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EFRS PRECIS > Exam Questions (poor) > Flashcards

Exam Questions (poor) Flashcards

1
Q

If a patient has an implanted pacemaker or defibrillator, what special precautions should be taken when utilizing an AED?

A

Avoid placing the pads directly over the implanted device.

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2
Q

Until another medical service equal to or greater than your abilities arrives on scene, what standard is used to maintain patient care?

A

Department medical control guidelines.

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3
Q

When arriving on scene at a medical event what is the first action you should take?

A

Determine the scene to be safe

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4
Q

(T/F) Whenever possible, if the mechanism of injury causing your patient discomfort was witnessed by a bystander. Always use the information from the bystander as your primary piece of information.

A

False

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5
Q

(T/F) When preforming your rapid survey, once you find the main cause of the patient’s discomfort or pain it is important to move from a rapid assessment to a focused exam.

A

False

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6
Q

What does JVD stand for

A

Jugular vein distention

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7
Q

What is the correct compression to ventilation ratio for a single rescuer of a 3 year old child?

A

30 compression to 2 breaths

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8
Q

For what age patient is the 2 thumb-encircling hand technique recommended when 2 or more rescuers are present?

A

A child younger than 1 year

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9
Q

What is the correct depth of chest compression for an infant?

A

at least 1/3 of the depth of the chest or 1.5 inches

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10
Q

After your assessment of the patient and interventions have been made, how often should you reassess your patients vitals?

A

Every 5 minutes

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11
Q

What is the regulator on the oxygen tank set to when utilizing a nasal cannula?

A

2-6 LPM

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12
Q

What is important to remember about AED pad placement when working with infants?

A

You may need to place 1 pad posterior and 1 pad anterior on the chest to ensure there is at least 1 inch space between them.

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13
Q

When inspecting a patients medications you are looking for the 5 “R’s”, they are

A

Route, Time, Does, Patient, Medication

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14
Q

In regards to medications what do the 3 “C’s” stand for

A

Colour, clarity, concentration

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15
Q

As a rescuer you encounter a 23 year old patient who is unresponsive. His girlfriend tells you he has just had galbladder surgery and has been taking oxycodone for the pain. He currently is not breathing and has no pulse, she came downstairs and found him this way four minutes ago. Your college goes to retrieve the AED and Naloxone kit.What is the most appropriate action for you to take next?

A

Provide chest compressions and begin “CAB” CPR.

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16
Q

How can rescuers ensure that they are providing effective breaths when using a bag valve mask?

A

Observing the chest rise with breaths

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17
Q

During your medical secondary assessment when you are looking for “DRT” what are you looking for?

A

Distension, rigidity, tenderness

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18
Q

In the mnemonic AEIOUTIPS what does the A and I stand for?

A

Alcohol and Insulin

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19
Q

What is a consideration when using an AED?

A

On a hairy chest the pads may not stick and may fail to deliver a shock

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20
Q

Respiration is the act of/or process of breathing in and out. You will evaluate several characteristics when assessing a patients respirations. They are:

A

Rate, depth, sound, and ease

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21
Q

(T/F) When stimulating the the pupils with an external light, pupilary reaction should be concise and equal in both eyes. Poor pupil reaction can denote poor perfusion to the eye and/or damage/compromise to the brain.

A

True

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22
Q

You notice the person performing compression is not allowing for complete recoil of the chest. What is your course of action?

A

Communicate clearly what you are seeing

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23
Q

(T/F) An acceptable range for SPO2 reading for a healthy adult is 90-98%

A

False

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24
Q

(T/F) As you collect your baseline set of vital information it is important to note that no single vital sign should be used to drive the care of the patient

A

True

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25
Q

(T/F) Triage is the process of sorting people into groups based on their age, medical needs, and mechanism of injury. All while taking the state of your resources into account

A

False

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26
Q

(T/F) While performing your initial triage when you first encounter a patient who is not breathing, you tag them as deceased/black and move to the next patient

A

False

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27
Q

Which action do you preform to relieve choking in an unresponsive infant

A

Preform CPR, and look in the mouth for the obstruction

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28
Q

The mnemonic RPM is used to guide the START and JumpSTART triage assessment. RPM stands for

A

Respiration, perfusion, mental status

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29
Q

Which of the following is not a contradiction when assisting a patient with ASA

A

Already taken ASA within the last five minutes

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30
Q

Which of the following is a contradiction when dealing with oxygen administration in an emergency situation?

A

None for emergency use

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31
Q

(T/F) when dealing with a patient where opiate use is suspected, administering Naloxone as a diagnostic tool would be an appropriate course of action

A

False

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32
Q

When administering Nalozone the adult intramuscular dosage is

A

0.4mg/1mL

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33
Q

When assisting a patient with their metered does inhaler (MDI) which of the following would not be appropriate for medication use?

A

Subcutaneous emphysema

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34
Q

When administering Salbutamol to an adult patient with a MDI, what is the maximum dosage?

A

20 puffs

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35
Q

(T/F) When administering/assisting a patient with salbutamol extreme caution should be used with patients presenting with acute heart failure

A

True

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36
Q

The dose of an epi-pen auto injector (JR.) is?

A

0.15mg

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37
Q

(T/F) If the patient owns their own epi-pen and says they “need the epi-pen” but they don’t show any signs/symptoms, it is recommended to administer it to them

A

False

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38
Q

Which of the following is one of the three priority, positive environmental aspects, identified by the EFRS, which forms the backbone of ENVISO?

A

Through Hazmat Response, staff protects water, soil, and air from contamination

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39
Q

If you receive a complaint, concern, or suggestion from a member of the public on any environmental issue, this information needs to be forwarded to the:

A

Environmental coordinator

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40
Q

The core values of EFRS are:

A

Service, safety, relationships, and teamwork

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41
Q

(T/F) Emergency systems such as radios and MPS fall under the responsibility of the Deputy Chief of Training and Logistics

A

False

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42
Q

At a multiple alarm event, the second arriving District Chief assumes the role of

A

Incident Commander

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43
Q

(T/F) The PASS alarm can be manually activated even if it is not connected to an air source

A

True

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44
Q

(T/F) Securing the base of a ground ladder to the structure is an acceptable alternative to committing a firefighter to heeling/butting duties

A

True

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45
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of water

A

water is virtually in-compressible

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46
Q

A pump apparatus continuously flowing two 44mm attack lines, at the required pressure, will deplete the on board water supply in approximately how much time

A

two minutes

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47
Q

(T/F) Slots that determine the direction of fire spread are referred to as inspection cuts

A

false

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48
Q

What are the two lengths of High Volume hose used by EFRS?

A

15m and 7.5m

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49
Q

The lowest temperature at which a substance will give off sufficient vapours to burn and continue burning when ignited is referred to as:

A

Fire point

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50
Q

Which side should be opened first during horizontal ventilation?

A

Leeward side

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51
Q

Damage cause during firefighting efforts is referred to as?

A

Secondary damage

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52
Q

With respect to wildland firefighting terminology, Islands are defined as:

A

The unburned areas within the fire area

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53
Q

(T/F) A safety zone, defined as a location where firefighters can shelter from fire, should be located up the slope from the fire and in the green.

A

False

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54
Q

(T/F) Natural gas (methane) is odorless in its natural state

A

True

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55
Q

Packing groups rate the levels of hazards from I to III. The “III” would indicate that the hazard poses:

A

The lowest level of danger

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56
Q

When do hazardous materials have the greatest potential for disaster?

A

During shipping

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57
Q

(T/F) Solid, Fog, and Broken are three types of water streams

A

True

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58
Q

How many times faster than air does water conduct heat?

A

25-32

59
Q

To aid in fire investigations, which of the following should you note as you are approaching the fire scene?

A

Smoke conditions, climate conditions, and any persons/vehicles that appear to be leaving the scene in a hurry

(All of the above)

60
Q

Which of the following is an example of a endothermic reaction?

A

The state change of a liquid to a gas

61
Q

What are some of the services that an Advanced life support unit can provide that a Basic life support unit cannot?

A

Can involving intravenous fluids, drug infusions, cardiac monitoring and intubation

62
Q

What do you set the regulator to on the oxygen cylinder when using a bag valve mask?

A

10-15 LPM

63
Q

What is the definition of Cyanosis?

A

Bluish discoloration of the skin membranes, a sign that the body tissues are not receiving enough oxygen.

64
Q

What does the mnemonic OPQRST stand for

A

onset, provocation, quality, region, severity, time

65
Q

Define Decerebrate Posturing.

A

Involuntary extension of the upper extremities in response to external stimuli. The head arches back, extremities are pushed away from the core of the body.

66
Q

In which location do the most out-of-hospital cardiac arrests occur

A

homes

67
Q

What is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in children

A

Respiratory failure or shock

68
Q

Define the tripod position

A

sitting on a chair with your hands placed on your knees and leaning forward

69
Q

On an emergency scene who should be operating in the “hot zone”?

A

The minimum number of emergency workers necessary to mitigate and service the emergency as decided by the incident commander or appropriate leadership

70
Q

Which medical kit is NOT found on a pump apparatus?

A

Go bag (combi-kit)

71
Q

Which grouping is found in the airway kit?

A

Naloxone kit, automatic blood pressure cuff, suction device

72
Q

Where would you find trauma shears

A

Trauma kit and Airway kit

both A and B

73
Q

On which apparatus are the medical “go bag” kept?

A

all apparatus except pumps

74
Q

If you suspect that an unresponsive victim has a head or neck trauma, what is the preferred method of opening the airway?

A

Jaw thrust

75
Q

What is the ratio of chest compressions to breaths when providing CPR to an adult

A

30 compressions to 2 breaths

76
Q

(T/F) Safety glasses and nitrite gloves are to be worn at every trauma event. Medical events however, only gloves are to be worn

A

False

77
Q

Which of the following is not an appropriate when practicing safe infection control precautions?

A

While attending to a patient you get body fluids on your arm. You make a mental note to wash your hands when you get back to the hall.

78
Q

What is the most appropriate first step to take as soon as the AED arrives at the patients side

A

Power on the AED

79
Q

(T/F) A solid fuel must be converted to a gaseous state for it to combust. Pyrolysis often precedes combustion. Pyrolysis is the chemical decomposition of a solid material by heating

A

True

80
Q

(T/F) Overhaul can cause the most difficulty for fire investigators. To minimize any spoliation of evidence, firefighters should wait for the arrival of fire investigators before initiating overhaul operations whenever possible.

A

True

81
Q

In the science of fire, the Law of Conservation of Mass is extremely important. Chemical and physical changes almost always involve an exchange of energy. Which of the following best describes an endothermic reaction

A

Chemical reactions that absorb thermal energy or heat

82
Q

(T/F) Over the years, the fire service has coined words and phrases to describe various fire events that result in rapid fire development. A smoke explosion occurs when a new source of oxygen is introduced to a ventilation controlled compartment fire with large volumes of smoke and other gases causing the fire to explosively return to a fully involved fire.

A

False

83
Q

Which of the following is not an example of a dead load

A

The inventory of stock on hand

84
Q

A twisting pressure applied, at an angle, to any place other than the center of the structural member is known as:

A

Torsional load

85
Q

Which of the following precautions must be completed prior to using hydraulic ventilation in the fire room?

A

Notify command so crews working near or below the site can be made aware

86
Q

(T/F) Hydraulic ventilation has the greatest effect when the hose stream covers 85-90% of the opening and the nozzle tip is at least 0.6 meters from the opening.

A

True

87
Q

The Deputy Chief of Training and Logistics is

A

Bradley Hoekstra

88
Q

Training and logistics bulletin refers to gross decontamination on fire scenes. For the wellbeing of all personnel, when should gross decontamination of all cylinders and SCBA harnesses be completed?

A

Prior to being transported to logistics for repair/filling

89
Q

A level 1 HAZMAT incident involves a spill of <25 Litres. What is missing from the following inventory of a Level 1 Hazmat Kit found on EFRS pump apparatus:

Kit bag and unit ID disk
2 - absorbent pillows
2 - absorbent socks
10 - heavy duty clear HAZMAT spill recovery bags
1 - container gap seal
A

1 - mini berm

90
Q

What item is missing from the inventory of a hydrant kit:

1 - combination hydrant wrench/Hi vol spanner
2 - Hi vol spanners
1 - butterfly valve key c/w rubber strap
1 - roll banner guard (yellow)
1 - adjustable hydrant wrench
A

1 - rubber mallet

91
Q

Which adapter is required to use the Supervac Model 720VR2 PPV fan with a regular household electrical outlet?

A

No adapter needed

92
Q

What are the flow rates on a Mercury Quick Attack Monitor

A

950, 1400, 1900 L/min

93
Q

How many lengths of 44mm hose can be found on an EFRS pump apparatus?

A

22

94
Q

On an EFRS pump apparatus, how many lengths of 44mm high combat hose does preconnect 1 with the orange handled nozzle have?

A

3

95
Q

(T/F) A green high rise kit has 2 15m lengths of 44mm hose with the male end connected to an Akron attack nozzle and the female end connected to a gated wye.

A

False

96
Q

How long is the 10mm rope in the drop bag of the red high rise kit?

A

20 meters

97
Q

If connected to a standpipe and utilizing both the red and green high rise kits. What is the maximum distance you could advance you nozzle from the gated wye?

A

45 meters

98
Q

How many quick dump chutes are on a super tanker?

A

3

99
Q

What chainsaw is stored on an EFRS tanker apparatus

A

Stihl 360

100
Q

How many saws can be found on an EFRS ladder apparatus

A

3

101
Q

Select the ground extension ladders that are found on an EFRS ladder apparatus inventory.

A

10.6m and 7.3m extension and 4.3 fresno

102
Q

Select the ground ladders that are found on an EFRS ladder apparatus inventory

A

4.3m and 5m roof and 3m attic

103
Q

What station is currently closed for renovations and has apparatus being temporarily deployed from alternate locations?

A

17

104
Q

Which of the following is not a method to combat claustrophobia

A

Maintain good physical conditioning

105
Q

What treatment is not indicated in the routine management of the patient with a head injury

A

Hyperventilation to obtain an EtOC2 of less than 30

106
Q

How many ATP’s are in the service with EFRS?

A

4

107
Q

What stations do super tankers respond out of?

A

18 and 29

108
Q

From the stations listed below, which one does not house an EFRS rescue apparatus?

A

16

109
Q

Which station is located in district 4 and has both a pump and a ladder crew?

A

23

110
Q

Which of the following trauma situations would be considered “load and go”?

A

Patient with abdominal tenderness, clammy skin, blood presure 100/70 and pulse 130/min

111
Q

What is most commonly injured during a fall from height of an infant?

A

head

112
Q

Which one of the following is typically associated with, post-traumatic hemorrhage, Early shock?

A

Narrowed pulse pressure

113
Q

A 65 year old man is involved in a motor vehicle collision. The steering wheel is bent. During your initial assessment you note his skin is pale and his radial pulses are present. Breath sounds are clear, heart tones are not muffled. Which one of the following is most consistent with these?

A

Cardiac contusion

114
Q

Which of the following is not part of the City of Edmonton’s Environmental Policy that is used to guide ENVISO?

A

Environmental preservation

115
Q

(T/F) The concept of “other employment” in the code of conduct presentation says that employees can accept or preform work for companies regardless of potential competition with services provided by the city of edmonton

A

false

116
Q

Which of the following is not one of the top three aspects that have a positive impact on the environment?

A

Through technical rescue, staff reduce embankment erosion and bridge oxidation, thereby preventing excessive maintenance costs of city infrastructure.

117
Q

Three of seven items that can be found on a WHIMIS supplier label are:

A

Precautionary measures, risk hazards, product identifier

118
Q

(T/F) Spongy floors, spalled concrete, offset walls, and unusual sounds/noises are all signs of dangerous building conditions/structural collapse

A

true

119
Q

(T/F) the first arriving District chief must assume the role of incident commander at a multiple alarm event, and will have the ultimate authority over the emergency while providing support to fire command

A

false

120
Q

(T/F) Observations made from the command post, pre-fire planning, and information received from sector officers on scene are three methods command uses to gain information on the fire ground

A

true

121
Q

(T/F) To maintain an effective span of control, the fire ground organized on three levels known as task, tactical, and strategic. Firefighters performing fire attack would be working at a tactical level

A

false

122
Q

(T/F) The DRD is an emergency safety feature used to secure a downed firefighter when there is an immediate need to vertically lift him/her out of a hazardous environment

A

false

123
Q

(T/F) When transmitting a radio communication, the call sign of the apparatus or person being called is said first, followed by “this is” and your own sign.

A

true

124
Q

(T/F) A 20A60BC fire extinguisher has a discharge distance of 1 to 2.5 meters and will discharge for 10 to 25 seconds.

A

false

125
Q

Once a PASS alarm enters full alarm after ___ seconds of inactivity the only way to silence the system is by pressing the ___ reset button ___.

A

30 yellow twice

126
Q

A member who is unable to fulfill an agreed change of shift due to sickness, WCB, Bereavement Leave or other cause, to arrange for another member to report for duty. The ____ must be notified of such a change.

A

The Platoon Chief (on the platoon to be worked)

127
Q

Locking a radio prevents a radio from changing talk groups accidentally if the buttons on the front panel are bumped. Once the radio is on the next step to lock the talk group is:

A

Press the “M” (mode) button on the front panel and then the top button on the left side

128
Q

Through Enviso, Fire Rescue Services has achieved certification to a rigorous international environmental standard called:

A

ISO 14001

129
Q

What are the three pieces of information a Workplace Label must contain?

A

Product identifier, precautionary measures, and MSDS statement

130
Q

(T/F) Carbon Dioxide is a product of incomplete combustion of hydrocarbons causing headache, dizziness, unconsciousness, and cardio-respiratory arrest and considered IDLH at 1200 ppm.

A

false

that’s carbon monoxide

131
Q

To check battery life on a PASS, press and hold the___ reset button and if the console displays a ___ flashing light the battery requires replacing.

A

Yellow Red

132
Q

(T/F) The minimum oxygen volume for safe entry into a work area is 20.5% according to Occupational health and safety.

A

false

133
Q

Which of the following operational hazards is not a major consideration when safe placement of a ground ladder

A

victim location

134
Q

Which of the following is not an advantage of polyolefin rope

A

good ability to absorb shock loading

135
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of nylon synthetic fibres

A

Constructed of continuous strands

136
Q

(T/F) Two major psychological effects of working in an obscured environment are acrophobia and claustrophobia

A

false

137
Q

(T/F) Flow pressure within a water distribution system is the total available pressure not used to overcome friction or gravity when water is flowing

A

false

138
Q

(T/F) Fire hydrants are the main water source for fighting fires. The city of Edmonton uses a dry barrel hydrant system. If the hydrant has a gate valve it will require 20+ turns to fully open or fully close.

A

false

139
Q

(T/F) Water shuttle operations involve hauling water from a supply source to portable tanks from which the pump will draft to fight the fire, shuttles are used when the distance between the fire scene and the water supply exceeds the reach of supply hose lines. One general guideline is to employ the shuttle when the distance is greater than 800 meters.

A

true

140
Q

claustrophobia is the fear of being enclosed or narrow spaces. Which of the following is not a countermeasure to a claustrophobic reaction?

A

Maintain good physical conditioning to prepare your body for these situations.

141
Q

The fire service has relied on water for its primary extinguishing agent for centuries. Which of the following is an advantage to the use of water as an extinguishing agent?

A

The greater the surface area of water exposed, the more rapidly heat is absorbed

142
Q

Standpipe systems are not foolproof systems. with any building system, problems or failures may exist. There may be damage to the threads at the ground level supply connection. A solution to supplying the standpipe with two lines would involve stringing two 65mm lines to the nearest interior standpipe connection by attaching both a ___ connection and a ___.

A

Double 65mm female - siamese

143
Q

(T/F) In order to meet NFPA 1962 - Care, use, and service testing of fire hose including coupling and nozzles, EFRS shall service test all hose in service at least annually

A

true

EFRS PRECIS (3 decks)

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