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Spinal > Exam One Highlighted Questions > Flashcards

Exam One Highlighted Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of each type of bone cell?

A

Osteoblast - form bone; osteocyte - maintain or nurture bone; osteoclast - remodel bone

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2
Q

What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?

A

glycosaminoglycans

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3
Q

What is the principal type of protein fiber in bone?

A

collagen type I

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4
Q

What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?

A

hydroxyapatite

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5
Q

Bone is also the repository for what additional ions?

A

sodium, magnesium, fluoride, lead, strontium and radium

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6
Q

What are the three responses of bone which allow it to be described as “living”?

A

it has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressors and to age

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7
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

intramembranous ossification

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8
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?

A

from the second to third month in utero

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9
Q

Which bones of the splanchnocranium are formed by intramembranous ossification?

A

the nasal, palatine, vomer, lacrimal, zygomatic, maxilla and part of the mandible

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10
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?

A

Endochondral ossification

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11
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?

A

from the second to fifth month in utero

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12
Q

What part of the skull is derived from endochondral ossification?

A

chondrocranium

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13
Q

What bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

the clavicle

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14
Q

what are the names given to the centers of ossification based on time of appearance?

A

primary centers of ossification appear before birth

secondary centers of ossification appear after birth

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15
Q

What are the primary sources of variation observed in bone?

A

gender variation(sexual dimophism), ontogenetic variation (growth or age variation), geographic or population-based variation (ethnic variation) and idiosyncratic variation(individual variation

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16
Q

What are the six more commonly used classification of normal bone?

A

long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, paranasal sinus or pneumatic bones and sesamoid bones

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17
Q

what is the name given to bone formed in a non-bone location?

A

hetertopic bone

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18
Q

what is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?

A

accessory bone

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19
Q

what are examples of long bones?

A

humerus, radius, ulna, femur, tibia, and fibula

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20
Q

what is the primary characteristic of short bones?

A

they are essentially cuboidal

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21
Q

what are examples of short bones?

A

most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus

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22
Q

What is characteristic of pneumatic bone?

A

air spaces with the bone

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23
Q

what are examples pneumatic bone?

A

frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, temporal and sphenoid

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24
Q

what is the characteristic of sesamoid bone?

A

the bone develops within a tendon

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25
Q

what are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?

A

patella and pisiform

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26
Q

what are examples of heterotopic bone?

A

calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart, and ligaments

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27
Q

what are the four basic surface feature categories?

A

elevations, depressions, tunnels or passageways and facets

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28
Q

When do the surface features of bone become prominent?

A

during and after puberty

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29
Q

what are the types of osseous elevations?

A

linear, rounded and sharp

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30
Q

what are the types of osseous linear elevation?

A

the line, ridge and crest

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31
Q

what are the types of rounded osseous elevations?

A

tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity, and malleolus

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32
Q

What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?

A

spine and process

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33
Q

What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?

A

notch or incisure, groove, and sulcus

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34
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?

A

the fovea and fossa

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35
Q

what is the definition of an osseous osmium?

A

a round or oval opening on the surface of bone

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36
Q

what is the definition of an osseous hiatus?

A

an irregular opening on the surface of bone

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37
Q

what are the names given to osseous osia which completely penetrate bone?

A

foramen or canal

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38
Q

what is the name given to an osmium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a bling-ended passageway?

A

meatus

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39
Q

What is the definition of an osseous fissure?

A

an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones

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40
Q

what are the categories of osseous facets?

A

flat facets and rounded facets

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41
Q

what are the categories of rounded osseous facets?

A

articular heads and articular condyles

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42
Q

How many bones form the typical adult axial skeleton?

A

80 bones

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43
Q

What bone form the axial skeleton?

A

the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum and ribs

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44
Q

what is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?

A

the cranium

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45
Q

what are the names given to the top of the adult skull?

A

the calvaria or calva

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46
Q

what bones form the neurocranium of the typical adult skull?

A

the frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid and ethmoid

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47
Q

how many bones form the typical adult neurocranium?

A

8 bones

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48
Q

what bones form the facial skeleton?

A

mandible, vomer, nasal, maxilla, lacrimal, inferior nasal concha, palatine, and zygomatic

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49
Q

how many bones form the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton)?

A

14 bones

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50
Q

What bones comprise the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column?

