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Cellular science > Exam questions - MCQ > Flashcards

Exam questions - MCQ Flashcards

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1
Q

Which one of the following is NOT one of the four principles of Beauchamp and Childress?

a. Autonomy
b. Mercy
c. Beneficence
d. Non-maleficence

A

b. Mercy

The fourth is Justice: distributing benefits, risks and costs fairly; the notion that patients in similar positions should be treated in a similar manner

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2
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a role for the Institute of Biomedical Science?

a. Sets the professional standards of practice
b. Accredit degrees
c. Award degrees
d. Defines professional knowledge and skills

A

c. Award degrees

This is the role of the University and governing bodies.

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3
Q 
Which of the following best describes the genetic inheritance pattern of MPSI
Hurler?
a. Autosomal dominant
b. X-linked recessive
c. Autosomal recessive
d. X-linked dominant
A

c. Autosomal recessive

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4
Q 
Mucopolysaccharidosis type I (Hurler’s) disease is caused by the lack of which of the
following enzymes?
a. α-N-Acetylglucosaminidase
b. N-sulfoglucosamine sulfohydrolase
c. Hyaluronidase
d. α-L-Iduronidase
A

d. α-L-Iduronidase

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5
Q

What is the main function of the lysosome?

a. DNA replication
b. Post-translational modification of proteins
c. Energy production
d. Catabolism

A

d. Catabolism

Lysosomes are organelles that contain digestive enzymes. They digest excess or worn out organelles, food particles, and engulfed viruses or bacteria.

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6
Q

Criteria for the introduction of a screening programme include which of the
following:
a. The natural history of the condition should be understood
b. The condition should be an important health problem
c. The screening test should be safe
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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7
Q

Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding deontology ethics?

a. It emphasises the value of every human being
b. It provides a basis to human rights
c. It is a duty-based ethical system
d. It is concerned with the greatest good for the greatest number of people

A

d. It is concerned with the greatest good for the greatest number of people

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8
Q

When considering the human papilloma virus (HPV), which one of the following
statements is INCORRECT?
a. Human papilloma virus is a RNA virus
b. There are over 100 types of HPV
c. At least 15 types are considered high risk for cervical cancer
d. The most common type of high risk HPV found in cervical cancer is type 18

A

Human papilloma virus is a RNA virus

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9
Q

Concerning the cervical transformation zone, which one of the following statement is NOT true?

a. It is the area of cervix where single layer of glandular cells (or column cells) are changing into squamous epithelial cells
b. It is the area of the cervix where abnormalities are most likely to occur
c. It is lined by metaplastic epithelium
d. It is vulnerable to infection by human papilloma virus

A

It is lined by metaplastic epithelium

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10
Q

Important features normally seen in dyskaryotic squamous cells in cervical Liquid Based Cytology samples include which of the following:

a. Increased nuclear to cytoplasmic ratios
b. Hyperchromasia
c. Irregular nuclear contours
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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11
Q

Simple epithelial tissue function includes which of the following:

a. Absorption
b. Secretion
c. Protection
d. a and b

A

d. a and b

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12
Q

Epithelial squamous tissue allows which of the following processes to occur:

a. Passive transport of gas in alveoli
b. Passive transport of fluid in capillaries
c. Active transport of gas in pancreas
d. a and b

A

d. a and b

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13
Q

Which of the following statements about striated muscle cells is CORRECT?

a. They are involuntary muscles
b. They contain more than one nucleus
c. They have a central nucleus
d. All of the above

A

b. They contain more than one nucleus

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14
Q

Which one of the following is a risk factor for stroke?

a. Hypertension
b. Hypotension
c. Thrombocytopenia
d. Exercise

A

a. Hypertension

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15
Q

What type of muscle is responsible for peristalsis:

a. Skeletal muscle
b. Cardiac muscle
c. Striated muscle
d. Smooth muscle

A

d. Smooth muscle

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16
Q

GnRH causes the pituitary gland to produce which of the following hormones:

a. LH and oxytocin
b. FSH and prolactin
c. LH and FSH
d. Oxytocin and prolactin

A

c. LH and FSH

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17
Q

The process by which sperm cells are produced is called:

a. Spermatogenesis
b. Oogenesis
c. Spermanufacture
d. Capitation

A

a. Spermatogenesis

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18
Q

The male hormone testosterone is produced by which one of the following:

a. Leydig cells
b. Seminiferous tubules
c. Epididymis
d. Vas deferens

A

a. Leydig cells

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19
Q 
What is the name given to the clear, colourless body fluid found in the brain and
spine?
a. Blood
b. Water
c. Cerebrospinal fluid
d. Serum
A

c. Cerebrospinal fluid

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20
Q 
Urinary calculi are most commonly made up of which one of the following
compounds?
a. Calcium chloride
b. Calcium phosphate
c. Calcium oxalate
d. Calcium carbonate
A

c. Calcium oxalate

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21
Q

Lewy bodies are neuropathological hallmark of which disease?

a. Parkinson’s disease
b. Alzheimer’s disease
c. Huntington’s disease
d. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

A

a. Parkinson’s disease

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22
Q

What are the most commonly used stains in non-gynaecological cytology:

a. Papanicolaou and Giemsa
b. Papanicolaou and toluidine blue
c. Giemsa and toluidine blue
d. Haematoxylin and eosin

A

a. Papanicolaou and Giemsa

  • Air dried samples are stained with a Giemsa stain
  • Wet fixed samples are stained with a Papanicolaou stain
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23
Q 
Which one of the following is not an example of a chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD)?
a. Emphysema
b. Pneumoconiosis
c. Asthma
d. Chronic bronchitis
A

b. Pneumoconiosis

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24
Q

Which one of the following descriptions is associated with a benign tumour?

a. Cells in the tumour have pleomorphic shapes and sizes.
b. Tumour is localized to tissue of origin
c. Tumour invades the surrounding tissues
d. Tumours cells have enlarged nucleoli and abnormal mitotic figures

A

b. Tumour is localized to tissue of origin

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25
Q

Which one of the following statements about cystic fibrosis (CF) is INCORRECT?

a. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder
b. 1 in 25 people is a carrier for CF
c. The incidence of CF in Caucasian populations is 1 in 25
d. Mutations in CFTR are linked to CF

A

c. The incidence of CF in Caucasian populations is 1 in 25

The actual incidence is about 1 in every 2500 live births

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26
Q 
The majority of tumours in the bladder arise from which one of the following cell
types?
a. Squamous epithelial cells
b. Transitional epithelial cells
c. Cuboidal epithelial cells
d. Smooth muscle cells
A

b. Transitional epithelial cells

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27
Q

From which blood vessels does the liver receive its blood supply?

a. Superior vena cava
b. Hepatic portal vein and hepatic artery
c. Hepatic vein
d. Inferior vena cava

A

b. Hepatic portal vein and hepatic artery

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28
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a constituent of a liver triad?

a. artery
b. reticulin fibres
c. bile duct
d. vein

A

b. reticulin fibres

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29
Q

What is meant by the TNM system of tumour classification?

a. Tumour staging
b. Tumour grading
c. Tumour differentiation
d. Tumour necrosis

A

a. Tumour staging

T - extent of the tumor
N - extent of spread to the lymph nodes
M - the presence of metastasis

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30
Q

Which of the following symptoms would you associate with alcoholic liver disease?

a. Jaundice
b. Ascites
c. Abnormal liver function tests
d. All the above

A

d. All the above

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31
Q

Which of the following is not covered by the expectations of Professionalism?

(a) Attitude
(b) Appearance
(c) Ability
(d) Communication
(e) Demeanour

A

(c) Ability

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32
Q

Which of these is one of the four main tenets in ethics?

(a) Veracity
(b) Confidentiality
(c) Nonmaleficence
(d) Accountability
(e) Fidelity

A

(c) Nonmaleficence

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33
Q

How many layers does the Ethical Grid have?

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 5
(e) 4

A

(e) 4

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34
Q

COSHH is an abbreviation for

(a) Campaign of Safety for Human Health
(b) Control of Substances Hazardous to Health
(c) Committee of Safety for Harmful Hazards
(d) Control of Solutions that Harm Humans
(e) Control Statutes for Human Health

A

(b) Control of Substances Hazardous to Health

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35
Q

Which organelle is enlarged in Mucopolysaccharidosis type IIIA?

