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neurobiology > Exam One > Flashcards

Exam One Flashcards

1
Q

Histology Definition

A

Microscopic study of biological tissues

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2
Q

Cytoarchitecture Definition

A

How cells are arranged in different parts of the brain

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3
Q

What do Nissl stains stain?

A

RNA, neuron nuclei, glia nuclei

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4
Q

What do Golgi stains stain?

A

whole neurons ; soma and neurites

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5
Q

What does Roman y Cajal’s neuron doctrine say?

A

Neurons are the fundamental functional units of the nervous system. they are individual discrete cells

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6
Q

Soma consists of

A

Cell body: nucleus, mitochondria, RER, ribosomes, GA

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7
Q

Neuronal membrane consists of

A

Membrane proteins

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8
Q

Cytoskeleton consists of

A

Microtubules, neurofilaments, microfilaments

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9
Q

Axon consists of

A

axon hillock, axon terminal, synapse, myelin, nodes of ranvier, axoplasmic transport

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10
Q

Dendrites consist of

A

tree like structure with dendritic spines

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11
Q

Neurofibrillary Tangles

A

tangled clumps of tau protein found inside neurons, reflecting disruption of cytoskeleton

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12
Q

Amyloid plaques

A

accumulations of beta amyloid protein fragments, not directly associated with the cytoskeleton, found OUTSIDE neurons

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13
Q

Anterograde axonal transport

A

Proteins synthesized in the soma get shipped DOWN the axon (soma to terminal)

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14
Q

Retrograde axonal transport

A

relays info TOWARD soma about changes in the terminal (terminal to soma)

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15
Q

Ways to classify neurons

A
  1. number of neurites leaving soma
  2. somatic morphology
  3. connections within the CNS
  4. axonal length
  5. neurotransmitter type
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16
Q

Astrocyte function

A

regulate extracellular chemical environment, influence neurite growth and development, participate in reuptake of neurotransmitters

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17
Q

Microglia function

A

clean up damaged neurons, plaques, infectious agents etc

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18
Q

Ependymal cells function

A

line ventricles, produce CSF

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19
Q

Oligodendrocytes function

A

myelinate axons of neurons in CNS

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20
Q

Schwann cells function

A

myelinate axons in PNS

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21
Q

Nodes of Ranvier

A

small gaps in the myelin sheath where the axonal membrane is exposed. causes rapid propagation of nerve impulses

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22
Q

spinal cord dorsal roots

A

sensory inputs from skin, joints, and muscles

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23
Q

spinal cord ventral roots

A

motor output to muscles

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24
Q

spinal cord spinal circuits

A

mediate sensory-motor reflexes

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25
Q

Somatic PNS

A

innervates skin, joints, muscles

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26
Q

Visceral (ANS)

A

innervates internal organs, blood vessels, glands

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27
Q

Epidural hematoma

A

Blood outside the dura, severe trauma

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28
Q

Subdural hematoma

A

Blood between dura and arachnoid, mild trauma

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29
Q

Subarachnoid hematoma

A

Blood between arachnoid and pia, trauma, aneurysm rupture

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30
Q

Choroid Plexus

A

Specialized tissue in ventricles that secretes CSF

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31
Q

Spinal fluid analysis is done to diagnose

A

encephalitis, meningitis, multiple sclerosis, cancer, etc

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32
Q

Spinal fluid analysis analyzes

A

protein, glucose, PCR, gram stain, opening pressure, immunoglobulins

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33
Q

Hydrocephalus

A

Abnormal accumulation of CSF within the ventricles

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34
Q

Types of neural tube defects

A

Anencephaly, encephalocele, spina bifida occulta, meningocele, myelemingocele

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35
Q

Anencephaly

A

Open brain and lack of skull vault

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36
Q

Encephalocele

A

Herniation of the meninges

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37
Q

Spina bifida occulta

A

closed asymptomatic NTD where some vertebrae are not completely closed

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38
Q

Meningocele

A

Protrusion of the meninges (filled with CSF) through a defect in the skull or spine

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39
Q

Myelomeningocele

A

Open spinal cord with a meningeal cyst

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40
Q

Neural tube develops when?