A

the cervical, thoracic, lumbar vertebrae and the sacrum and coccyx

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51
Q

What is the name given to the pre sacral region of the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column?

A

the spine

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52
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult spine?

A

24 bones

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53
Q

What type of ossification pattern and suture appearance typically forms the true suture?

A

intramembraneous ossification; interlocking edges

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54
Q

What are the classifications of true sutures (suture vera) based on suture appearance?

A

serrate, denticulate and limbous

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55
Q

what type of ossification pattern and suture appearance typically forms the false suture?

A

endochondral osification; non-interlocking edges

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56
Q

what are the classifications of false suture (suture notha) based on suture appearance?

A

squamous and harmonia

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57
Q

overlapping, non-interlocking sutures would be examples of which classification?

A

Squamous suture

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58
Q

Sutures which neither overlap nor interlock are classified as…?

A

plane sutures(sutura harmonia)

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59
Q

What is the classic example of the plane suture (suture harmony)?

A

cruciate suture

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60
Q

What is the classification of a ‘peg-in-socket’ joint?

A

gomphosis

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61
Q

which joint classification would involve a “nail” appearance?

A

gomphosis

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62
Q

which joint classification would involve a fissure condition or appearance?

A

schindylesis

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63
Q

what is an example of the schindylesis?

A

osseous nasal septum; sphenoid-ethmoid articulation, sphenoid-vomer articulation, ethmoid-vomer articulation, vomer-palatin articulation or vomer-maxilla articulation

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64
Q

what are the characteristics of the (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?

A

they are primary cartilage joints, temporary in longevity, composed of hyaline cartilage and form between ossification centers within a cartilage template

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65
Q

what are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?

A

articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid

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66
Q

what are the characteristics of the type I articular receptors?

A

located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint “at rest”

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67
Q

what are the characteristics of type II articular receptors?

A

located deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, resemble Pacinian corpuscles, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion

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68
Q

What are the characteristics of type III articular receptors?

A

present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, resemble golgi tendon organs, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion

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69
Q

What is the function of type IV articular receptors?

A

nociceptive, they monitor pain

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70
Q

Type IVb articular receptors would be present in what locations?

A

accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine

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71
Q

What are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?

A

1) synovial villi 2) articular fat pads or Haversian glands 3) synovial menisci and intra-articular discs

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72
Q

what are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?

A

are phagocytic

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73
Q

what is the specific function of type B synovial cells?

A

secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid

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74
Q

what is the common function of type a and type b synovial cells?

A

formation and absorption of synovial fluid

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75
Q

what are examples of glycosaminoglycans important in articular cartilage?

A

hyaluronic acid, chondroitin sulfates, and keratin sulfate

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76
Q

what is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?

A

form a network for water retention

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77
Q

<p>what is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?</p>

A

<p>cartilage can deform and returns to original volume rapidly, a time independent property</p>

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78
Q

what is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoeleastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property

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79
Q

which theory of joint lubrication implies a loss of fluid from the cartilage into the joint space during compression results in increased viscosity of the synovial fluid?

A

weeping theory

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80
Q

which theory of joint lubrication implies water loss from the synovial fluid increases viscosity of the remaining ynovial fluid?

A

boosted theory

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81
Q

which theory of joint lubrication implies an adsorption of lubricant onto cartilage surfaces is responsible for the low-friction observed during movement?

A

boundary theory

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82
Q

what are the properties of synovial fluid?

A

it is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty

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83
Q

synovial fluid consists of what specific chemical groups?

A

fats, salts, albumins and hyaluronate

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84
Q

what substance of synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior

A

lubricin

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85
Q

what is the function of synovial fluid?

A

provides a nutritive source for articular cartilage and supply the lubricant for the cartilage surface

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86
Q

what is a simple synovial joint (diarthrosis) ?

A

only one pair of articulating surfaces are observed

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87
Q

what is a compound synovial joint (diarthrosis)?

A

more than two articulating surfaces are present in the same synovial joint

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88
Q

what is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)?

A

within the simple joint or the compound joint, the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc (intra-articular disc) or meniscus

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89
Q

what morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as non axial?

A

plane (diarthrosis arthrodial)

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90
Q

what morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial?