(a) Nucleus
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Lysosome
(d) Golgi apparatus

A

(c) Lysosome

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36
Q

Concerning the cervical transformation zone, which of the following
statements are true?
(a) It is formed between the “new” squamo-columnar junction and the
original squamo columnar junction
(b) It is the area of the cervix where abnormalities are least likely to occur
(c) It is lined by metaplastic epithelium
(d) It is vulnerable to infection by Human Papilloma Virus

A

(d) It is vulnerable to infection by Human Papilloma Virus

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37
Q

Connective tissue is formed by:

(a) Goblet cells
(b) Nerve
(c) Matrix
(d) All the above

A

(d) All the above

38
Q

Which of the following is a connective tissue pathology?

(a) Huntington’s disease
(b) Duchenne’s disease
(c) Chondroma
(d) Cardiomyopathy

A

(c) Chondroma

39
Q

Nephritic syndrome results from:

(a) Disturbances in glomerular permeability
(b) Urinary calculi
(c) Renal tubular dysfunction
(d) Disturbances in glomerular structure

A

(a) Disturbances in glomerular permeability

40
Q

Increased levels of calcium ions in vascular smooth muscle cells results in:

(a) Increased vascular permeability
(b) Vasoconstriction
(c) Vasodilation
(d) Inflammation

A

(c) Vasodilation

41
Q

Meningitis is

(a) a cancer of the nervous system
(b) a blood disease transmitted by mosquitos
(c) an inflammation of the membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord
(d) an infection of the liver

A

(c) an inflammation of the membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord

42
Q

Which lobe of the brain is primarily involved in processing visual stimuli?

(a) Parietal lobe
(b) Frontal lobe
(c) Temporal lobe
(d) Occipital lobe

A

(d) Occipital lobe

43
Q

Which of the following is the most common lung cancer in the UK?

(a) small cell lung cancer
(b) adenocarcinoma
(c) squamous cell carcinoma
(d) mesothelioma

A

(c) squamous cell carcinoma

44
Q

What part of the brain primarily controls coordination?

(a) Cerebellum
(b) Amygdala
(c) Hypothalamus
(d) Frontal lobe

A

(a) Cerebellum

45
Q

The muscles in the eye responsible for dilating the pupil are?

(a) Smooth muscle
(b) Cardiac muscle
(c) Optic muscle
(d) Striated muscle

A

(a) Smooth muscle

46
Q

What are the steps in Evidence Based Practice?

A

1) Asking the right question
2) Aquire the evidence
3) Appraising the evidence
4) Acting on the evidence

47
Q

Name 3 types of muscle cell

A

Smooth
Cardiac
Skeletal

48
Q

If a student persistently behaves in an unacceptable manner the University may apply the rule for:

a. Professional requirements
b. Unprofessional conduct
c. Professional standards
d. Professional unsuitability
e. Unprofessional behaviour

A

d. Professional unsuitability

49
Q

Which of the following is the optimal pH for lysosomal enzyme activity?

a. pH 7.4
b. pH 9
c. pH 4.5
d. pH 2

A

c. pH 4.5

50
Q

Storage of heparan sulphate leads mainly to which of the following phenotypes in a MPSIIIB patient?

a. Bone abnormalities
b. Joint problems
c. Brain Dysfunction
d. All of the above

A

c. Brain Dysfunction

51
Q

Considering the UK National Human Papilloma Virus vaccination programme, which of the following statements are correct?

a. Boys and girls were included in the vaccination programme
b. The vaccination programme is aimed at girls aged 12 to 13 years of age
c. Girls who have been vaccinated are not required to have cervical smears
d. The first cohort of girls vaccinated will enter the NHS cervical screening programme in 2016

A

b. The vaccination programme is aimed at girls aged 12 to 13 years of age

52
Q

When considering the “prevalence” of cervical cancers in the UK, which of the following statements are correct?

a. Prevalence is defined as “the proportion of a population found to have a condition”
b. Prevalence is usually expressed as a fraction, as a percentage or as the number of cases per 10,000 or 100,000 people
c. Prevalence is a measure of new cases arising in a population over a given period
d. Cervical cancer is the most common female cancer in women under the age of 35 years

A

A, B and D

C incidence is the measure of new cases arising in a population over a given period

