Exam Questions

Question 1

1)Noncommunicating hydrocephalus is caused by:

A) Excess CSF production
B) Obstruction of flow within the ventricular system
C) Obstruction of flow in the subarachnoid space
D) Impaired CSF reabsorption in the arachnoid granulations

Answer 1

B) Obstruction of flow within the ventricular system

Question 2

All of the following are a part of Cushing’s triad with the exception of:

A) Hypertension
B) Bradycardia
C) Irregular respirations
D) Headache

Answer 2

D) Headache

Question 3

3) Pain, temperature, and crude touch are conveyed by:

A) Anterolateral pathways
B) Posterior column-medial lemniscal pathway
C) Spinothalamic tract
D) Dorsal root ganglia

Answer 3

A) Anterolateral pathways

Question 4

4) The diencephalon is comprised of all of the following except:

A) Thalamus
B) Basal forebrain nuclei
C) Hypothalamus
D) Epithalamus

Answer 4

B) Basal forebrain nuclei

Question 5

5) __________ can increase intracranial pressure, causing a headache which may be worse when lying down during the night.

A) Papilledema
B) Neoplasm
C) Post lumbar puncture
D) Aneurysm

Answer 5

B) Neoplasm

Question 6

1. Kernohan’s phenomenon causes _______ that is _______ to the lesion due to uncal herniation.

a. Impaired sensation; ipsilateral
b. Hemiplegia; contralateral
c. Impaired sensation; contralateral
d. Hemiplegia; ipsilateral

Answer 6

d. Hemiplegia; ipsilateral

Question 7

An dissection of the internal carotid artery would result in disruption of blood flow through the ______ and ______cerebral arteries?

a. Posterior; inferior
b. Middle; Posterior
c. Anterior; Middle
d. Anterior; Posterior

Answer 7

c. Anterior; Middle

Question 8

The _____ fissure separates the frontal and temporal lobes, while the _____ sulcus separates the parietal lobe from the frontal lobe.

a. Central; Parieto-occipital
b. Sylvian; Central
c. Insular; Intraparietal
d. Central; Insular

Answer 8

b. Sylvian; Central

Question 9

Trace the path of the corticospinal tract.

a. Primary somatosensory cortex, posterior limb of internal capsule, pyramidal decussation, lower motor neuron, upper motor neuron, skeletal muscle
b. Primary motor cortex, pyramidal decussation, upper motor neuron, lower motor neuron, skeletal muscle
c. Primary somatosensory cortex, inferior limb of internal capsule, lower motor neuron, upper motor neuron, skeletal muscle
d. Primary motor cortex, posterior limb of internal capsule, pyramidal decussation, upper motor neuron, lower motor neuron, skeletal muscle

Answer 9

d. Primary motor cortex, posterior limb of internal capsule, pyramidal decussation, upper motor neuron, lower motor neuron, skeletal muscle

Question 10

Which neurotransmitter has cell bodies in the midbrain with projections to the striatum, prefrontal cortex, limbic cortex, nucleus acumbens, and amygdala and plays a role in neuromodulation?

a. Serotonin
b. Norepinephrine
c. Dopamine
d. Acetylcholine

Answer 10

c. Dopamine

Question 11

Which of the following is not one of the three major divisions of the developing brain?

a. Prosencephalon
b. Mesencephalon
c. Rhombencephalon
d. Diencephalon

Answer 11

• Remember PM&R

d. Diencephalon

Question 12

Bell’s Palsy is associated with which cranial nerve?

a. Trigeminal
b. Vagus
c. Accessory
d. Facial

Answer 12

d. Facial

Question 13

An 87-year-old female presents to your office with family reports that the patient was in their usual state-of-health until approximately 2 months ago. Per family, she used to be “very smart” and manage her own IADLs. Currently, she sleeps most of the day, demonstrates short-term memory difficulties, and has “weird language functions”. Per family, she was experiencing falls several days per week following her decline in cognitive abilities. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Subdural hematoma
b. Stroke
c. Dementia
d. Delirium

Answer 13

a. Subdural hematoma

Question 14

4. What occurs five times more often in males than females?

a. Tension headache
b. Cluster headache
c. Complicated migraine
d. Post-traumatic headache

Answer 14

b. Cluster headache

Question 15

Which of the following is not a common symptom and/or sign of elevated intracranial pressure?

a. Hypertension
b. Papilledema
c. Myopia
d. Irritability

Answer 15

c. Myopia

Question 16

Myelin-forming glial cells in the CNS are called:

a. Schwann cells
b. Oligodendrocytes
c. Astrocytes
d. Microglia

Answer 16

b. Oligodendrocytes

Question 17

The lateral ventricles communicate with the third ventricle via the:

a. Interrventricular foramen of Monro
b. Lateral foramina of Luschka - third to fourth
c. Midline foramen of Magendie
d. Cerebral aqueduct - lateral to fourth

Answer 17

a. Interrventricular foramen of Monro

Question 18

On neuroimaging, a type of bleed that would be classically characterized by a lens-shaped biconvex hematoma is the:

a. Acute SDH
b. SAH
c. Chronic SDH
d. EDH

Answer 18

d. EDH

Question 19

All of the following are the most common locations for hypertensive hemorrhage except:

a. Basal ganglia
b. Thalamus
c. Cerebellum
d. Hippocampus

Answer 19

d. Hippocampus

Question 20

The _______ relays information to the primary visual cortex, while the ______ relays information to the auditory cortex

a. LGN, MGN
b. MGN, LGN
c. VPL, VPM
d. VPM, VPL

Answer 20

a. LGN, MGN

Question 21

The anatomic connections of the amygdala and hippocampus are alike in many ways. Which of the following is not true?

a. Both are strongly interconnected with frontal and temporal limbic cortex
b. Both have indirect access to unimodal cortical association areas
c. Both project to BF and hypothalamus
d. Both connect directly with each other

Answer 21

b. Both have indirect access to unimodal cortical association areas

Question 22

Which cranial nerve is responsible for mastication?

a. Vagus
b. Trigeminal
c. Glossopharyngeal
d. Facial

Answer 22

b. Trigeminal

Question 23

Which of the following is not a feature of Wallenberg’s syndrome?

a. Swallowing difficulties
b. Headache
c. Dizziness
d. Nausea and vomiting

Answer 23

b. Headache

Question 24

A 22-year-old female presents to your office following a recent “brain issue,” per PCP referral. Upon examination, you observe that in the context of intact hearing, she requires repetition on several task administrations. When asked to repeat sentences, however, the patient’s performance is relatively intact. The most fitting syndrome is?

a. Anomic aphasia
b. Transcortical motor aphasia
c. Transcortical sensory aphasia
d. Conduction aphasia

Answer 24

c. Transcortical sensory aphasia

Question 25

Jim is a 45-year-old diagnosed with HIV at age 30. He presented to Neurology recently with a chronic headache. Medical workup demonstrated elevated white blood count, and he was subsequently treated with intravenous amphortericin B, followed by oral fluconazole. Given this information, what is the most likely etiology of his presentation?

a. Toxoplasmosis
b. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder
c. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
d. Cryptococcal meningitis

Answer 25

Cryptococcal meningitis

key: Meds are to treat fungal infection

Question 26

The _____stream projects to the parieto-occipital cortex and analyzes ______ , while the _____stream projects to the occipitotemporal cortex and analyzes _____.

a. Dorsal, spatial relationships; Ventral, form
b. Ventral, spatial relationships; Dorsal, form
c. Ventral, form; Dorsal, spatial relationships
d. Dorsal, faces; Ventral, motion

Answer 26

a. Dorsal, spatial relationships; Ventral, form

Question 27

All of the following are non-psychiatric causes for formed visual hallucinations, EXCEPT:

a. Withdrawal from alcohol or sedatives
b. Focal seizures
c. Simple migraine
d. Midbrain ischemia

Answer 27

c. Simple migraine

Question 28

A person with a stroke impacting the inferior division of the MCA is likely to present with ______scotoma due to damage/restricted blood flow to the ______lobe.

a. Contralateral inferior quadrantanopia; parietal
b. Contralateral superior quadrantanopia; parietal
c. Contralateral inferior quadrantanopia; temporal
d. Contralateral superior quadrantanopia; temporal

Answer 28

d. Contralateral superior quadrantanopia; temporal

Question 29

A 32-year-old female who lives in Michigan presents to the ED with acute eye pain, poor color vision, and monocular central scotoma. What is the likely etiology?

a. Optic neuritis due to a retinal infarct
b. Glioblastoma
c. Optic neuritis due to multiple sclerosis
d. Glaucoma

Answer 29

c. Optic neuritis due to multiple sclerosis

Question 30

All the following indicate that ischemia of the cerebral hemispheres is more likely than ischemia in the brainstem EXCEPT:

a. Crossed signs (e.g., weakness on one side of the face and contralateral body)
b. Seizures
c. Hemineglect
d. Aphasia

Answer 30

a. Crossed signs (e.g., weakness on one side of the face and contralateral body)

Question 31

Lesions of the trigeminal nuclei in the brainstem cause ______ loss of facial sensation to pain and temperature because the primary sensory fibers _________ before entering the nucleus.

a. Contralateral; do cross
b. Ipsilateral; do not cross
c. Contralateral; do not cross
d. Ipsilateral; do cross

Answer 31

b. Ipsilateral; do not cross

Question 32

Damage to the ______ typically causes a bitemporal hemianopia.