A

hinge (diathrosis ginglymus) and pivot (diarthrosis trochoid)

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91
Q

what morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial?

A

(diarthrosis) bicondylar, (diarthrosis) condylar, (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal and saddle (diarthrosis sellar)

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92
Q

what morphological classification of synovial joints would be classified as multi axial?

A

ball and socket (diarthrosis enarthrosis), (diarthrosis spheroidal), (diarthrosis cotyloid) are all classifications given to the same type of joint

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93
Q

what are examples of synovial plane (diarthrosis arthrodial) joints?

A

most zygapophyses of the vertebral column
intercarpal, carpometacarpal and inter metacarpal joints of the hand
inter cuneiform, tarsometatarsal and inter metatarsal joints of the foot

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94
Q

what are examples of synovial hinge (diarthrosis ginglymus) joints?

A

humero-ulnar joint of the elbow and interphalangeal joints of the fingers and toes

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95
Q

diarthrosis ginglymus joints are commonly call ____ joints based on action

A

synovial hinge

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96
Q

what are the examples of synovial pivot (diarthrosis trochoid joints

A

median atlanto-axial joint and proximal radio-ulnar joint

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97
Q

what is the shared morphological characteristic of diarthrosis trochoid joints?

A

an osseous pivot point and an osteo-ligamentous ring

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98
Q

what are examples of diarthrosis condylar or diarthrosis bicondylar joints?

A

temporomandibular joint and femur-tibia joint of the knee

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99
Q

what are examples of diarthrosis ellipsoidal joints?

A

radiocarpal joint of the wrist, metacarpi-phalangeal joints of the hand, metatarsal-phalangeal joints of the foot and the atlanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column

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100
Q

which synovial joint classifications are now often interchanged in textbooks?

A

ellipsoidal and condylar synovial joints

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101
Q

what are examples of synovial saddle (diarthrosis seller) joints?

A

carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, talocrural joint of the ankle and the calcaneocuboid joint of the foot

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102
Q

what are examples of diarthrosis enarthrosis joints?

A

femur-acetabulum of the innominate articulation at the hip and the femur-acetabulum of the innominate articulation at the hip and the humerus - glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation at the shoulder

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103
Q

what is the number of vertebrae in a typical adult?

A

26 segments

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104
Q

what is the number of vertebrae in the typical spine?

A

24 segments

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105
Q

what constitutes the spine?

A

the 24 pre sacral segments; the cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae

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106
Q

which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

the ant bear and three toed sloth

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107
Q

which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

the manatee and two toed sloth

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108
Q

what is the length of a typical male spinal column?

A

about 70 centimeters or 28 inches

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109
Q

what is the length of a typical female spinal column?

A

about 60 centimerters or 25 inches

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110
Q

what is the length difference between a typical male and typical female spinal column?

A

about 3 inches

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111
Q

what is the length of the male cervical region (both measurements)?

A

about 12 centimeters or 5 inches

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112
Q

what is the length of the male thoracic region (both measurements)?`

A

about 28 centimeters or 11 inches

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113
Q

what is the length of the male lumbar region (both measurements)?`

A

about 18 centimeters or 7 inches

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114
Q

what is the length of the male sacrum (both measurements)

A

about 12 centimeters or 5 inches

115
Q

how does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation?

A

ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template

116
Q

what levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weight bearing transfer?

A

S1-S3 at the auricular surface

117
Q

distinguish between motion and locomotion

A

motion is movement without travel; locomotion is movement to a new site or location

118
Q

what organ(s) is(are) specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?

A

the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

119
Q

What are the ossification centers for atlas?

A

primary centers for the lateral masses, secondary center for the anterior arch

120
Q

what is the time of closure of the posterior arch synchondrosis?

A

3-4 years old

121
Q

what is the time of closure of the anterior arch synchondrosis?

A

6-8 years old

122
Q

which primary center of ossification for axis appears first?

A

neural arch centers

123
Q

which is the last primary center of ossification for axis to appear?

A

base of the dens center

124
Q

what is the name given to cartilage joint between the base of the dens and centrum centers of ossification?

A

subdental synchondrosis

125
Q

what is the time of closure of the sub dental synchondrosis?

A

between ages 4-7 years old

126
Q

a persistence of the sub dental synchondrosis beyond age 7 is identified as an ______

A

os odontoideum

127
Q

what are the locations for secondary centers of ossification in the axis?