53
Q

An example of connective tissue is:

a. Skin
b. Heart
c. Hair
d. Blood

A

d. Blood

54
Q

Epithelial tissue can be classified by:

a. Cell shape
b. Numbers of cells in one layer
c. Protein content
d. Number of goblet cells

A

a. Cell shape

55
Q

Which of the following surrounds the entire muscle?

a. Endomysium
b. Perimysium
c. Epimysium
d. Exomysium

A

b. Perimysium

56
Q

Which of the following is a risk factor for stroke?

a. Hypertension
b. Hypotension
c. Thrombocytopenia
d. Exercise

A

a. Hypertension

57
Q

Rhabdomyosarcoma is a type of cancer that originates from:

a. Smooth muscle progenitor cells
b. Haematopoietic progenitor cells
c. Skeletal muscle progenitor cells
d. Renal progenitor cells

A

c. Skeletal muscle progenitor cells

58
Q

In humans, sperm – oocyte fusion takes place in the:

a. Anterior uterus
b. Ampulla
c. Cervical crypts
d. Fimbriae

A

b. Ampulla

59
Q

The number of oocytes (eggs) a women has is referred to as her:

a. Egg cache
b. Ovarian reservoir
c. Follicular reserve
d. Ovarian reserve

A

d. Ovarian reserve

60
Q

Which is neuropathological hallmark of Parkinson’s disease?

a. Lewy bodies
b. Amyloid plaques
c. Atherosclerotic plaques
d. Neurofibrillary tangles

A

a. Lewy bodies

61
Q

Exfoliative cytology includes:

a. urine
b. respiratory samples
c. serous fluids
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

62
Q

A 54 year-old man suffers from respiratory distress. He is a non-smoker and leads a relatively healthy lifestyle. He presents with chest pain, haemoptysis, anaemia and hoarseness. On examination of the patient’s history, it is found that he worked in a crocidolite mine for 15 years. Taking into account these
findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?
a. mesothelioma
b. chronic bronchitis
c. tuberculosis
d. ARDS

A

a. mesothelioma

63
Q

What disease is characterised by the build-up of iron in the liver?

a. Diabetes
b. Haemochromatosis
c. Hepatitis B
d. Hepatic adenocarcinoma

A

b. Haemochromatosis

64
Q

Which of the following is the main receptor involved in the cellular uptake of lysosomal enzymes?

a. Tumour necrosis factor receptor
b. Mannose-6-phosphate receptor
c. Receptor for advanced glycation end-products
d. Low-density lipoprotein receptor Incorrect

A

b. Mannose-6-phosphate receptor

65
Q

Hurler’s syndrome is a severe from of which type of Mucopolysaccharidosis (MPS)?

a. MPSVI
b. MPSIIIB
c. MPSI
d. MPSIIIA

A

c. MPSI

66
Q

Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy is characterized by the abscence of:

a. troponin
b. actin
c. tropomyosin
d. myosin
e. dystropin

A

e. dystropin

67
Q

Where do deposits of amyloid come from in the brain?

a. from the breakdown of acetylcholine (ACH)
b. from alpha synuclein
c. from glial cells
d. from the breakdown of the beta amyloid precursor protein (ß-APP)
e. from toxins in the diet

A

d. from the breakdown of the beta amyloid precursor protein (ß-APP)

68
Q

Which of the following is an infectious form of dementia?

a. Lewy body dementia
b. frontotemporal dementia
c. Picks disease
d. Huntington’s disease
e. Kuru

A

e. Kuru

69
Q

Which of the following disorders is transmitted by a single dominant gene?

a. Huntington’s disease
b. Lewy body dementia
c. Parkinson’s disease
d. Pick’s disease
e. Alzheimer’s disease

A

a. Huntington’s disease

70
Q

What are the major functions that cerebellum within the brain coordinates?
Select one:
a. memory and learning
b. visual processing
c. language
d. voluntary movements such as balance and posture

A

d. voluntary movements such as balance and posture

71
Q

How many people in the UK over the age of 50 years are estimated to suffer from Parkinson’s disease?

a. 1 in 3
b. 1 in 100,000
c. 1 in 50,000
d. 1 in 5
e. 1 in 500

A

e. 1 in 500

72
Q

Which part of the central nervous system is more involved in memory formation?