A

3-4 weeks of development

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41
Q

Rostral end of neural tube differentiates when?

A

4 weeks

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42
Q

Prosencephalon

A

forebrain

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43
Q

Mesencephalon

A

midbrain

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44
Q

Rhombencephalon

A

Hindbrain

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45
Q

Prosencephalon further differentiates when?

A

6 weeks

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46
Q

Prosencephalon differentiates into

A

Telencephalon (cerebral hemispheres) and Diencephalon (thalamus/hypothalamus)

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47
Q

CNS develops when

A

6-16 weeks

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48
Q

CN I

A

Olfactory, sensory

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49
Q

CN II

A

Optic, Sensory

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50
Q

CN III

A

Oculomotor, Motor

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51
Q

CN IV

A

Trochlear, Motor

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52
Q

CN V

A

Trigeminal, both

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53
Q

CN VI

A

Abducens, Motor

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54
Q

CN VII

A

Facial, both

55
Q

CN VIII

A

Auditory-Vestibular, Sensory

56
Q

CN IX

A

Glossopharyngeal, Both

57
Q

CN X

A

Vagus, Both

58
Q

CN XI

A

Spinal accessory, motor

59
Q

CN XII

A

Hypoglossal, Motor

60
Q

CN I function

A

carries olfactory information to the brain

60
Q

CN II Function

A

the afferent of the pupillary light reflex

61
Q

CN III Function

A

the different of the pupillary light reflex

62
Q

CN III controls all extraocular muscles except for

A

lateral rectus and superior oblique

63
Q

CN IV function

A

moves eye down and in

64
Q

CN VI function

A

innervates lateral rectus which moves the eyes laterally

65
Q

Medial rectus

A

moves eye towards nose

66
Q

Superior rectus

A

moves eye up and out

67
Q

Inferior rectus

A

moves eye down and out

68
Q

Inferior oblique

A

moves eye up and in

69
Q

The trigeminal nerve innervates what areas of the face?

A

ophthalmic, maxillary, mandibular

70
Q

Medial longitudinal fasciculus

A

The connection between CNs VI and III

71
Q

CN VII function

A

controls movement of the face

72
Q

Facial Nerve VII Disorder

A

unilateral facial paralysis, unable to smile, raise eyebrows, close eye

73
Q

CN IX function

A

carries sensory info FROM the pharynx (afferent)

74
Q

CN X function

A

carries motor info TO the pharynx (efferent)

75
Q

What cranial nerves mediate gag reflex?

A

CNs IX and X

76
Q

CN XI function

A

innervates ipsilateral sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles

77
Q

CN XII function

A

innervates ipsilateral genioglossus (tongue)

78
Q

When you have a CN XII lesion, the tongue does what?

A

deviates towards the lesion

79
Q

CT Scan shows what

A

structure of brain

80
Q

MRI scan shows what

A

structure of brain & grey v white matter

81
Q

PET scan shows what

A

indirect function via blood flow

82
Q

fMRI scan shows what

A

indirect function via oxy/deoxygenated hemoglobin

83
Q

EEG shows what

A

synchronous activity of cortical neurons near surface

84
Q

MEG shows what

A

weak magnetic fields from electrical activity in the brain

85
Q

K+ is more concentrated where?

A

inside the neuron

86
Q

Na+, Cl-, Ca2+ are more concentrated where?

A

outside the neuron

87
Q

K+ nernst potential

A

-80 mV

88
Q

Na+ nernst potential

A

62 mV

89
Q

Ca2+ nernst potential

A

123 mV

90
Q

Cl- nernst potential

A

-65 mV

91
Q

Increasing extracellular [K+] does what to the membrane?

A

depolarizes

92
Q

Hyperlakemia

A

depolarizes cells, leads to cardia arrhythmias, used in lethal injection to stop heart

93
Q

How do astrocytes relate to K+?

A

buffer [K+] in extracellular space, have tons of K+ channels facilitating removal of K+ from extracellular fluid

94
Q

Blood brain barrier function

A

protects extracellular space from foreign substances, limits movement between blood and the extracellular space

95
Q

What forms the blood brain barrier?

A

tight junctions of endothelial cells that make up capillary walls

96
Q

Action potential definition

A

brief reversal of membrane potential from inside-neg to inside-pos and back

97
Q

spike train definition

A

Series of action potentials

98
Q

Volt-Gated Na+ channel properties

A
  • depolarization -> channel opening
  • rapid activation
  • rapid inactivation
  • refractory period
99
Q

absolute refractory period

A

neuron is unable to fire an AP no matter how strong the stimulus; all channels inactivated

100
Q

relative refractory period

A

neuron can fire, voltage is further away from spike threshold; enough channels recovered to fire

101
Q

Volt-Gated K+ channels

A
  • open slowly after depolarization
  • some channels are always open
  • cannot inactivate
102
Q

Tetrodoxin

A

pufferfish neurotoxin
- blocks volt-gated Na+ channels and eliminates action potentials

103
Q

Tetrodoxin symptoms

A

deadening of tongue and lips, dizziness, vomiting, numbness, tingling, rapid heart rate, muscle paralysis, suffocation

104
Q

Lidocaine

A

local anesthetic
- blocks Na+ channel pore
- smaller and more active nerves blocked first

105
Q

orthodromic propagation

A

propagates in normal direction away from soma to acon terminals

106
Q

antidromic propagation

A

opposite direction from orthodromic, doesn’t occur naturally

107
Q

3 main classes of neurotransmitters

A

amino acids, amines, neuropeptides

108
Q

large molecule transmitters

A

synthesized in ER, packaged in GA
- transported down axon in secretory granules

109
Q

small molecule transmitters

A

synthesis and packaging takes place in presynaptic terminals

110
Q

neurotransmitter release steps

A
  1. vesicle docking at active zone
  2. presynaptic Ca2+ entry
  3. transmitter exocytosis
  4. vesicle recycling
111
Q

Botulism poisoning

A

disrupts SNARE, prevents vesicle fusion and transmitter release

112
Q

Botulism poisoning symptoms

A

muscle weakness, paralysis, respiratory failure

113
Q

ionotropic receptor

A

direct action, the receptor is also an ion channel

114
Q

metabotropic receptor

A

indirect action, the receptor acts with ion channels through an intermediate signaling pathway

115
Q

Excitatory postsynaptic potential

A

depolarizing

116
Q

inhibitory postsynaptic potential

A

hyperpolarizing

117
Q

myasthenia gravis

A

autoimmune response against nicotinic cholinergic receptors at neuromuscular junction

118
Q

excitation takes membrane potential

A

towards ap threshold

119
Q

inhibition takes membrane potential

A

away from ap threshold

120
Q

most common excitatory neurotransmitter

A

glutamate

121
Q

most common inhibitory neurotransmitter

A

GABA

122
Q

criterion that establishes a molecule as a neurotransmitter

A
  1. synthesized and stored in presynaptic neuron
  2. released from the presynaptic terminal in response to presynaptic depolarization in a Ca2+ dependent manner
  3. binds to specific receptors of postsynaptic cell
  4. postsynaptic receptor binding mediates changes in the electrical excitability of the postsynaptic cell
123
Q

immunocytochemistry

A

detect and localize presence of small molecules, peptides, proteins, enzymes etc

124
Q

in situ hybridization

A

detect and localize nucleotide sequences in a tissue using unlabeled complementary RNA

125
Q

brain slice recording

A

records and stimulates well defined regions of neural tissue

126
Q

microiontophoresis

A

local application of small quantities of chemical substances using electrical currents applied to microelectrodes

127
Q

GABAa receptors

A

ionotropic Cl- channels

127
Q

GABAa receptor agonist

A

muscimol

128
Q

GABAa receptor enhancers

A

ethanol, benzodiazepines, barbiturates

129
Q

GABAb receptors

A

metabotropic K+ channels

130
Q

GABAb receptor agonist

A

baclofen

131
Q

Glycine receptors

A

ionotropic Cl- channels

neurobiology (3 decks)

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