A

inferior epiphyseal plate centers and tip of the dens center

128
Q

at what age will the tip of the dens center of ossification arise?

A

between 2-6 years old

129
Q

at what age will the tip of the dens synchondrosis be obliterated?

A

typically before 12 years old

130
Q

a persistence of the tip of the dens synchondrosis beyond age 12 is identified as a _______

A

terminal ossicle

131
Q

what additional primary centers of ossification are present in the typical cervical?

A

costal element centers

132
Q

the costal element - centrum synchondrosis will ossify by what age?

A

6 years old

133
Q

what is the location for cervical injuries in (a) children and (b) adults?

A

children at C2 or above; adults below C2

134
Q

what additional primary centers of ossification are present in the lumbar spine?

A

costal element centers

135
Q

what additional secondary centers of ossification are present in the lumbar spine?

A

mammillary process centers

136
Q

what are the primary centers of ossification for sacrum?

A

centrum, neural arch and costal element centers of ossification

137
Q

what are the secondary centers of ossification for sacrum?

A

tip of the transverse process, epiphyseal plate, tip of the spinous process and costal epiphyseal centers of ossification

138
Q

when will centers of ossification be observed for coccyx?

A

newer research suggests they are present from birth, not observed in utero

139
Q

identify all primer centers of ossification for the vertebral column

A

centrum, neural arch, costal element, lateral mass, base of the dens

140
Q

identify all secondary centers of ossification for the vertebra column.

A

tip of the transverse process, tip of the spinous process, epiphyseal plate, anterior arch, tip of the dens, mammillary process, coccygeal cornu

141
Q

what is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - rectangular; thoracic - triangular; lumbar - reniform

142
Q

what are the names of the opening found around the margins of the vertebral body?

A

nutrient foramina or vascular foramina

143
Q

what large opening is usually observed at the back of the vertebral body?

A

the basivertebral venous foramen

144
Q

what is the generic orientation of the pedicure at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - posterolater
thoracic - posterior, slight lateral
lumbar - posterior

145
Q

What is the semicircular region of bone attached to the back of the vertebral body called?

A

the vertebral arch

146
Q

what is the name given to the anterior part of the vertebral arch?

A

the pedicle

147
Q

what is the name given to the posterior part of the vertebral arch?

A

the lamina

148
Q

what is the name given to the feature located at the upper and lower surfaces of the pedicure?

A

the superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisor; the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure

149
Q

what ligament will attach to the lamina?

A

the ligamentum flavum

150
Q

what is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum?

A

para-articular process

151
Q

what classification of bone will para-articular processes represent?

A

accessory bone

152
Q

what is the name given to the overlap of laminae seen on X-ray

A

shingling

153
Q

what is the name given to the lamina - pedicle junction at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - articular pillar; thoracic and lumbar - pars interarticularis

154
Q

what is the name given to the junction of the vertebral arch - spinous process on lateral X-ray?

A

the spinolaminar junction

155
Q

what is the name given to the tubular bone growth regions of the vertebral arch?

A

the apophyseal regions

156
Q

what names may be given to each apophysis of the spine?

A

the transverse apophysis or transverse process; articular apophysis or articular process; spinous apophysis or spinous process

157
Q

what is the generic orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - anterolateral; thoracic - posterolateral; lumbar - lateral

158
Q

all non-rib-bearing vertebra of the spine retain what equivalent feature?

A

the costal element

159
Q

what is the name given to the rounded elevation at the end of the transverse apophysis or transverse process?

A

the transverse tubercle

160
Q

what will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the vertical region?

A

cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position

161
Q

What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the boracic region?

A

the growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward

162
Q

what is the name given to the joint formed between articular facets of a vertebral couple?

A

the zygapophysis

163
Q

what is the name given to the bone surface at the front of a zygapophysis?

A

the superior articular facet

164
Q

what is the name given to the bone surface at the back of a zygapophysis

A

the inferior articular facet

165
Q

what names are given to the part of the vertebra which supports the front of the zygapophysis

A

the superior articular apophysis, the superior articular process, or the pre-zygapophysis

166
Q

what names are given to the part of the vertebra which supports the back of the zygapophysis?

A

the inferior articular apophysis, the inferior articular process, or the post-zygapophysis

167
Q

what will form the posterior boundary of a typical interbretbral foramen?

