Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Adults > Exam One > Flashcards

Exam One Flashcards

1
Q

What are peripheral IV’s used for? How often should you change them?

A

short-term use
q96h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If you see a IID what should you anticipate care for it?

A

q8 flush
assess site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What gauge needles are used for trauma/surgery?

A

16 and 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A nurse comes in the room with a pink catheter needle. What gauge and what is this used for?

A

20g
routine IV access and infusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

22 +24 gauge needles are used for which population?

A

peds+older adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What should you consider when using pushing IV meds via peripheral IV?

A

allergies
compatibility
dilution
rate of administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What lines should you never administer IVP?

A

TPN or PCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a central venus catheter used for? What are the two types of lines?

A

long-term therapy or tissue toxic medications

Port + PICC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A nursing aid comes into the their patients room and notices the patient has a PICC line. The aid understands that:

A

she cannot get a BP or venipuncture from the arm with the PICC line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do you access an implanted port?

A

using a non-coring needle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the four CVC guidelines?

A

Verify line placement with chest x-ray prior initial use

Assess site

Use 10mL flush

Assure blood return before administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Explain what an IV Piggyback is, and the purpose for the technique.

A

Primary - drop lower (maintenance)

Secondary - hang higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Saline is considered what kind of fluid?

A

crystalloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

An example of a colloid includes:

A

TPN or Blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

For hydration, a nurse would infuse ____.

A

0.9% NaCl (any isotonic solution)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which solution is used for short-term use in DKA or the ICU?

A

Hypotonic (.45% NaCl)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

IC tWhich solution is used in patients with hyponatremia?

A

Hypertonic (3% NaCl)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is considered a partial blockage of IV access? What location should you avoid for IV start?

A

occlusion
AC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are signs of infiltration?

A

coolness and pallor, increased firmness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is an extravasation?

Which meds are cautioned?

A

infiltration with tissue toxic med

Potassium + Sodium chloride, chemo agents, vasopressors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

You notice a red streak along vein, you recognize this as:

A

Phlebitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are causes of mechanical phlebitis?

A

Long periods of cannulation, catheter in flexed area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Nursing considerations of IV complications?

A

D/C and restart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Nursing considerations of IV complications?

A

D/C and restart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How many seconds to scrub the hub?

A

15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is inadvertent administration of excess fluid; s/s: crackles, edema, wt gain, dyspnea, rapid/shallow RR

A

overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Improper removal of central line can increase the risk for:

A

Air Embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What to position the patient in while they experience an air embolism?

A

left-side lying trendelenburg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the volume of PRBC compared to whole blood?

A

250-350mL
500mL
lighter!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which blood component is used to prevent bleeding and treat thrombocytopenia?

A

Platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which blood component is used for coagulation factor replacement and is an emergent reversal of warfarin?

A

Fresh Frozen Plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which blood component is used for low/abnormal WBC count (chemo/cancer patients)?

A

WBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which blood component is used to restore intravascular volume and maintains cardiac output in hypoproteinemia?

A

Albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How does PRBC effect hgb and hct?

A

HGB 1g
HCT 3-4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which products only with with blood?

A

SNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How to verify blood products?

A

patient + 2 nurses
in lab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Hemolytic transfusion reactions include:

A

Immediate onset, flushing, fever, chills, back pain, shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is a TACO:

A

Circulatory Overload
SOB, HTN, Hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

RBC Basics

A

12-day lifespan
o2 to cells
spleen/liver remove RBC
95% RBC
needs iron, b12, folate, b6 and protein to make new

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Most common symptom of anemia:

A

Fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A patient presents with a smooth red tongue, brittle ridged nails, cracks in mouth what is your diagnosis and treatment?

A

Iron-deficiency
Supplements+Diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Anemia presented with chronic disease can present with few HGB, what is treatment?

A

Treat underlying disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Aplastic anemia patients can benefit from which treatments?

A

Stem cell transplants, immunosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

treatment of megaloblastic anemia

A

folate or B12 replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Blood loss anemia

A

trauma, surgery, bleeding disorder

treat via transfusion/underlying condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What type of anemia is sickle cell?

A

Hemolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the characteristics of sickle cell anemia?

A

RBC lifespan 4-10 days, jaundice, tachy (HF), pain

life expected 50s, clots, CVA, sickle cell crisis

stem cell tranfusion, hydroxyurea, hydration, o2 pain meds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Chronic Disease VS Illness

A

D - medical/health problem
Illness- perception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Type II vs XVI

A

II - disabled under age 22, dead parent
XVI - disabled w limited resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Risk factors of chronic disease

A

HTN, obese, lack of physical activity, poor nutrition, smoking/tobacco, excessive alcohol, poor SES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Trajectory

A

the path or course that the chronic illness follows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Age related changes

A

physical, psychological, cognitive/mental, pharmacologic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Depression

A

SIG E CAPS
sleep, interest, guilt, energy, concentration, appetite, psychomotor, suicidal thoughts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Labs for depression

A

TSH, b-12,-6, abnormal calcium, renal function, UA, C&S, CBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Adjunct meds

A

two antidepressants, one antidepression with antipsychotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

SSRI, SNRI

A

Ortho-hypo, falls
Seotonin syndrome
MAOI
Suicide risk
wt/appetite changes
d/c syndrome
emotional blunting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Delirium

A

ACUTE ONSET
r/t complication/underlying medical condition
hyper/hypoactive/mixed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Dementia

A

cognitive, functional, behavioral changes
SUBLE ONSET
memory impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Alzeheimer’s

A

genetic, decreased ACH, stress, circadian changes, genetics, stroke,

ApoE4 on 19th chromeosome in cerebral cortex

avoid use of restraints
(PLST) to lower stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Geriatric Syndromes