a. Optic tract
b. Temporal lobe
c. Optic chiasm
d. Parietal lobe

Answer 32

c. Optic chiasm

Question 33

The ______ nerve is the most commonly injured cranial nerve in head injury, most likely due to its long course and thin caliber, making it susceptible to shear injury.

a. Oculomotor
b. Abducens
c. Trochlear
d. Optic

Answer 33

c. Trochlear

Question 34

A patient presents to your office with a history of memory problems, vivid visual hallucinations, eye movement abnormalities, and ataxia. Which syndrome is associated with these symptoms?

a. Weber’s syndrome
b. Claude’s syndrome
c. Wallenberg’s syndrome
d. Top-of-the-basilar syndrome

Answer 34

d. Top-of-the-basilar syndrome

Question 35

According to process-specificity views, which neuropsychological task would you give to assess the ventral regions involved in the dorsal-ventral distinction of frontal working memory systems?

a. WAIS-IV digit span forward
b. Trail Making Test A
c. WAIS-IV letter-number sequencing
d. Paced Auditory Serial Addition Test

Answer 35

a. WAIS-IV digit span forward

Question 36

You collide with another player during your intramural soccer game and lose consciousness. You report to the ER and they see no sign of serious injury. The instruct you to rest and for your spouse to keep a close eye on you for the next 24 hours. Why is this their recommendation? Blumenfeld 147

a. Hydrocephalus can develop slowly in the hours to days following even a mild injury.
b. Seizure risk is high in the first 24 hours.
c. Sudden death can occur, albeit rarely, due to rapidly progressing swelling of the brain
    d. Symptoms of intracranial hemorrhage can be delayed by hours after the event.

Answer 36

d. Symptoms of intracranial hemorrhage can be delayed by hours after the event.

Question 37

Pure word deafness results from ____

a. destruction of primary auditory cortex
b. damage to auditory radiations within the acoustic nerve
c. bilateral disconnection of auditory receptive areas from Wernicke’s area
d. disconnection of Wernicke’s area from semantic regions of the anterior temporal lobe.

Answer 37

c. bilateral disconnection of auditory receptive areas from Wernicke’s area.

This lesion prevents the speech signal from undergoing phonologic decoding in Wernicke’s area, but leaves intact sound decoding for nonspeech sounds. (Study CH 4)

Question 38

Which route of administration causes most rapid central nervous system penetration by opioids or stimulants?

a. smoking
b. inhalation/nasal
c. injection
d. rectal

Answer 38

C - injection.

opioids and stimulants cross the BBB most readily when injected. (Study ch 36).

Question 39

An individual is given a battery of tests with at least three tests in each of five cognitive domains. he performs below the 10th percentile on one test in each of two separate cognitive domains. How do you interpret this pattern of performance?

a. the patient is clearly impaired in two important cognitive domains; I diagnose accordingly and provide treatment recommendations in my report.
b. the patient is essentially intact in almost all cognitive domains; I make no diagnosis and clarify in my report that no treatment is deemed necessary.
c. the patient may be impaired in one or more domains I need more tests to be sure and will send a request for that in a report to the insurance company
d. this may be due to normal variability. unless a disorder is otherwise indicated by history, I make no diagnosis but comment on the variability in my report.

Answer 39

d. this may be due to normal variability. unless a disorder is otherwise indicated by history, I make no diagnosis but comment on the variability in my report.

As stated in the section on interpretation of abnormal test results, a finding of one or more low to very low scores and a relatively large battery is common in normative samples without neurological impairment. Thus, unless the findings fit a profile that is consistent with an impaired domain or expected impairment based on medical history or presumed etiology (i.e. variability across scores inattention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder), The findings should not be over interpreted but considered in this light and discussed as possible normal variants in the interpretation section of the report (stucky chapter 8)

Question 40

In contrast to women with multiple sclerosis, men with the disease may show _______

a. greater cognitive impairment
b. more relapses
c. less neurologic deterioration
d. fewer lesions on MRI

Answer 40

a. greater cognitive impairment (Stucky ch 24)

Men tend to get MS less frequently than women, but more frequently show progressive disease courses with more cognitive impairment.

Question 41

A patient can both name and match-to-sample a visually presented object. She cannot remember where in a three by three spatial array the object was located. According to “top-bottom theory”, the lesion is likely somewhere in the ______

a. forceps major
b. dorsal stream
c. ventral stream
d. forceps minor

Answer 41

b. dorsal stream

The impaired task requires remembering a spatial location, not identifying an object. The parietal lobes are part of the dorsal stream. see chapter 4

Question 42

Which of the following would be expected to show the lowest vulnerability to the effects of anoxial hypoxia?

a. Areas supplied by the lenticulostriate arteries
b. watershed regions between the major arteries
c. regions with high metabolic demand
d. area of bifurcation of the major branches of the middle cerebral artery

Answer 42

d. area of bifurcation of the major branches of the middle cerebral artery

Areas of bifurcation of major cerebral arteries show higher risk for stroke, but are less vulnerable than the other regions listed to the effects of anoxia and hypoxia. See chapter 28

Question 43

which statement best defines cerebral palsy?

a. It is a group of brain-based disorders characterized by motor impairments
b. it is a disease process that results in abnormal motor control.
c. it is a group of disorders that causes primary damage to the muscles.
d. it is an umbrella term for disorders that result from perinatal asphyxia.

Answer 43

a. It is a group of brain-based disorders characterized by motor impairments

Cerebral palsy is not considered a disease. It is caused by primary damage to the brain and most often results from prenatal causes. See chapter 19

Question 44

A 23-year-old patient with a known history of reading disorder (dyslexia) is referred for evaluation of possible major depression or other mood disorder. The neuropsychologist would like to administer the MMPI-2-RF to assist in diagnostic decision-making. There is no opportunity for professional audio presentation of the items via computer. Which of the following best describes how the neuropsychologist should proceed when electing to administer the MMPI-2-RF to this patient?

a. Administer a measure of reading achievement to ensure that the patient’s reading level is no less than a 10th grade level of ability.
b. read the test items aloud to the patient, repeating the items as necessary, to ensure adequate comprehension of item content.
c. administer a reading achievement task to ensure no less than a fifth grade reading level.
d. Administration of the MMPI-2-RF is not appropriate for use with this patient.

Answer 44

c. administer a reading achievement task to ensure no less than a fifth grade reading level.

It would be beneficial to administer a measure of reading achievement in this case as test items of the MMPI 2 RF require between a fifth and an eighth grade reading level. The clinician is also able to interpret VRIN-r and TRIN-r to establish whether the patients reading difficulties in any way resulted in non content responsivity that might invalidate the profile. See ch 10

Question 45

Social cognition is a relatively new area of study and epilepsy, despite the high incidence of comorbidity between autism spectrum disorder and epilepsy. Studies have shown that, even among persons with epilepsy who do not have autism spectrum disorder, that emotional recognition and theory of mind are affected. Which of the following is true about social cognition in persons with epilepsy?
a. Social cognition is adversely affected in temporal lobe epilepsy, but not other epilepsy syndromes.

b. Social cognition is normal in persons with temporal lobe epilepsy, but affected in other epilepsy syndromes.
c. Social cognition is affected in persons with both temporal lobe epilepsy and other epilepsy syndromes.
d. Social cognition is affected in children with epilepsy, but is age dependent and generally normal in adults.

Answer 45

c. Social cognition is affected in persons with both temporal lobe epilepsy and other epilepsy syndromes.

Social cognition is disrupted by underlying neural networks supporting cognition, as well as cognitive and psychosocial factors. Problems with social cognition develop in childhood, and persist into adulthood due to a combination of factors beyond pathology including limited opportunity to engage with peers, learn, and practice social skills. See chapter 22.

Question 46

Currently, the only treatment that extends life expectancy for adrenoleukodystrophy is ________

a. lorenzo’s oil
b. epilepsy surgery
c. pallidotomy
d. hematopoietic stem cell transplant

Answer 46

d. hematopoietic stem cell transplant

This is the only current treatment that extends life expectancy. Lorenzo oil normalizes plasma VL CFA but does not extend life. Pallidotomy and epilepsy surgery are not used as treatments for adrenoleukodystrophy. See chapter 18.

Question 47

A 47-year-old woman presents for testing period she was recently discharged after a two month hospitalization following a bout of depression, binge drinking, and anorexia. She denies any cognitive difficulties. Her sister, however, reported that the patient now has difficulties with orientation, concentration, memory, decision making, and confabulation. The most likely diagnosis is ___________.

a. Korsakoff’s dementia
b. ACoA aneurysm rupture
c. early onset Alzheimer’s disease
d. pseudodementia

Answer 47

a. Korsakoff’s dementia

given the confabulation in light of her recent drinking and vitamin deficiency, you would want to consider korsakoff’s syndrome. See chapter five.

Question 48

a patient with a new onset stroke has become euphoric. Where in the brain is the likely location of the stroke?

a. Bilateral prefrontal cortex
b. left hemisphere
c. right hemisphere
d. mammillary bodies

Answer 48

c. right hemisphere

The likely location of the stroke is in the right hemisphere, as the infarct has damaged cerebral structures that, by nature, are associated with negative valence on stimuli. The inhibitory effect of the damaged cerebral tissues results in positive effect, for example, euphoria, as the natural tendency toward negative valence (dysphoria) is suppressed. See ch 3.