A

the inferior articular process/post zygapophysis, the superior articular process/pre-zygapophysis. the capsular ligament, and the ligamentum flavum

168
Q

what will form the superior boundary of a typical intervetebral foramen?

A

the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure

169
Q

what will form the inferior boundary of a typical intervetebral foramen?

A

the superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure

170
Q

what will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervertebral disc, and the posterior longitudinal ligament

171
Q

what is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?

A

calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/ spinous apophysis and the horizontal plane

172
Q

what is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes or spinous apophyses as seen on X-ray?

A

imbrication

173
Q

what is the orientation of the spinous process/ spinous apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - slight angle inferiorly
thoracic - noticeable angle inferiorly
lumbar - no inferior angle

174
Q

what is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/ vertebral column?

A

cervical - triangular
thoracic - oval
lumbar - triangular
sacrum - triangular

175
Q

At what vertebral level will the spinal cord typically terminate?

A

L1

176
Q

at what vertebral level will the dural sac typically terminate?

A

S2

177
Q

what are the segmental arteries of the vertical spine?

A

the vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery and deep cervical artery

178
Q

What ae the segmental arteries of the thoracic spine?

A

the deep cervical artery, superior (highest) intercostal artery, posterior intercostal artery and subcostal artery

179
Q

what are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine?

A

the lumbar arteries, iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery

180
Q

what are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebra?

A

the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery

181
Q

what are the segmental arteries of the sacrum?

A

lateral sacral artery and median ( middle ) sacral artery

182
Q

Which branch of the dorsopinal artery will penetrate the meninges to enter subarachnoid space?

A

spinal artery

183
Q

what arteries are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior spinal canal artery and plexus

184
Q

what arteries are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentaum flavum?

A

posterior spinal canal artery and plexus

185
Q

which vessel will supply the ventral/anterior nerve rootlet and nerve root?

A

anterior radicular artery

186
Q

which vessel will supply the dorsal/posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root and nerve root ganglion?

A

posterior radicular artery

187
Q

the anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

the vertebral artery

188
Q

the posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

the posterior inferior cerebellar artery

189
Q

what is the position of the posterior spinal artery relative to the spinal cord?

A

it lies in the posterolateral sulcus along the spinal cord

190
Q

what forms the arterial vasa coranoa below C6

A

a median anterior spinal artery, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 3 communicating arteries

191
Q

what is the generic name given to arteries which penetrate the spinal cord?

A

intramedullary arteries

192
Q

what are the intramedullary branches of the arterial vasa corona?

A

pial perforating arteries, central/ventral/sulcal perforating arteries

193
Q

what arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?

A

ventral/cnetral/sulcul perforating arteries

194
Q

what is the primary artery supplementing the arterial vasa corona?

A

anterior medullary feeders and posterior medullary feeders

195
Q

what will pail veins drain into?

A

venous vasa corona

196
Q

which vessels form the venous vasa corona?

A

right and left anterior longitudinal veins, right and left posterior longitudinal veins, and 4 communicating veins

197
Q

what segmental levels are supplied by the deep cervical artery?

A

C7-T1

198
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the posterior intercostal artery?

A

T3-T11

199
Q

What are the segmental arteries for L5?

A

iliolumbar artery, median (middle) sacral artery and lateral sacral artery

200
Q

what are the branches of the spinal artery?

A

osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery, anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery, anterior radicular artery, posterior radicular artery

201
Q

what forms the arterial vasa corona above C3?

A

right and left anterior spinal arteries, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 4 communicating arteries

202
Q

What veins will lie in the subarachnoid space?

A

pial veins, venous vasa corona, anterior longitudinal veins, posterior longitudinal veins, communicating veins, anterior medullary veins, posterior medullary veins, anterior radicular veins, posterior radicular veins

203
Q

what veins are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein

204
Q

What veins are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum?

A

posterior internal vertebral venous plexus

205
Q

what venous vessels are identified in the intervertebral foramen?

A

intervertebral veins

206
Q

name and locate each space formed between the osseous vertebral foramen and the spinal cord (spinal medulla or medulla spinals)

A

epidural space - between the vertebral foramen and the dura mater
subdural space - between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater
subarachnoid space - between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater

207
Q

what is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?

A

interstitial fluid

208
Q

which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?

A

anterior spinal canal artery and plexus
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
basivertebral bein
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments
ligamentum flavum
posterior longitudinal ligaments

209
Q

Which of the contents of the epidural space are more likely located near or around the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior spinal canal artery and plexus
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
basivertebral vein
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments

210
Q

which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?

A

posterior spinal canal artery and plexus
posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
ligamentum flavum

211
Q

what is the name given to the fluid present within the subdural space?

A

serous fluid

212
Q

what is the name given to the fluid within the subarachnoid space?

A

cerebrospinal fluid

213
Q

what is the name given to the lateral extension of pia mater along the spinal cord?

A

dentate (denticulate) ligament

214
Q

what is the unique feature of veins along the spinal canal?

A

they lack the bicuspid valve of the typical veins

215
Q

In horizontal view, what direction of the spinal cord tends to be largest?

A

transverse

216
Q

what are the spinal cord enlargement locations and the name given to each?

A

C3-T1, the cervical enlargement; T9-T12, the lumbar (lumbosacral enlargement

217
Q

where is the greatest transverse diameter of the spinal cord?

A

C6

218
Q

in which plane (or direction)) will the diameter of the spinal decrease from C2-T1?

A

midsagittal or anterior-posterior plane

219
Q

what spinal nerves originate from the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement?

A

L1-S3 spinal nerves

220
Q

what is a generic cord level of origin - vertebral level combination for the lumbar (lumbosacral enlargement?

A

L1, L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra; L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra; L5, S1 cord levels in T11 vertebra; S2, S3 cord levels in T12 vertebra

221
Q

What is the caudal end of the spinal cord called?

A

conus medullaris

222
Q

what spinal nerves originate from the conus medullar is?

A

typically S4, S5, and Co1

223
Q

In which vertebral foramen will the conus medullar is typically be observed?

A

L1

224
Q

What is the name given to the nerve roots below L1?

A

cauda equina

225
Q

What is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullar is called?

A

filum terminale internum

226
Q

what is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first converge at the caudal part of the vertebral column?

A

typically S2, the dural cup de sac

227
Q

neural tissue has been identified in what part of the film terminal?

A

proximal part of the film terminal internum

228
Q

the last arterial vasa corona creates what feature on angiogram?

A

cruciate anastomosis

229
Q

what is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2?

A

filum terminale externum

230
Q

what is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?

A

coccygeal medullary vestige

231
Q

what is the name given to the condition in which the conus medullar is is located below L1 and the film terminal is thickened?

A

tethered cord syndrome

232
Q

what is the relationship between scoliosis and tethered cord syndrome?

A

it is suggested that the column will change normal curvatures to mitigate damage to the spinal cord

233
Q

what is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen?

A

the spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple
the rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple
ie. T3 nerve exits the intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4 and rib 4 joints with this vertebral couple

234
Q

Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

ant bear, three-toed sloth

235
Q

which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

two-toed sloth, manatee

236
Q

which vertebrae are typical cervicals?

A

C3-C6

237
Q

Which vertebrae are atypical cervicals?

A

C1, C2, and C7

238
Q

what is the shape of the typical cervical vertebral body from the cranial view?

A

rectangular

239
Q

what is the appearance of the typical cervical vertebral body from the lateral view?

A

posterior height is greater than anterior height by a few millimeters

240
Q

What would be the direction of the cervical curve based on osseous feature?

A

posterior or kyphotic

241
Q

what accounts for the direction of the typical cervical curve?

A

the intervertebral disc height

242
Q

what is the direction of the typical cervical curve?

A

anterior or lordotic

243
Q

at which vertebral couple will the cervical curve again increase intervertebral disc height?

A

C5/C6

244
Q

What are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

anterior groove, posterior groove, right and left uncinate processes

245
Q

what are the names of the lateral modification of the superior epiphyseal rim?

A

uncinate process, unciform process, uncovertebral process, uncut or lateral lip

246
Q

what are the modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

anterior lip, posterior lip, right and left lateral grooves

247
Q

what are the names given to the lateral modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim?

A

lateral groove or enchancrure

248
Q

what is the joint classification for the posterior lip-posterior groove articulation?

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis

249
Q

what is the joint classification for the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?

A

modified synovial saddle (diarthrosis seller)

250
Q

what is the joint classification for the spongy bone-intervertebral disc articulation?

A

cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis

251
Q

What is the name given to the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?

A

joint of Luschka or uncovertebral joint

252
Q

what does the recent literature suggest as to the nature of the joint of Luschka?

A

the joint is representative of the intervertebral disc aging which results in loss of lamellar integrity near the joint

253
Q

what is the functional significance of the joint of Luschka?

A

it appears to stabilize the intervertebral disc while accommodating flexion - extension and requiring coupled motion (axial rotation with lateral bending) in the cervical spine

254
Q

what muscle attaches to the typical cervical vertebral body?

A

the longs collie muscle

255
Q

what is the orientation and angulation of the pedicle of a typical cervical?

A

posterolateral, 45 degrees

256
Q

at what location on vertebral body of a typical cervical will the pedicle attach?

A

to the side and in the center of the vertebral body

257
Q

what soft tissue diameter mimics the outline of the typical cervical vertebral foramen?

A

the transverse diameter of the vertical enlargement of the spinal cord

258
Q

the greatest transverse diameter of the typical cervical vertebra occurs at _____?

A

C6

259
Q

the greatest frequency of osteophytes associated with the vertebral body occurs at which typical cervical vertebral couple?

A

C5/C6

260
Q

what osseous parts form the typical cervical vertebra transverse process?

A

costal element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process

261
Q

What muscles may attach to the posterior tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra?

A

splenius cervicis, iliocostalis cervicis, longissimus cervicis, levator scapula, middle scalene, posterior scalen, rotators and posterior intertransversarii

262
Q

what muscles will attach to the costotransverse bar?

A

middle scalene and posterior intertransversarii

263
Q

what is the name given to the superior margin of the costotransverse bar?

A

sulcus for the ventral primary rams of a cervical spinal nerve

264
Q

what is the orientation and angulation of a typical cervical transverse process?

A

60 degrees anterolaterally (from midsagittal plane), 15 degrees inferiorly (from the horizontal plane)

265
Q

how many joint surfaces are present on the uppers surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?

A

five

266
Q

How many joint surfaces are present on the lower surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?

A

five

267
Q

how many joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?

A

ten

268
Q

how many synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?

A

four

269
Q

what is the name given to the modification of the anterior tubercle of the C6 transverse process?

A

the carotid tubercle

270
Q

what will occupy the typical cervical vertebra transverse foramen?

A

the vertebral artery, vertebral venous plexus and postganglionic sympathetic motor nerve fibers

271
Q

what is the name of the lamina-pedicle junction of typical cervical vertebrae?

A

the articular pillar

272
Q

what is the name of the surface feature observed between the ends of the articular pillar?

A

the groove/sulcus for the dorsal rams of a cervical spinal nerve

273
Q

what nerve indents the articular pillar of typical cervical vertebrae

A

the medial branch of the dorsal rams of a cervical spinal nerve

274
Q

what is the classic angulation of typical cervical articular facets?

A

40 to 45 degrees from the coronal plane

275
Q

what is the orientation of the typical cervical superior articular facet?

A

backward, upward, medial

276
Q

what is the orientation of the typical cervical inferior articular facet?

A

forward, lateral, downward (FoLD)

277
Q

what muscles will attach to typical cervical articular processes?

A

the longissimus capitis, longissismus cervicis, semispinalis capitis, semispinalis cervicis, multifidis and rotators

278
Q

what muscles blend with the capsular ligament of cervical zygapophyses?

A

the semispinalis capitis, multifidis, and rotator longus

279
Q

what modifications of the synovial joint are observed in the cervical spine?

A

meniscoidal folds

280
Q

the greatest range of flexion - extension among the typical cervical vertebrae occurs at which vertebral couple?

A

typically C5/C6

281
Q

what motions are coupled in the cervical spine?

A

lateral bending and axial rotation

282
Q

ranges of coupled motion among the typical cervical vertebrae will be similar for what cervical vertebral couple?

A

the C5/6 vertebral couple

283
Q

what muscles may attach to the typical cervical spinous process?

A

the spinals cervicis, semispinalis cervicis, semispinalis thoracis, multifidis, rotators and interspinalis

Spinal (2 decks)

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