abdominal cavity into the veins in the thoracic cavity because of the one-way valves found in the veins.

82
Q

What is the Nervous System? (3 ways blood is brought back to the heart)

A

When cardiac output needs to be increased (eg. exercise) the nervous system sends a signal to the veins causing them to slightly constrict (vasoconstriction). Helps return more blood to the heart

83
Q

What is the Skeletal Muscle Pump? (3 ways blood is brought back to the heart)

A

Term used to describe how with each contraction of a skeletal muscle, blood is pushed or massaged by that muscle.
Occurs because of the one-way valves found within the veins
Each contraction of a muscle compresses the veins within or around the muscle, increasing pressure within that vein. The increase in pressure moves the blood along, and because of the one-way valves, the only direction the blood can travel is back toward the heart

84
Q

What is Cardiac Output (Q)?

A

The amount of blood the heart pumps per minute

85
Q

What is Stroke Volume (SV)?

A

The amount of blood pumped from the left ventricle in a single beat

86
Q

What is Heart Rate (HR)?

A

The number of times the heart beats within a minute

87
Q

What is blood pressure?

A

The force exerted by the blood against the walls of the arteries

88
Q

What is Systolic Blood Pressure?

A

Refers to the pressure measured in the arteries during the contraction phase (eg. 120 mmHg)

89
Q

What are Diastolic Blood Pressure?

A

Refers to the pressure measured in the arteries during the relaxation phase of the heart (eg. 80mmHg)

90
Q

Conductive Zone

A

Structure:
- Mouth and nose, larynx,
trachea
- Primary and secondary
bronchioles
- Tertiary bronchioles
Function:
- Filters air as breath
- Warms air to body
temperature (37C)
- Saturates air with moisture
- Protects sensitive tissues
making up the respiratory
zone

91
Q

Respiratory Zone

A

Structure:
- Respiratory bronchioles
- Alveolar ducts
- Alveolar sacs (alveoli)
Function:
- Involved with the exchange
of gasses between lungs
and blood vessels

92
Q

What is the role of the Epiglottis?

A

Prevent foods and drinks from falling down the trachea (windpipe). Located at the entrance of the larynx

93
Q

How is O2 moved around the body?

A

O2 Transport - 2 ways oxygen is transported within the blood:
- 2% dissolved within the
blood plasma
- Rest binds to specialized
protein in erythrocytes
(RBCs) called hemoglobin
1.34mL of O2 per gram of
hemoglobin
- The average concentration
of hemoglobin is ~16
mg/100mL of blood

94
Q

How is CO2 moved around the body?

A

CO2 Transport - 3 ways carbon dioxide is transported within the blood:
- 5-10% CO2 remains
unchanged, dissolved in the
plasma
- 20% binds to hemoglobin
(on erythrocytes) forming
carbaminohemoglobin
when there are low
concentrations of O2
- O2 in the lungs is high
which causes CO2 to be
released from the
hemoglobin (diffuses into
alveoli and is exhaled)
- 70-75% of CO2 transported
through the bicarbonate
system

95
Q

What is Oxygen Deficit?

A

The amount of oxygen taken in during stressful exercise minus the amount of oxygen that would otherwise have been required for steady-state aerobic exercise
During this period, the working muscle must partially rely on metabolic systems that do not require oxygen(anaerobic metabolic systems)
These anaerobic systems make up the difference and compensate for the “lag” in VO2, allowing the exercise to continue at the new workload

Kinesiology Gr 12 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions