Exam questions Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Factor D protein is a part of the?

A

Alternate complement activation pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

This antibody is produced by the adaptive immune system and is secreted in mucous

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are exotoxins?

A

Proteins that are secreted by bacteria that cause damage to the host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which gram stain has a thick cell wall?

A

Gram positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) is ___ found in ___

A

A PAMP, the outer membranes of gram negative bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which complement protein acts as an opsonin (promotes phagocytosis by macrophages, dendritic cells and neutrophils?)

A

C3b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Virulence is…

A

The measure of the severity of a disease caused by an organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The process where an activated T or B cell is stimulated to grow and divide

A

Clonal expansion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

_____ antigens acquired through phagocytosis are presented to the adaptive immune system via ____

A

Exogenous, MHC class II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

This protein binds antigen on the surfaces of microorganisms and promotes phagocytosis

A

IgG antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

During an inflammatory response _____ activates _____ which results in the release of _____ from mast ells and dilation of capillaries at infection

A

Kallikrein, Bradykinin, Histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

______ are adaptive immune cells that recognize cells infected by virus

A

CD8 T-cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A vaccine composed of viral proteins linked to a carrier protein which is given intramuscularly every year.
Immunization type and vaccine type

A

Active immunization, subunit vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are lipopolysaccharide, lipoteichoic acid and peptidoglycan?

A

PAMPs that stimulate an innate immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In general, ____ are the best immunogens, _____ are weaker immunogens and _____ are poor immunogens

A

Proteins, carbohydrates and lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is not a mechanism of antibiotic activity?

A

Inhibition of glucose import

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a mechanism of antibiotic activity?

A

Inhibition of cell wall biosynthesis, translation and DNA replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Transfer of genetic material with cell-cell contact is _______

A

Conjugation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Transfer of genetic material via bacteriophage is ______

A

Transduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Higher phenol coefficient means

A

It is more effective at killing a bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the lymphatic system do

A

The lymphatic system pumps lymph fluid through a system of vessels and ducts using smooth muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What chemicals from invading microorganism cause fever?

A

Exogenous pyrogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is V, D and J recombination referring to?

A

Antibody gene coding regions are combined to produce antibody that responds to different antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The primary function of ______ is to modulate the immune response by secreting cytokines and interacting with B cells

A

CD4 T-cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are traits of T cell receptors?

A

They bind specific antigens, they interact with antigen-bound MHC II protein, and they are surface proteins of T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Is a higher or lower ID50 considered more pathogenic?

A

A lower ID50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

T-dependent antigens are large repetitive structures that

A

are sufficient to directly activate B cells to make IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

MHC I proteins….

A

present cell, viral and intracellular bacterial antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Pathogenicity is…

A

the measure of ability of an organism to cause disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What type of transmission is characterized by receiving disease from a bug?

A

Indirect transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does protective antigen of B. anthracis do?

A

It interacts with edema factor (EF) and lethal factor (LF) allowing both proteins to enter the cytoplasm of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Scarlet fever is a complication of _____ and is a result of the production and secretion of ______

A

Streptococcal pharyngitis, Spe toxin

33
Q

________ is an intracellular pathogen

A

Legionella pneumophila, Shigella, Listeria monocytogenes

34
Q

What does Listeria do to avoid diestion?

A

It escapes the phagosome

35
Q

What does legionella do to avoid digestion?

A

It blocks the lysosome from fusing with the phagosome

36
Q

Food poisoning due to B.cereus infection is

A

point source spread

37
Q

What does the Dot/Icm system in legionella do?

A

It inhibits the fusion of the phagosome with the lysosome

38
Q

What is TSST an example of?

A

A superantigen

39
Q

What stain does mycobacterium tuberculosis require?

A

Acid-fast stain

40
Q

What antibiotic is used for S.pyogenes?

A

Penicillin

41
Q

What symptom is caused by Listeria that is not diarrhea, nausea, fever and myalgia?