a. cerebellum
b. hippocampus
c. spinal cord
d. brain stem
e. thalamus

A

b. hippocampus

73
Q

What part of the brain primarily controls coordination?

a. hypothalamus
b. amygdala
c. frontal lobe
d. cerebellum

A

d. cerebellum

74
Q

Which lobe of the brain is primarily involved in processing visual stimuli?

a. Occipital lobe
b. Parietal lobe
c. Frontal lobe
d. Temporal lobe

A

a. Occipital lobe

75
Q

Which region of the brain is most closely associate with regulation of emotions of fear and aggression?

a. occipital lobe
b. amygdala
c. substantia nigra
d. thalamus

A

b. amygdala

76
Q

Which type of cells is present in the thyroid?

a. follicular epithelial
b. mesothelial
c. bronchial epithelial
d. urothelial

A

a. follicular epithelial

77
Q

Mesothelial cells are typically found in which type of Non-gynaecological specimen?

a. serous fluid
b. sputum
c. fine needle aspiration (FNA) parotid
d. urine

A

a. serous fluid

78
Q

What type of cells line serous cavities:

a. Mesothelial cells
b. Transitional cells
c. Bronchial epithelial cells
d. Lymphocytes

A

a. Mesothelial cells

79
Q

A pattern of glomerular disease is?

a. circular
b. complete
c. surface
d. segmental

A

d. segmental

80
Q

Nephrotic syndrome is characterised by:

a. Uraemia
b. Oliguria
c. Oedema
d. Haematuria

A

c. Oedema

81
Q

Which of the following is not a common feature of acute diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (ADPG):

a. presence of neutrophils
b. presence of immune complexes
c. endothelial cell proliferation
d. basement membrane thickening
e. mild meangial cell proliferation

A

d. basement membrane thickening

82
Q

Acute diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (ADGN) is usually processed by:

a. candida albicans infection
b. campylobacter infection
c. streptococcal infection
d. acute kidney injury

A

c. streptococcal infection

83
Q 
The upper respiratory tract includes:
Select one:
a. alveoli
b. nose
c. bronchi
d. lungs
A

b. nose

84
Q 
Which two of these does CPA accredit
Select one or more:
a. Hospital Trusts
b. External Quality Assessment Schemes
c. Primary Care Trusts
d. Clinical Pathology Services
e. Outpatient Departments
A

b. External Quality Assessment Schemes

d. Clinical Pathology Services

85
Q 
Quality management in the pathology laboratories does not cover the following area
Select one:
a. Facilities
b. Customer service
c. Personnel
d. Purchase of laboratory buildings
e. Documents & records
A

d. Purchase of laboratory buildings

86
Q 
An audit following a sample through the laboratory is called
Select one:
a. Sample audit
b. Test audit
c. Vertical audit
d. Horizontal audit
e. Examination audit
A

c. Vertical audit

87
Q 
Which of the following steps is not in the Clinical Audit Cycle
Select one:
a. Re-audit
b. Data collection
c. Select topic
d. Discuss the outcome
e. Implement change
A

d. Discuss the outcome

88
Q

Which one of these statements is incorrect. Clinical Governance:
Select one:
a. Implements structures to identify and implement quality improvement
b. Has a role of identifying personnel responsible for poor quality management
c. Is how health services are held accountable for safety, quality and effectiveness of clinical care for patients
d. Should establish an inclusive learning culture for improvement
e. Involves health care staff, patients and the public in quality improvement

A

b. Has a role of identifying personnel responsible for poor quality management

89
Q 
Which one of these criteria is not necessary for an audit programme?
Select one:
a. timely
b. achievable
c. realistic
d. general
e. measuable
A

d. general

90
Q 
Which type of research is considered the 'Gold Standard'?
Select one:
a. randomised controlled trials
b. expert opinion
c. case study
d. cohort
e. cross sectional studies
A

a. randomised controlled trials

91
Q 
Rhabdomyosarcoma is a type of cancer that originates from:
Select one:
a. Renal progenitor cells
b. Haematopoietic progenitor cells
c. Smooth muscle progenitor cells
d. Skeletal muscle progenitor cells
A

d. Skeletal muscle progenitor cells

Cellular science (2 decks)

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