Question 49

compared to typically developing peers, children with high functioning autism spectrum disorder are most likely to display the most severe deficit in which of the following executive functions?

a. Organization and planning
b. planning and initiation
c. inhibition and flexibility
d. planning and inhibition

Answer 49

c. inhibition and flexibility

Children with high functioning autism sometimes have typical organization ability, planning, and rote memory. However, Corbetta and colleagues in 2009 demonstrated that they have difficulty with inhibition and flexibility, as is observed in individuals who perseverate in their interests and have diminished behavioral control. see chapter 14.

Question 50

Depression following moderate to severe traumatic brain injury in adults is not associated with_________.

a. increased cognitive impairment
b. poor functional outcome
c. alcohol use disorders
d. greater initial injury severity

Answer 50

d. greater initial injury severity

Depression is the most common psychological problem following TBI and occurs in 20 to 40% of individuals during the first year and up to 50% of individuals at some stage. Depression can occur at all levels of severity and the prevalence rate does not increase along with injury severity. Risk factors for post TBI depression include minority status, unemployment, low income, low education, and alcohol abuse. Post TBI depression has been linked to the development of increased cognitive impairments, reduced psycho motor speed, and less favorable functional outcomes. See chapter 29.

Question 51

a 65-year-old patient with a six-month history of lung cancer presents with recent onset of seizures, amnesia, and confusion. Of the following, the most probable etiology of cognitive dysfunction is ________.

a. Paraneoplastic syndrome
b. malignant nerve sheath tumor
c. stroke or embolic shower
d. “chemobrain” from chemotherapy treatment

Answer 51

a. Paraneoplastic syndrome

This constellation of symptoms suggests possible autoimmune reaction to cancer; cognitive dysfunction from chemotherapy treatment is typically associated with mild problems with working memory and attention and not with onset of seizures or amnesia. See chapter 25.

Question 52

nuchal rigidity is a hallmark feature of which disorder?

a. Creutzfeldt Jakob disease
b. rabies encephalitis
c. West Nile virus encephalitis
d. bacterial meningitis

Answer 52

d. bacterial meningitis

Nuchal (neck) rigidity is commonly cited as a common presenting symptom in bacterial meningitis. See chapter 23

Question 53

besides cognitive dysfunction, which of the following would you most expect to occur in chronic, untreated vitamin B12 deficiency?

a. Delusions
b. ideomotor apraxia
c. resting tremor
d. impaired proprioception

Answer 53

d. impaired proprioception

when vitamin B12 levels fall below healthy levels physical symptoms, psychological changes and cognitive impairments often develop. Symptoms may include anemia, weakness, fatigue, mood changes, memory loss, and disorientation. Patients may have impaired tactile recognition of pressure and vibration, difficulty walking, and peripheral tingling or numbness (parasthesias) due to damage to the dorsal sections and lateral pyramidal tracts in the spinal cord. Sustained deficiency typically leads to irreversible damage and may be marked by depression, irritability, impaired attention, hallucinations, and symptoms suggestive of dementia, but tremor, delusions, and apraxia are not associated with B12 deficiency. See chapter 27.

Question 54

In vascular dementia, delusions and visual hallucinations____.

a. suggest a toxic or metabolic calls
b. occur in a sizable minority of patients
c. suggest mixed dementia
d. are considered to be quite rare

Answer 54

b. occur in a sizable minority of patients

Hallucinations and delusions do not occur in the majority of patients with vascular dementia but they are not rare. Their presence does not signify anything about etiology. See chapter 31.

Question 55

the 1.5:1 ratio of intellectual disability in males to females is in large part due to diagnosis such as____.

a. Epilepsy
b. Down syndrome
c. traumatic brain injury
d. fragile X syndrome

Answer 55

d. fragile X syndrome

sex-linked genetic factors and male vulnerability to insult might account for some of the gender differences and ID. See chapter 13.

Question 56

your clinic evaluates a 10-year-old Spanish-dominant bilingual boy who is referred from school and is being considered for special academic services upon his return from a medical leave for treatment of a brain tumor.When considering which language to administer the tests and you decide to____.

A. Test in Spanish since Spanish is his dominant language and these results will be most relevant in Group functioning
B. Test in English since that is the language of the setting of the school, where the results will be most relevant
C. Test in both languages to obtain objective samples of language dominance and guide recommendations accordingly
D. forego testing due to the absence of adequate normative data for bilingual children, and rely upon a functional assessment

Answer 56

C. Test in both languages to obtain objective samples of language dominance and guide recommendations accordingly

For a complete evaluation of the test taker’s cognitive and linguistic status, evaluation should be in all of their languages. See Chapter 11.

Question 57

A 21-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia reports that she believes her coworker is poisoning her food. She also reports daily auditory hallucinations. She states that she has stopped eating and attending work. which of the following would be the most important initial treatment consideration for the neuropsychologist?

A. functional capacity assessment
B. Supportive occupational placement program
C. Medication management and adherence
D. Social skills training program

Answer 57

C. Medication management and adherence

Stabilization of symptoms with medication management and increased adherence would be indicated prior to assessment of functional capacity and to maximize benefit from any individualized vocational placement or social skills program. See chapter 35.

Question 58

A 68-year-old, right handed man presents after a stroke with impaired verbal fluency and relatively intact auditory comprehension and repetition. What aphasia syndrome does he have?

A. Wernicke’s aphasia
B. Conduction aphasia
C. Broke as aphasia
D. Transcortical motor aphasia

Answer 58

D. Transcortical motor aphasia

In contrast to brokers aphasia, transcortical motor aphasia is characterized by relatively intact repetition

Question 59

which of the following domains is generally less affected in children following anoxic brain injury?

A. behavioral regulation

b. Visuospatial functioning
c. attention span
d. verbal memory

Answer 59

b. Visuospatial functioning

Anoxic brain injury in children tend to result in significant impaired intellectual abilities, memory impairment, decreased attention span, and behavioral impairments whereas academic achievement, internalizing behavioral problems, and visuospatial deficits were generally less severe. See chapter 28.

Question 60

A 44-year-old divorced woman presents with cognitive, emotional, and pain related complaints. She readily admits to a history of psychiatric treatment starting in her early 20s. Assuming a high likelihood of a mood or anxiety disorder, which of the following would be the most important indicator of severity?
A. scores on objective measures of mood/anxiety
b. Number of symptoms and intensity
c. frequency of hospitalization
d. impairment in social and occupational functioning

Answer 60

d. impairment in social and occupational functioning

The DSM 5 specifies that the symptoms and severity of the disorder must represent a change from previous functioning and calls clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. As such, severity level is determined by the level of impairment on daily life functions. See chapter 34.

Question 61

which of the following evaluation findings is most likely to be seen in progressive supranuclear palsy versus other subcortical movement disorders?

A. visual spatial deficits
B. Pseudobulbar affect
C. Slowed processing speed
D. Marked encoding deficit

Answer 61

B. Pseudobulbar affect

uncontrollable crying or laughing is most likely to be seen in progressive supranuclear palsy, and in fact, there are a number of affective and behavioral symptoms that can be seen in PSP. See chapter 33

Question 62

you are at a professional meeting for psychologists in your community. One of your colleagues indicates that she recently learned that a former patient of hers was referred to you for outpatient assessment and she wants to know how the patient performed. The clinician indicates that she developed a close relationship with the patient and his family and has been concerned about his recovery. You do not have a signed release of information. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?

A. Inform the colleague that it is unethical to request such information
B. Remain collegial but state that you have never heard of the patient
C. Request a release of information signed by the colleague
D. Thank her for her interest but provide no more information

Answer 62

D. Thank her for her interest but provide no more information

Investors Steve direct permission from the patient to release confidential health information. You’re must respect this right even if the person asking is a trusted colleague or superior. You have no idea regarding how the information might be used or if your patient would want the information released to that particular individual. Third party is also do not have an automatic right to the patients P hi even if they were previously involved in the patient care. The HIPAA privacy rule allows providers to legally share vhi for treatment purposes without the patients consent. However, in this case, the information is not for treatment purposes, as it relates to a former patient. Moreover, even if the information was legally allowed according to HIPAA, psychologists have a more restrictive ethical burden to protect confidentiality before communicating with non authorized individuals. Answer B is inappropriate as psychologists are not advised or required to be deceptive when protecting patient confidentiality. Finally, the patient, not the person requesting the information, must sign the consent form for release of information, which is why answer C is incorrect. See chapter seven.

Question 63

in the behavioral variant of frontotemporal dementia, pixels and bodies are commonly found, among other places, in the pyramidal cells of the____.

a. CA1 Section and subiculum of the hippocampus
b. CA1 and CA2 sections of the hippocampus
c. CA2 and CA4 sections of the hippocampus
D. CA4 and subiculum sections of the hippocampus

Answer 63

a. CA1 Section and subiculum of the hippocampus

Pick bodies and pick cells are commonly found in the amygdala, dentate gyrus, pyramidal cells of the CA1 section and subiculum of the hippocampus, hypothalamic lateral tuberal nucleus, dorsomedial region of the putamen, globus pallidus, locus ceruleus, mossy fibers and monodendritic brush cells in the granule cell layer of the cerebellum, and frontal and temporal neocortex. See chapter 32

Question 64

what happens to the mean, standard deviation, and the shape of the distribution when all scores are transformed into Z scores?

a. The set of scores will have a mean of 1, standard deviation of 0, and positively skewed distribution.
b. The set of scores will have a mean of 0, standard deviation of 1, and positively skewed distribution.
c. The set of scores will have a mean of 0, standard deviation of 1, and unchanged distribution
d. the set of scores will have a mean of 1, standard deviation of 1, and unchanged distribution.

Answer 64

c. The set of scores will have a mean of 0, standard deviation of 1, and unchanged distribution

When an entire distribution of scores is transformed into Z scores, the resulting distribution will have a mean of 0, a standard deviation of 1, and the same shape as the original distribution. It is possible to take distributions of data points and depart from true normality in some way and transform them so as to be fit to a normal curve. This may be necessary to solve any one of many problems of distributional shape, And numerous types of transformations may be appropriate depending on the shape of the data (e.g. reciprocals or log transformations for extreme positive skew). every decision to utilize a transformation must be related to an essential measurement concern that can be identified and expressed, and consideration should be made that at times, transformations are inappropriate or misleading. It is essential that the clinician understand the underlying distribution and its impact on the meaning of the selected representation of the performance. See chapter 8

Question 65

The risk of developing schizophrenia in females versus males is____.

a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. About the same
d. Unknown

Answer 65

b. Decreased

See chapter 35

Question 66

in most children with autism spectrum disorders, communicative ability during the 3rd through the fifth years of life____.

a. Improves with time, but contains abnormalities (e.g., echolalia, unusual prosody)
b. Declines to mutism as in Rett’s disorder
c. declines but is marked by an increase in nonverbal communication ability
d. improves to the point of age appropriate levels coupled with appropriate social gestures

Answer 66

a. Improves with time, but contains abnormalities (e.g., echolalia, unusual prosody)

language generally improves between the 3rd and 5th year, but is often marked with abnormalities such as echolalia, unusual prosody, and other language abnormalities associated with ASD’s. See chapter 14

Question 67

pyramidal cerebral palsy is associated with____.

a. Dystonia
b. Athetosis
c. spasticity
d. ataxia

Answer 67

c. spasticity

the other choices are associated with extrapyramidal CP. See chapter 19.

Question 68

you are seeing a child for an evaluation of dyslexia. The most important areas for assessment are phonological awareness, decoding,____.

a. Single word reading, and spelling
b. visual scanning, and spelling
c. reading comprehension, and spelling
d. reading letters in proper orientation and order

Answer 68

a. Single word reading, and spelling

Dyslexia is a specific reading disorder characterized by deficits in phonological awareness, fluent decoding and word reading, and spelling. It has nothing to do with visual processing or letter writing. Reading comprehension is affected, but the noted core deficits are key to assessment. See chapter 15.

Question 69

in Vietnamese culture, nodding is often a polite signal that the person is listening versus being agreeable. Given this tendency, and assuming that language is not an issue due to use of a competent interpreter, what would be the best approach to ensure understanding of test instructions when explaining a test to a first generation Vietnamese examinee?

a. Repeat the instructions more than once to ensure understanding
b. nothing as the neuropsychologist must follow standardized protocol
c. ask the examinee if she understands the instructions
d. ask the examinee to explain the instructions in his or her own words

Answer 69

d. ask the examinee to explain the instructions in his or her own words

Repeating instructions would not necessarily result in understanding, while asking the examinee if he or she understands may result in a polite nod. Following standard protocol would not address understanding and may invalidate the test results or place the examinee at a disadvantage. Asking the examinee to explain his or her understanding will allow the NP to assess the examinees appreciation of the instructions. See Chapter 11.

Question 70

in general, when compared with men with alcohol use disorder, the neuropsychological presentation of women with AUD shows____.

a. Deficits develop after shorter drinking histories
b. reduced verbal abilities
c. better performance on visual perceptual/visual spatial tasks
d. better performance on timed tasks

Answer 70

a. Deficits develop after shorter drinking histories

Although most research on AUD has been conducted with men, research with women has shown comparable neuropsychological deficits. However, these deficits tend to manifest after shorter drinking history as compared to men. See chapter 36

Question 71

when giving a personality inventory to a patient who is 18 years old, one should____.

a. Always administer the adult version of the inventory, in the instance that the patient may need to take the inventory again in the future
b. Always administer the adolescent version as the norms for the adult version tend to over pathologize someone of this age
c. consult specific personality inventory manuals to guide decision making
d. give both the adolescent and adult versions and compare them

Answer 71

c. consult specific personality inventory manuals to guide decision making

adolescents who are 18 years old may be given the MMPI 2 RF or the MMPI a RF because normative and clinical samples for both the RF and the a RF instruments include 18 year olds. The clinician should make a case by case judgment about which assessment to use with 18 year olds. A suggested guideline would be to use the a RF instrument with 18 year olds who are still in high school and the two RF instrument with 18 year olds who are in college, working, or living and otherwise independent adult life. See chapter 10.

Question 72

an upper left or upper right visual field quadrant loss would suggest involvement of the optic radiations passing through the____lobe of the cerebral hemisphere____to the field defect.

a. Parietal; ipsilateral
b. Frontal; contralateral
c. Temporal; bilateral
d. Temporal; Contralateral

Answer 72

d. Temporal; Contralateral

Quadrantanopsia requires a fairly specific lesion and mostly occurs with direct involvement of Myers loop in the contralateral temporal lobe. See chapter six.

Question 73

Jessica has been concerned about multiple sclerosis for many years period she does not currently have Ms symptoms and has not had symptoms in the past period nevertheless, she routinely sees her doctor to rule out the diagnosis. What is the most likely DSM diagnosis?

a. Somatic symptom disorder
b. Psychological factors affecting other medical disorders
c. Hypochondriasis
d. Illness anxiety disorder

Answer 73

d. Illness anxiety disorder

Illness anxiety disorder was previously known as hypochondriasis. It does not involve the actual experience of symptoms, despite great concerns about contracting illnesses. See chapter 37.

Question 74

Studies have shown that children with epilepsy have nearly three times the incidence of ADHD compared to children without epilepsy. Treatment of ADHD symptoms with stimulants in children with epilepsy is____.

a. Safe, and as effective as in children with ADHD alone
b. safe, but not effective compared with ADHD alone
c. effective, but carries increased risk of seizure exacerbation in some children
d. neither safe nor effective

Answer 74

c. effective, but carries increased risk of seizure exacerbation in some children

While the effect size for treatment efficacy in children with epilepsy may be slightly smaller than compared with children with ADHD alone, there is evidence that treatment with stimulants is effective for managing ADHD symptoms in children with epilepsy. Regarding safety and risk of increased seizures, there is very little data to address the question. However there are a few studies that have shown that a small number of patients do have increased seizures with stimulant treatment. Patients with higher seizure frequency at the time of treatment initiation may have increased risk of seizure exacerbation. See chapter 22.

Question 75

A 9-year-old girl is referred for an evaluation for academic difficulties. She presents with short stature and a webbed neck. Her neuropsychological evaluation reveals dyscalculia and deficits in visuospatial skills. She most likely has which disorder?

a. Turner syndrome
b. Williams syndrome
c. angelman syndrome
d. tuberous sclerosis

Answer 75

a. Turner syndrome

Short stature and webbed neck are physical characteristics associated with Turner syndrome but not the other disorders listed individuals with Williams syndrome also tend to have greater visual spatial deficits but tend to have lower overall cognitive ability. Individuals with tuberous sclerosis and Angelman syndrome have broader cognitive deficits, with significant cognitive deficits seen in Angelman syndrome. See chapter 18.

Question 76

August is a 17-year-old referred to you after a recent diagnosis of multiple sclerosis. You are reviewing WAIS-IV scores from the first part of your evaluation and have noticed a pattern of performance suggestive of slow processing speed. Based on this finding and your review of the literature of pediatric multiple sclerosis, what else are you likely to assess to confirm or a disconfirm impairment in processing speed?
A. Word list generation, visual motor integration, attention
b. depression, visual motor integration, fatigue
c. attention, visual perception, receptive language
d. visual motor integration, sleep hygiene, word list generation

Answer 76

b. depression, visual motor integration, fatigue

Given the graph oh motor component of the Wechsler processing speed tasks, as well as documented deficits seen in visual motor integration for individuals with multiple sclerosis, examining this area would be an important step in the assessment. Likewise, depression and fatigue are considered to be commonly associated with MS and may be associated with reduced speed of performance. See chapter 24.

Question 77

A neuropsychologist in a pediatric epilepsy surgery program plans to do both pre and post operative evaluations with the same memory test period the best way to determine whether any change in performance is clinically meaningful would be to____.

a. Just use equally reliable alternate forms of the same test
b. subtract the standard error of measurement from the second score
c. calculate the reliable change index, with a 90% confidence interval
d. add the standard error of the estimate to the second score

Answer 77

c. calculate the reliable change index, with a 90% confidence interval

The reliable change index will indicate whether the difference between the two scores is larger than can reasonably be expected on the basis of practice effects or measurement error alone. See chapter nine.

Question 78

in the United states, in utero exposure to lead is most likely to occur through exposure from____.

a. Maternal occupation
b. imported toys
c. gasoline
d. cosmetics

Answer 78

a. Maternal occupation

In utero exposure to lead at the current time is most likely to occur when the mother is exposed to lead at her occupation, such as in factories that use lead in manufacturing products. See chapter 21.