A

Miscarriages

42
Q

Diphtheria toxin:

A

Inhibits translation

43
Q

Does tuberculosis have a fast or slow doubling time?

A

slow

44
Q

Which cell types are observed in a fibrotic caseous granuloma in latent tuberculosis

A

macrophages, CD-4 T cells and CD8 T cells

45
Q

What types of infections can S.aureus cause?

A

Cutaneous, sinus, ear, and foodborne illnesses

46
Q

Emetic food poisoning by B.cereus is _____ while diarrheal is _______

A

Intoxication, infection

47
Q

Alveolar macrophages

A

Keep the alveoli of the lung sterile by phagocytosing and destroying bacteria

48
Q

Can endospores secrete toxin?

A

No, they need to infect vegetative cells

49
Q

Tracheal cytotoxin is a virulence factor of ______ that inhibits mucociliary clearance in upper respiratory tract

A

Bordetella pertussis

50
Q

______ shows seasonal incidence in the summer

A

Otitis externa

51
Q

How does S.pneumoniae avoid immune clearance?

A

It has a capsule that inhibits complement binding and lysis and phagocytosis

52
Q

Does S.pyogenes have a vaccine?

A

No

53
Q

What is an identifying symptom of diptheria?

A

White pseudomembrane on nasopharynx

54
Q

What drugs are used against B. anthracis

A

Ciprofloxacin or Doxycycline

55
Q

What is the treatment process for active tuberculosis?

A

First 8 weeks:
- Isoniazid
- Ethambutol
- Pyrazinamide
- Rifampicin
Next 26 weeks:
- Isoniazid
- Rifampicin

56
Q

Treatment process for latent tuberculosis?

A

36 weeks of Isoniazid or 12 weeks of Isoniazid and Rifampentine

57
Q

Testing for tuberculosis

A

Mantoux test, chest X-ray and IFNy release test. PCR test, sputum culture with acid fast stain

58
Q

Which E.coli is intracellular?

A

Urinary Pathogenic E.coli

59
Q

______ is an intracellular pathogen that replicates freely in the cytoplasm

A

Shigella dysenteriae

60
Q

Can clostridium tetani form endospores?

A

yes

61
Q

What is the natural reservoir for N. gonorrheae

A

Humans

62
Q

What is a symptom of foodborne botulism?

A

Flaccid paralysis

63
Q

Infection by _____ may cause Typhoid fever

A

Salmonella enterica Typhi

64
Q

Foodborne botulism is caused by….

A

food contaminated with botulinum toxin

65
Q

C. perfringens alpha toxin is a _____ that ____________

A

cytolytic toxin that damages cell membranes

66
Q

What is common among all clostridium species?

A

They all form endospores

67
Q

What does Shiga toxin do?

A

Inhibits protein synthesis

68
Q

Which E.coli expresses Shiga toxin?

A

EHEC

69
Q

What is the sylvatic cycle

A

The cycle of infection of wild rodents by Yersinia pestis

70
Q

What is not a common characteristic of Enterobacteriaceae

A

They all ferment lactose

71
Q

What are common characteristics of enterobacteriaceae

A

All facultative anaerobes, all gram neg, all rods

72
Q

During EPEC infections, _____ binds bacterial protein _____ leading to pedestal formation

A

Tir, Intimin

73
Q

What happens when S. enterica lacks the SP-2 pathogenicity island?

A

It cannot replicate intracellularly

74
Q

What is a test done for C. perfringens?

A

Nagler reaction

75
Q

What are common symptoms and TSI slant of Shigella dysenteriae

A

Stool with blood and pus, tenesmus, K/A.

76
Q

What toxin does Shigella dysenteriae release?

A

Shiga toxin

77
Q

What agar is used for N. gonorrhea?

A

Thayer-martin or Martin-lewis

78
Q

What intracellular pathogen modifies the phagosome and establishes a reproductive vacuole

A

S. enterica

79
Q

Antibiotics for Yersinia pestis

A

Streptomycin or gentamycin