Question 79

adrenergic neurons originate in____.

a. The basal forebrain
b. the raphe nuclei
c. the locus coeruleus and lateral tegmental area
d. the substantia nigra pars compacta

Answer 79

c. the locus coeruleus and lateral tegmental area

The locus coeruleus and lateral tegmental area are the primary sources of adrenergic input to the brain. The other alternatives in this item refer to structures that are associated with neurotransmitters other than norepinephrine. See chapter 4

Question 80

the most persistent cognitive deficit in patients with limbic encephalitis is____.

a. Organization and planning
b. language and word retrieval
c. memory and new learning
d. auditory and visual attention

Answer 80

c. memory and new learning

Limbic encephalitis commonly involves bilateral temporal pathology, causing persistent deficits in memory and new learning. See chapter 23

Question 81

which regions of the brain show the most atrophy in Alzheimer’s disease?

a. Temporoparietal
b. orbitofrontal and primary motor
c. occipitoparietal
d. Thalamus and basal ganglia

Answer 81

a. Temporoparietal

Alzheimer’s pathology usually begins in temporal lobe structures and spreads to parietal regions before affecting the frontal lobes. The spread of pathology parallels the pattern of neuropsychological dysfunction. See chapter 30.

Question 82

the multimodal treatment study of children with ADHD (1999, 2004) is the largest, best controlled study to date assessing the efficacy of medication and behavioral therapy for children. Which of the following statements best characterizes the findings with regard to ADHD symptoms?

A. Behavioral intervention alone was slightly superior to medication intervention alone, particularly in younger children.

b. There was a large effect seen for medication treatment, for which the addition of behavioral therapy produced no significant added benefit.
c. medication and behavioral therapy combined performed significantly better than medication alone or behavioral therapy alone.
d. There were no significant differences between medication alone, behavioral therapy alone, and combination of medication and behavioral therapy.

Answer 82

b. There was a large effect seen for medication treatment, for which the addition of behavioral therapy produced no significant added benefit.

There was no significant benefit from the behavioral therapy added to the stimulant medication with regard to ADHD symptom reduction. However, with regard to non-symptom areas (e.g., social skills), there was added benefit noted with the behavioral therapy interventions. See chapter 16

Question 83

A 65-year-old, right-handed man is referred following an ischemic stroke in the inferior division of the right MCA. What cognitive problems are most likely to be present?

a. Parts of the gerstmann syndrome
b. left hemispatial inattention and constructional apraxia
c. right-left confusion and constructional apraxia
d. Amnesia for nonverbal information

Answer 83

b. left hemispatial inattention and constructional apraxia

These are most often associated with right parietal, especially inferior parietal, damage. In contrast, parts of the gerstmann syndrome are seen after left inferior parietal damage; Right left confusion (part of Gerstmann syndrome) can also be seen after left inferior parietal damage, and nonverbal memory deficits are associated with damage to the right medial temporal lobe or the diencephalic system (e.g., Korsakoff’s). see chapter 26

Question 84

a patient sustains a severe traumatic brain injury in a high speed motor vehicle collision.At the scene, she is unable to open her eyes, is completely flaccid, and displays no vocalization. The most likely glasgal coma scale score is____.

a. 0
b. 1
c. 3
d. 5

Answer 84

c. 3

GCS is a system for determining the degree of impairment in patients through the assessment of eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. In this example, the patient would receive a score of one in each domain resulting in a GCS of three, which is the lowest score possible. See chapter 29.

Question 85

a 9-year-old girl presents to your office with her mother. The girl is nonverbal but attempts to engage you socially by making eye contact, laughing, and smiling. In discussion with her mother, you learn that the girl started exhibiting developmental delays in infancy and then developed seizures at two years of age. This girl most likely has which disorder?

a. Prader-Willi Syndrome
b. Angelman syndrome
c. Turner syndrome
d. PKU

Answer 85

b. Angelman syndrome

Individuals with Angel men syndrome exhibit significant cognitive deficits and are typically nonverbal, but demonstrate social interest and others. See chapter 18.

Question 86

Adult survivors of childhood brain tumors are at an increased risk for____.

a. Kidney and liver disease
b. Secondary tumors and encephalitis
c. Secondary tumors, late onset seizures, and stroke
d. late onset seizures and heart disease

Answer 86

c. Secondary tumors, late onset seizures, and stroke

Adult survivors of childhood medulloblastoma are at increased risk for strokes and seizures; at 30 years post diagnosis, cumulative incidence of seizures is 34% and of strokes, 15%. Cumulative incidence of seizures and survivors of all types of brain tumors is 40%, 30 years post diagnosis. Subsequent malignant neoplasms and meningiomas had a cumulative incidence of 6%. See chapter 25.

Question 87

the orbitofrontal cortex is relevant to which attentional function?

a. selective attention
b. initiation of response
c. inhibition of response
d. alternating attention

Answer 87

b. initiation of response

Other types of attention are subsumed by anterior cingulate, dorsolateral frontal, and prefrontal areas, respectively. See chapter five.

Question 88

which of the following statements is true regarding presence of psychiatric symptoms and movement disorders?

a. Depression can occur years prior to motor symptoms in Huntington’s disease.
b. Hallucinations are a rare side effect of medications used to treat Parkinson’s disease.
c. Mania can be seen in patients with PSP.
d. Visual hallucinations typically occur late in the course of lewy body dementia.

Answer 88

a. Depression can occur years prior to motor symptoms in Huntington’s disease.

Depression , as well as other psychiatric symptoms (e.g., anxiety, psychosis, OCD) can proceed motor symptoms and formal diagnosis of Huntington’s disease. With respect to the other disorders listed, well formed, early not late visual hallucinations are a core diagnostic feature of lewy body dementia. Emotional ability can be seen in PSP, that mania Purcell is not typical. Visual hallucinations are a common side effect of Parkinson’s disease medications. See chapter 33.

Question 89

Which of the following is the most important factor in determining the severity of cognitive impairment in persons with epilepsy?

a. Seizure frequency
b. History of febrile seizure
c. type of medication
d. abnormal MRI finding

Answer 89

a. Seizure frequency

Well age at seizure onset is typically considered the most important factor in determining severity of cognitive function, among the options listed seizure frequency or severity is the most important. The nature and extent of abnormal MRI findings may be a factor in seizure severity, however the presence of MRI abnormality alone provides little information about the severity of cognitive impairment in many cases (e.g., tumor-related epilepsy). history of febrile seizures is common, even among persons who never develop epilepsy and is not usually associated with cognitive impairment alone. Medications may be a proxy for seizure severity, but many persons with epilepsy tolerate medications well, without cognitive side effects. See chapter 22.

Question 90

an 8-year-old child presents for neuropsychological assessment with a history of prematurity and a diagnosis of periventricular leukomalacia (PVL). what is a typical pattern of weakness in a child with this history?

a. Spatial memory, attention, vocabulary
b. visuospatial processing, processing speed, working memory
c. visual spatial processing, vocabulary, working memory
d. word reading, verbal fluency, and fine motor dexterity

Answer 90

b. visuospatial processing, processing speed, working memory

The proximity of the vulnerable periventricular region to the optic radiations, as well as dorsal stream dysfunction involved in the integration of visual information, or hypothesized to be the source of visuospatial processing problems. The frequency of white matter pathology and preterm infants is thought to explain the common deficits in processing speed and the increased rate of abnormalities in frontal and subcortical functional systems can result in working memory deficits. Problems with attention, wordlist generation, and fine motor dexterity can also be seen. Weak word reading and vocabulary skills are typically not associated with preterm birth. See chapter 27

Question 91

1. Sally Sample was referred to you by her PCP due to “abnormal language.” You notice during evaluation that the patient has impaired comprehension, intact repetition, impaired naming, impaired reading, and impaired writing. For spontaneous speech, which of the following would help you commit to a differential diagnosis of transcortical sensory aphasia?
   a. Fluent, empty
   b. Fluent or nonfluent
   c. Fluent, echolalic
   d. Nonfluent, echolalic

Answer 91

c. Fluent, echolalic

Question 92

2. The hallmark of perisylvian aphasia syndromes is impaired
   a. Reading
   b. Naming
   c. Writing
   d. Repetition

Answer 92

d. Repetition

Question 93

3. Savantism is approximately ______ times more common in males than females
   a. 3
   b. 4
   c. 5
   d. 6

Answer 93

d. 6

Question 94

5. Burt Bees was brought into the ED with halting, effortful speech. When asked questions, he tended to simply repeat the question rather than answer it. What is his most likely condition?
   a. Transcortical motor aphasia
   b. Broca’s aphasia
   c. Anomic aphasia
   d. Mixed transcortical aphasia

Answer 94

d. Mixed transcortical aphasia

Question 95

6. Ernie Oscar was brought to the ED because he was wandering the streets at 4am. When asked what he was doing, he stated that he was going to work, and that he was now in his office. His gait was ataxic, and his smooth pursuits were reduced. What is his most likely condition?
   a. Anterior communicating artery aneurysm
   b. Wernicke-Korsakoff’s syndrome
   c. Herpes encephalopathy
   d. Transient global amnesia

Answer 95

b. Wernicke-Korsakoff’s syndrome

Question 96

7. Which is an extrasylvian aphasic syndrome?
   a. Pure word deafness
   b. Transcortical motor aphasia
   c. Conduction aphasia
   d. Global aphasia

Answer 96

b. Transcortical motor aphasia

Question 97

8. Lesions involving ______ speech areas can result in ______ whereas lesions in ______ language areas more often result in ______
   a. Anterior; impaired comprehension of phonological (syntactic) information used to construct word names; posterior; impaired comprehension of the sequencing of meaningful word sounds to convey meaning (lexical/semantic)
   b. Posterior; impaired comprehension of phonological (syntactic) information used to construct word names; anterior; impaired comprehension of the sequencing of meaningful word sounds to convey meaning (lexical/semantic)
   c. Lateral; impaired comprehension of phonological (syntactic) information used to construct word names; mesial; impaired comprehension of the sequencing of meaningful word sounds to convey meaning (lexical/semantic)
   d. Dorsal; impaired comprehension of phonological (syntactic) information used to construct word names; ventral; impaired comprehension of the sequencing of meaningful word sounds to convey meaning (lexical/semantic)

Answer 97

a. Anterior; impaired comprehension of phonological (syntactic) information used to construct word names; posterior; impaired comprehension of the sequencing of meaningful word sounds to convey meaning (lexical/semantic)

Question 98

9. Which of the following is the best indicator of TBI severity/long term outcome?
   a. LOC
   b. GCS
   c. PTA
   d. Extent of neuroimaging findings (i.e., DAI)

Answer 98

c. PTA

Question 99

10. As many as ______ of patients after stroke have some degree of aphasia
    a. 30%
    b. 40%
    c. 50%
    d. 60%

Answer 99

b. 40%

Question 100

1. The split-brain studies of Sperry & Gazzaniga suggest that:
   a. The right hemisphere is responsible for producing negative valence, and the left hemisphere for positive valence
   b. The left hemisphere is responsible for producing negative valence, and the right hemisphere for positive valence
   c. Both hemispheres work in unison to produce positive and negative valences
   d. Domain-general theory is the superior theory

Answer 100

a. The right hemisphere is responsible for producing negative valence, and the left hemisphere for positive valence

Question 101

2. Which of the following is not a factor in Miyake’s 3 General Purpose Executive model?
   a. Shifting
   b. Inhibiting
   c. Updating
   d. Schemas

Answer 101

d. Schemas

Question 102

3. The hallmark of perisylvian aphasia syndromes is
   a. Impaired fluency
   b. Impaired comprehension
   c. Impaired repetition
   d. Impaired naming

Answer 102

c. Impaired repetition

Question 103

The primary problem in anomic aphasia is

a. Fluency
b. Repetition
c. Comprehension
d. Naming

Answer 103

d. Naming

Question 104

Subcortical aphasia syndromes can arise from lesions to the following areas except:

a. Striatum
b. Internal capsule
c. Left MCA
d. Thalamus

Answer 104

c. Left MCA

Question 105

Following a head injury, you find that your patient has developed alexia without agraphia. The following are additional signs that you might expect upon further examination, except:

a. Color anomia
b. Difficulty with spelling
c. Poor comprehension of spoken words
d. Right visual field deficit

Answer 105

c. Poor comprehension of spoken words

Question 106

True or False: In most reported cases of prosopagnosia with an enduring deficit, the lesions are bilateral

a. True
b. False

Answer 106

a. True

Question 107

Balint’s syndrome is MOST COMMONLY caused by

a. Tumors
b. MCA-PCA watershed infarcts
c. ACA-MCA watershed infarcts
d. Head injury

Answer 107

b. MCA-PCA watershed infarcts

Question 108

You are called to evaluate by bedside a patient with acute onset speech difficulties. The patient presents with effortful, poorly articulated speech, intact comprehension, and intact writing abilities. What is your likely diagnosis?

a. Wernicke’s aphasia
b. Broca’s aphasia
c. Aphemia
d. Transcortical Motor Aphasia

Answer 108

c. Aphemia

Question 109

1. Which is not a component of assessing for aphasia?
   a. Repetition
   b. Fluency
   c. Verbal addition
   d. Comprehension

Answer 109

c. Verbal addition

Question 110

2. The left hemisphere is dominant for language in over ___% of right-handers and ___% of left-handers.
   a. 55; 75
   b. 75; 55
   c. 95; 60
   d. 60; 95

Answer 110

c. 95; 60

Question 111

3. You suspect Bond, James Bond has Broca’s aphasia, what features of his speech would be consistent with this hypothesis?
   a. Phrases <5 words long, more content than function words
   b. Phrases >5 words long, more function than content words
   c. Phrases exactly 5 words long, equal number of function and content words
   d. Phrases <5 words long, more function than content words

Answer 111

a. Phrases <5 words long, more content than function words

Question 112

4. Anna Thompson of Boston presents to the police station. She claims she was robbed but can’t seem to figure out how much money was taken, or which finger her stolen ring was on. When you ask her to draw the person who robbed her, she can’t sketch the face. She keeps cooking with the wrong ingredients at her job when her supervisor tells her to use the ingredients on her left. What is the location of Anna’s lesion?
   a. Right temporal convexity
   b. Dominant inferior parietal lobule
   c. Nondominant hemisphere
   d. Left inferior cingulate gyrus

Answer 112

b. Dominant inferior parietal lobule

Question 113

5. Which is a cognitive reserve hypothesis study?
   a. Sisters of Notre Dame prospective dementia study
   b. Case of H.M.
   c. Goldstein and Gelb’s patient Schn.
   d. Sperry and Gazzaniga’s split brain study

Answer 113

a. Sisters of Notre Dame prospective dementia study

Question 114

6. What is a good indicator of potential recovery from traumatic brain injury?
   a. Length of Post-Traumatic Amnesia
   b. Size of hemorrhage
   c. Etiology of TBI
   d. Persistence of memory deficits

Answer 114

a. Length of Post-Traumatic Amnesia

Question 115

7. Elon Musk is very depressed following his breakup with Grimes, he asks his psychiatrist about ECT and she warns him about which potential side effect?
   a. Functional Amnesia
   b. Transient Global Amnesia
   c. Infantile Amnesia
   d. Retrograde Amnesia

Answer 115

b. Transient Global Amnesia

Question 116

8. Which landmark study is an example of domain-specificity theoretical approach?
   a. Milner’s research on removal of frontal lobe tissue on executive function
   b. Vygotsky’s zones of proximal development
   c. Watson and Skinner’s research on animal models of learning
   d. Lashley’s experiments on the location of memory

Answer 116

a. Milner’s research on removal of frontal lobe tissue on executive function

Question 117

9. Which researcher is not a key figure in localization theory?
   a. Luria
   b. Broca
   c. Liepmann
   d. Kohler

Answer 117

d. Kohler

Question 118

Damage to which of these subcortical structures can mimic aphasia?

a. Hippocampus
b. Basal ganglia
c. Hypothalamus
d. Brainstem

Answer 118

b. Basal ganglia

Question 119

1. Balint syndrome is a disorder characterized by:
   a. Difficulty recognizing objects
   b. Difficulty reaching for objects directly
   c. Denial of cortical blindness
   d. Impaired motor learning

Answer 119

b. Difficulty reaching for objects directly

Question 120

2. Daenerys Targaryean presents to your office and has a history of right sided stroke. According to the Reporter-Interpreter theory, if the left side of the brain is acting in isolation, the Mother of Dragons is likely to recall information in a:
   a. Concrete fashion (R side)
   b. Top-down process
   c. Narrative with delusions
   d. Domain-general characterization

Answer 120

c. Narrative with delusions

Question 121

3. Jaime Lannister had a stroke. He now exhibits speech impairment in the form of non-fluent speech, intact comprehension and repetition, along with impaired naming. What type of aphasia does he have?
   a. Transcortical Sensory
   b. Conduction
   c. Transcortical Mixed
   d. Transcortical Motor

Answer 121

d. Transcortical Motor

Question 122

4. Sansa Stark survived from a hypoxic brain injury due to decreased cerebral circulation from carbon monoxide poisoning. Which type of aphasia is she most likely to exhibit?
   a. Transcorital Mixed
   b. Wernicke’s
   c. Transcortical Sensory
   d. Global

Answer 122

a. Transcortical Mixed

Question 123

6. All of the following are seen in Wernicke-Korsakoff’s Syndrome except:
   a. Confabulation
   b. Temporal order impairment
   c. Intact remote memory
   d. Proactive interference

Answer 123

c. Intact remote memory

Question 124

7. When testing for sensory and motor neglect, it is important to make sure visual stimuli is:
   a. Located on the side of preserved motor and sensory abilities
   b. Magnified so that the patient is able to adequately see the visual stimuli
   c. Centered at the workspace and that test objects are centered in front of the patient and immobile if possible
   d. Mobile so that the patient is able to move the stimuli and test objects to their non-neglected field

Answer 124

c. Centered at the workspace and that test objects are centered in front of the patient and immobile if possible

Question 125

8. Obitofrontal lesions lead to all of the following except:
   a. Depression-like symptoms
   b. Impulsivity
   c. Disinhibited behavior
   d. Poor judgment

Answer 125

a. Depression-like symptoms

Question 126

9. You are trying to assess to see if Jon Snow has frontal release signs due to a frontal lesion. Which test would be the best test for you to do?
   a. Rhomberg test
   b. Stroking his hand to see if he exhibited a grasp reflex
   c. Dix Hallpike Maneuver
   d. Rinne Test

Answer 126

b. Stroking his hand to see if he exhibited a grasp reflex

Question 127

10. Kahl Drogo presents for a neuropsychological evaluation. His clinical history indicates asymmetrical onset of a movement disorder with dystonic type symptoms and marked apraxia. What disorder would be most high on your differential?
    a. Frontotemporal global degeneration
    b. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder
    c. Binswanger’s disease
    d. Cortical-basal degeneration

Answer 127

d. Cortical-basal degeneration

Question 128

1. Which of the following is the only ‘uncrossed’?
   a. Olfactory nerve
   b. Optic nerve
   c. Vestibulocochlear nerve
   d. Glossopharyngeal nerve

Answer 128

a. Olfactory nerve

Question 129

2. When reviewing a chart for an upcoming patient, you notice that the neurologist commented on a “blown pupil.” Which cranial nerve was being assessed?
   a. III
   b. IV
   c. VI
   d. II

Answer 129

a. III

Question 130

3. In the Romberg test, if a patient has their eyes open with unsteadiness, where is the most likely location of the lesion?
   a. Basal ganglia
   b. Cerebellum
   c. Anterior column of spinal cord
   d. Thalamus

Answer 130

b. Cerebellum

Question 131

4. What aren’t CT scans typically used for?
   a. Identify skull fractures
   b. Visualize hemorrhages
   c. Visualize mass effect
   d. Identify severity of white matter changes

Answer 131

d. Identify severity of white matter changes

Question 132

5. Mrs. Roberts was brought in by her neighbor to the emergency room after she began showing signs of an ischemic stroke approximately 30 minutes ago. What would be the best neuroimaging technique to visualize a possible ischemic stroke?
   a. CT
   b. MRI, T1 sequence
   c. MRI, T2 FLAIR sequence
   d. MRI, DWI

Answer 132

d. MRI, DWI

Question 133

6. What is the best neuroimaging method to detect cerebral amyloid angiopathy?
   a. Susceptibility-weighted imaging
   b. T2 FLAIR MRI
   c. Magnetic resonance spectroscopy
   d. Diffusion tensor imaging

Answer 133

a. Susceptibility-weighted imaging

Question 134

7. Chronic small vessel ischemic changes appear…
   a. bright on CT and dark on T2 FLAIR
   b. bright on CT and bright on T2 FLAIR
   c. dark on CT and dark on T2 FLAIR
   d. dark on CT and bright on T2 FLAIR

Answer 134

d. dark on CT and bright on T2 FLAIR

Question 135

8. Georgia Summers, a 67-year-old female chronic smoker presented to the emergency department for signs and symptoms of a stroke. Neuroimaging results note the left proximal middle cerebral artery where the mild to moderate stroke occurred. Her primary deficit is likely to be:
   a. Right hemiparesis
   b. Wernicke’s aphasia
   c. Broca’s aphasia
   d. Left homonymous hemianopia

Answer 135

a. Right hemiparesis

Question 136

9. Which co-occurring symptom makes Gerstmann’s syndrome difficult to determine?
   a. Aphasia
   b. Alexia
   c. Apraxia
   d. Dyskinesia

Answer 136

a. Aphasia

Question 137

While reviewing your very complicated patient’s medical record, you notice his EEG reveals repetitive, slow unilateral wave complexes over the temporal lobe suggestive of what diagnosis?

Answer 137

d. Herpes simplex encephalitis

Question 138

10. What is being examined on the Luria Go-No-Go task?
    a. Motor impersistence
    b. Frontal release sign
    c. Perseveration
    d. Abulia

Answer 138

c. Perseveration

Question 139

1. Signs of lower motor neuron dysfunction includes all of the following except
   a. Atrophy
   b. Fasciculations
   c. Hyporeflexia
   d. Hyperreflexia

Answer 139

d. Hyperreflexia

Question 140

2. True or False: A positive Babinski’s sign suggests upper motor neuron dysfunction
   a. True
   b. False

Answer 140

a. True

Question 141

3. Brain waves that are most common during sleep, but may occur with diffuse disorders and/or metabolic encephalopathy include:
   a. Alpha
   b. Beta
   c. Theta
   d. Delta

Answer 141

d. Delta

Question 142

4. The blood vessels that supply large regions of the basal ganglia and internal capsule are the:
   a. MCA
   b. PCA
   c. ACA
   d. Lenticulostriate

Answer 142

a. Lenticulostriate

Question 143

5. Left inferior MCA stroke may result in all of the following except:
   a. Wernicke’s aphasia
   b. R visual field deficit
   c. R motor deficit
   d. R sensory deficit

Answer 143

c. R motor deficit

Question 144

6. Headaches occur in _____ percentage of strokes, most commonly seen in strokes of the _____ circulation:
   a. ~25%, posterior
   b. ~25%, anterior
   c. ~15%, posterior
   d. ~15%, anterior

Answer 144

a. ~25%, posterior

Question 145

7. True or false: A benefit of PET is that it uses natural physical responses (i.e., no tracers are necessary)
   a. True
   b. False

Answer 145

b. False

Question 146

8. In the circle of willis, the ACAs are anastomosed by the:
   a. ACoA
   b. MCA
   c. PComm
   d. Basilar artery

Answer 146

a. ACoA

Question 147

9. A patient presents with a headache, mild aphasia, amnestic memory profile, and right homonymous hemianopsia over the last day and a half. What is the most likely explanation for this patient’s symptoms?
   a. TIA
   b. PCA infarct
   c. MCA infarct
   d. ACA infarct

Answer 147

b. PCA infarct

Question 148

The most common cause of transient loss of consciousness includes:

a. Seizures
b. Syncope
c. Somatization disorder
d. Malingering

Answer 148

b. Syncope

Question 149

1. Which would be the best way to communicate that a patient was not oriented?
   a. Describe how the patient responded when you asked if they were oriented
   b. Patient was oriented in all spheres
   c. Patient was alert and oriented x2
   d. Describe what questions were asked and how the patient answered

Answer 149

d. Describe what questions were asked and how the patient answered

Question 150

If you ask a patient with ideomotor apraxia to “pretend to brush your hair”, what will it look like?

a. Ask you to give them a brush
b. Awkwardly move their hand toward their face
c. Stare at you and say “bush”
d. Fist their hand and mimic brushing motions on their hair

Answer 150

b. Awkwardly move their hand toward their face

Question 151

True or False: A visuoconstructional task (e.g., copying a complex figure) is sufficient to determine if a patient has visual neglect.

Answer 151

False

Question 152

. What cranial nerves are you testing for asking the patient to look in all directions without moving their head and asking if they experience any double vision?

a. CN I
b. CN III, IV, & VI
c. CN X & XI
d. CN II & V

Answer 152

b. CN III, IV, & VI

Question 153

Which type of ataxia indicates damage to the cerebellar vermis?

a. Truncal
b. Appendicular
c. Dysdiadochokinesia
d. Overshoot

Answer 153

a. Truncal

Question 154

. Which type of tone is associated with a worse prognosis in a coma patient?

a. Flexor (decorticate)
b. Extensor (decerebrate)
c. Local (spinal)
d. Global (cortical)

Answer 154

b. Extensor (decerebrate)

Question 155

What is “worst headache of my life” pathognomonic for?

a. PCA stroke
b. Hydrocephalus
c. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
d. Carotid artery dissection

Answer 155

c. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Question 156

Billie Eilish presents to the ED and neuroimaging shows she’s had an ischemic stroke, what is a likely cause of her stroke?

a. Patent foramen ovale (PFO)
b. Diabetes
c. Hypertension
d. Substance use

Answer 156

a. Patent foramen ovale (PFO)

Question 157

Which is not a use for EEG?

a. Monitoring anesthesia depth
b. Diagnosis of brain death
c. Epilepsy
d. Presurgical brain mapping

Answer 157

d. Presurgical brain mapping

Question 158

. Which condition could be diagnosed with a lumbar puncture?

a. Bacterial meningitis
a. Multiple sclerosis
b. Vitamin B Deficiency
c. Brain tumor

Answer 158

a. Bacterial meningitis

Question 159

Nicki Minaj is involved in a car accident on her way to the White House, which type of neuroimaging would be most helpful in determining if she had diffuse axonal injury?

a. MRI T1
b. FMRI
c. CT
d. MRI T2

Answer 159

d. MRI T2

Question 160

1. Neglect is often demonstrated by testing for:
   a. Frontal release signs
   b. Extinction on double simultaneous stimulation
   c. Perseveration
   d. Red desaturation

Answer 160

b. Extinction on double simultaneous stimulation

Question 161

2. Lesions in front of the optic chiasm cause:
   a. Visual deficits in one eye
   b. Diplopia
   c. Visual field deficits that are similar for both eyes
   d. Cortical blindness

Answer 161

a. Visual deficits in one eye

Question 162

3. Increased tone can occur in upper motor neuron lesions but can also occur in ______ lesions.
   a. Parietal
   b. Thalamus
   c. Basal ganglia
   d. Corpus callosum

Answer 162

c. Basal ganglia

Question 163

4. A patient presents to the ED with right leg weakness of the UMN type, right leg cortical-type sensory loss, frontal lobe behavioral abnormalities, and transcortical aphasia. Where is the location of the lesion?
   a. Right MCA
   b. Left PCA
   c. Right ACA
   d. Left ACA

Answer 163

d. Left ACA

Question 164

5. Upon review of the patient’s medical records, the patient experienced fluent aphasia, a right visual field deficit, and initial mild right-sided weakness. Where is the location of the lesion?
   a. Left MCA inferior division
   b. Left MCA superior division
   c. Left MCA deep territory
   d. Left MCA stem

Answer 164

a. Left MCA inferior division

Question 165

6. “Man in a barrel” syndrome is typically caused by:
   a. PCA strokes
   b. Strokes in the watershed zones
   c. ACA strokes
   d. MCA strokes

Answer 165

b. Strokes in the watershed zones

Question 166

7. All of the following are common stroke risk factors except:
   a. Hypertension
   b. Diabetes
   c. Cigarette smoking
   d. Headache

Answer 166

d. Headache

Question 167

8. CN IX (Glossopharyngeal nerve) stems from the:
   a. Spinal cord
   b. Medulla
   c. Pons
   d. Midbrain

Answer 167

b. Medulla

Question 168

9. A neurologist is performing a neurological exam on a patient. The patient’s hands are extended upward directly in front of them. A “pronator drift” is observed. This can be caused by?
   a. LMN lesions
   b. Cerebellar dysfunction
   c. UMN problems
   d. Dysfunction of CN XI

Answer 168

c. UMN problems

Question 169

10. You evaluate a patient for neuropsychological assessment. Their neurocognitive profile and symptoms are suspicious for FTD. However, AD cannot be ruled out. You recommended that their neurologist order a PET scan. If the patient does have FTD, what type of abnormal cerebral metabolism would be seen on PET imaging?
    a. Hypometabolism mostly in the frontal and anterior cortices
    b. Hypometabolism in the bilateral parieto-occipital lobes
    c. Bilaterally reduced regional glucose metabolism in the posterior tempoparietal cortices in addition to anterior and mesial temporal lobes

Answer 169

c. Bilaterally reduced regional glucose metabolism in the posterior tempoparietal cortices in addition to anterior and mesial temporal lobes

Question 170

Cancellation task with a single target would be a valid measure of \_\_\_\_.
A divided attention 
B selective attention
C attention span
D sustained attention

Answer 170

B selective attention

Question 171

The patient is a 72 year old man who sustained a thrombotic stroke of the left middle cerebral artery three months ago. Examination now reveals significant word finding difficulty but otherwise grammatically accurate, fluent, and well formed speech and intact repetition. His speech lacks substantive words and there are frequent circumlocutions. The most likely type of aphasia is\_\_\_\_\_.
A anomic aphasia
B Wernickes aphasia
C conduction aphasia
D brocas aphasia

where was the patients lesion likely to have been?
A Extrasylvian area
B Broca’s area
C Wernicke’s area
D arcuate fasciculus

Answer 171

A anomic aphasia

A Extrasylvian area

Question 172

in acquired prosopagnosia, _____.
A. the damage Is likely to involve dorsal frontal areas
B. there is often an inability to recognize colors
C. the damage is likely to involve parietal areas
D. spontaneous recovery has been documented in some cases

Answer 172

D. spontaneous recovery has been documented in some cases

Question 173

You are consulted to see a 79 year old, right handed gentleman who sustained a right thalamic stroke. While preparing your doctoral intern for the initial assessment what might you provide in terms of education? He may \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. not be able to speak fluently
B. engage in inappropriate behavior
C. not express emotions
D. be inappropriately jocular

Answer 173

C. not express emotions

Question 174

on examination, you find that a patient picks up a toothbrush and Tries to put the toothpaste on the toothbrush without taking off the cap. This could be an example of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. constructional apraxia
B. ideomotor apraxia
C. ideational apraxia
D. buccofacial apraxia

Answer 174

C. ideational apraxia

Question 175

Your patient presents with nonfluent, sparse language and symptoms of apathy. To differentiate this condition as an aphasia syndrome from a primary psychiatric disorder, you may want to first evaluate for the presence of \_\_\_\_\_.
A. Paraphasic errors
B.  Suicidal ideation
C. anosognosia
D. motor or sensory deficits

Answer 175

D. motor or sensory deficits

Question 176

Which brain area plays a key role in motivating selective attention toward a salient stimulus?
A. inferior parietal
B. basal forebrain
C. dorsolateral frontal
D. anterior cingulate

Answer 176

D. anterior cingulate

Question 177

Posner and Petersen’s attentional model would predict difficulty with \_\_\_\_\_ as a result of damage to the ascending reticular activating system.
A. alerting
B. detection
C. orienting
D. shifting

Answer 177

A. alerting

Question 178

Classification of aphasia is based primarily on which three parts of the language assessment?

a. fluency, repetition, prosody
b. fluency, comprehension, naming
c. fluency, comprehension, repetition
d. comprehension, naming, repetition

Answer 178

c. fluency, comprehension, repetition

Question 179

Which of the following is not a symptom of Gerstmann’s syndrome?
A. agraphia
B. acalculia
C. alexia
D. finger agnosia

Answer 179

C. alexia

Question 180

Intact spatial abilities, but disturbed recognition of objects implies disruption in the \_\_\_\_ pathway. 
A. dorsal
B. mesial
C. ventral
D. rostral

Answer 180

C. ventral

Question 181

Which of the following might you see with damage to the dorsolateral frontal lobe?

a. emotional lability
b. Witzelsucht
c. abulia
d. lack of empathy

Answer 181

c. abulia

Question 182

A 5-year-old boy demonstrates delayed language, parallel play, and an obsession with electrical outlets, but can recite the day of the week of any date. He most likely demonstrates \_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. aphasia
B. OCD
c. savantism
d. Schizophrenia

Answer 182

c. savantism

Question 183

You are called to evaluate a patient in the hospital with a history of alcohol abuse who tried to elope from his assisted living facility by climbing a tree two days ago. Upon admission, his toxcology screen was negative. Testing indicated poor orientation and attention, fair memory, and poor reasoning. Your tentative diagnosis is ________.

a. Korsakoff dementia
b. transient global amnesia
c. delirium
d. transient ischemic attack

Answer 183

c. delirium

Question 184

The highest exposure risk to mercury is ________.
a. accidentally ingesting a drop of liquid mercury from a broken thermometer
B. Dropping a compact fluorescent bulb
C. Eating canned tuna every day for one week
D. Spilling dimethylmercury on your latex gloves while conducting an experiment

Answer 184

D. Spilling dimethylmercury on your latex gloves while conducting an experiment

Question 185

How is an absolute level of maternal alcohol consumption over the course of a pregnancy determined in a child who has a diagnosis of fetal alcohol syndrome?
A. via the use of biomarkers
B. testing maternal blood alcohol levels during each trimester of pregnancy
C. through maternal self-report
D. there is no reliable way to determine maternal alcohol consumption

Answer 185

D. there is no reliable way to determine maternal alcohol consumption

Question 186

the neurotoxicity of PCB's is potentiated by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A. lead
B. mercury
C. arsenic
D. copper

Answer 186

B. mercury

Question 187

you are the clinical neuropsychologist consultant on a study evaluating the potential effects of in utero cocaine exposure on various neurotransmitters in the fetal brain. Which of the following neurotransmitters would you predict to be most affected by cocaine exposure?
a. Dopamine
B. serotonin
C. Norepinephrine
D. Glutamate

Answer 187

a. Dopamine

Question 188

a neuropsychologist is asked to evaluate the neuropsychological functioning of an 8 year old boy with a documented blood lead level of 35. Which of the following sources of data will be essential in assisting the neuropsychologist in ruling out alternative explanations for any neuropsychological problems in this child?
A. Cognitive testing
B. Clinical interview with parents
C. teacher interview
D. school record review

Answer 188

B. Clinical interview with parents

Question 189

which of the following is the leading cause of preventable intellectual disability?
A. cocaine use during pregnancy
B. Down syndrome
C. fetal alcohol spectrum disorder
D. blood exposure during pregnancy

Answer 189

C. fetal alcohol spectrum disorder

Question 190

alcohol exposure during the first and second trimesters interferes with which of the following processes in brain development?

a. Neuronal migration and proliferation
b. programmed cell death
c. cerebellar formation
d. basal ganglia formation

Answer 190

a. Neuronal migration and proliferation

Question 191

you are a clinical neuropsychologist consulting on a study examining the potential cognitive effects of an in utero exposure to marijuana. Which of the following factors would be most important to consider when evaluating study outcomes?

a. Gender
b. use of other substances
c. geographic region
d. type of marijuana used

Answer 191

b. use of other substances

Question 192

you are evaluating a child who was exposed to cocaine in utero. Given what is known about the common neuropsychological effects of cocaine exposure, which of the following cognitive domains should be most important when designing your test battery?

a. sensorimotor functions
b. delayed memory
c. language
d. attention

Answer 192

d. attention

Question 193

In utero exposure to tobacco has been consistently linked to the development of which of the following?

a. Depression
b. anxiety
c. ADHD
d. autism

Answer 193

c. ADHD

Question 194

neoplasm

Answer 194

a brain tumor. a growth of abnormal cells inside the skull cavity. They often disseminate and seed along the CSF pathways, but they rarely spread outside the CNS. Tumors can be either benign (noncancerous) or malignant (cancerous).

Most common symptoms in adults and children is persistent headache. but most first present to doctors due to seizures.

Question 195

Glial cells

Answer 195

glia. provide a number of metabolic, electrical, and mechanical support functions to neurons. 99% of CNS tumors originate from glial cells (e.g., astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, microglia, and ependymal cells)

Question 196

Primary vs. metastatic brain tumors

Answer 196

metastatic tumors originate from other places in the body and spread to the brain via blood cells and lymph channels. most originate in the lungs (50%), followed by breast cancer (15-20%), and melanomas (10%). Around 24-40% of adult patients with non-CNS tumors will eventually develop metastatic brain cancer. Prognosis is related to the cancer’s primary site. For example, the prognosis for brain metastases from breast cancer is more favorable than metastases from colon cancer.

Most primary brain tumors in adults develop above the tentorium in the hemispheres. Of the primary brain tumors, Astrocytoma is the most common.

Metastatic cancers are twice as common in adults, whereas primary brain tumors are twice as common in children.

Question 197

Cancer in children

Answer 197

Most primary brain tumors in children are found in the posterior fossa. Medulloblastoma is the most common primary brain tumor in children.