A

Falls, Urinary Incontinence, Changes in cognition, Components of Geriatric Triad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Ohio Revised Code

A

report suspected abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Ohio Administrative Code

A

review/investigate allegations of abuse/neglect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

An elder presents in the in the ER with bruises in the upper forearm and a healing eye. The nurse should consider:

A

Physical abuse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

An elder presents in the nursing home as dehydrated and discovered urine burns. The nurse should consider:

A

Caregiver neglect

65
Q

Health (WHO)

A

state of complete physical, mental and social wellbeing

66
Q

A patient is in the process of consenting to surgery, understanding what they are saying is a form of–

A

metaethics (concept and linguistics_

67
Q

Debilitated

A

severely injured, diagnosis of failure to thrive

68
Q

Rehabilitation

A

Goal-oriented to attain and maintain optimum health as defined by the patient

69
Q

Principles of Rehab

A

encompass all domains of personhood, continuous process, active participation, goal directed, multi-professional teamwork

70
Q

What are the functions of the upper and lower respiratory tract?

A

warms+filters inspired air

responsible for gas exchange

71
Q

Diffusion

A

o2 and blood exhanged at air-blood interface

72
Q

Perfusion

A

blood-flow though the pulmonary circulation

73
Q

VQ scan

A

measures ventilation and perfusion for patient with suspected PE

74
Q

When is gas diffusion decreased?

A

decreased o2 in air, alveolar ventilation, surface area
increased membrane thickness

75
Q

What diffuses more easily than oxygen?

A

Co2

76
Q

What is the role of the phrenic nerve?

A

excites to control resting respiration

77
Q

What controls rate and depth of respirations?

A

I/E centers in medulla oblongata and pons

78
Q

Apneustic center

A

in lower pons, stimulations medullary center for deep breathing

79
Q

Central chemical receptors

A

respond to change in CSF from chem changes in blood from a change in pH to help correct imbalance

80
Q

Peripheral chemical receptors

A

aortic arch and carotid arteries first responders to change in ABG

81
Q

Mechanoreceptors

A

stretch, irritant and juxta capillary receptors

82
Q

proprioceptors

A

body movement

83
Q

baroreceptors

A

aortic arch and carotid respond to change in arterial BP and cause hypo/hyperventilation

84
Q

Dead space

A

area in lung where nothing is really happening

85
Q

A patient who complains of sharp stabbing pain on inspiration could be experiencing:

A

pleurisy

86
Q

Hemoptysis

A

coughing up blood

87
Q

barrel chest

A

r/t emphysema, overinflation of alveoli

88
Q

depressed breast bone

A

funnel chest

89
Q

Indications of respiratory issues?

A

Tachycardia, Dyspnea, restless/anxiety, abnormal chest x ray, Pa0w/FI02 ration, Tachypnea

90
Q

effects of decreased ventilation

A

increase Co2
hypercapnea
acidosis

lethargy, flushed dr skin, headache, narcosis, no fever, narcotics, anesthesia, high co2 level

91
Q

effects of increased ventilation

A

decrease Co2
hupocapnia
alkalosis

increased twitching, cardiac arrhythmias

92
Q

Hypoxia

A

decrease o2 to cell and tissue, pulse ox
change in mental status
tachy/bradycardia
diaphoresis
HTN
dusky color

93
Q

Tidal volume

A

air moves in and out of the lungs in one quiet breath

94
Q

vital capacity

A

maximum volume of air exhaled after maximum inspiration

95
Q

Functional residual capacity

A

volume of air remaining in lungs after normal exhalation

96
Q

rhinitis

A

viral, cold/virus, do not treat with antibiotic

97
Q

rhinosinusitis

A

acute/chronic - elderly, scarred sinus

98
Q

epistaxis

A

nose bleed

99
Q

Oxygen

A

considered a med, need order

indication: CNS changes, hypoxia, hypoxemia, change in respiratory pattern

complication: oxygen toxicity, supression of ventilation, respiratory alkalosis, lethargic, agitation

100
Q

Tracheotomy

A

procedure opening is made into trachea

101
Q

Tracheostomy

A

actual opening

used to bypass upper airway obstruction, removal of tracheobronchial secretions, longterm use of mechanical ventilation
prevent aspiration of oral or gastric secretions

102
Q

How long before changing or removing stoma of a trach?

A

96hr

103
Q

Do not instill __ into trach?

A

NS

104
Q

OSA

A

recurrent episodes of upper airway obstruction and reduction in ventilation during sleep

stimulates SNS, risk for MI, stroke, HTN

105
Q

treatment for OSA

A

wt loss, airway support, CPAP, BiPAP, dental appliance, CNS stimulant to decrease excessive sleepiness
Modafinil

106
Q

Atelectasis

A

closure/collapse of alveoli resulting from reduced ventilation or obstruction of air to and from alveoli.

acute - ASAP
chronic - maintenance

107
Q

What puts a patient at risk for atelectasis?

A

surgical, immobilized, increased age

108
Q

What can we anticipation from a patient presenting with central cyanosis?

A

intubation is coming

109
Q

Pneumonia

A

inflammation of the lung parenchyma caused by m/o

arterial hypoexmia

green/red hinge sputum

antimicrobials

110
Q

Pulmonary Tuberculosis

A

chronic infectious disease of lungs highly contagious

airbourne - pressure room, n95

droplet nuclei

111
Q

symptoms of TB

A

night sweats - low grade fever, wt loss, rust colored sputum

TB GOLD TEST - detects gamma by RBC

112
Q

Mantoux

A

nonactive TB, read 48-72hr, positive = hardening at site

113
Q

Med for Prophylaxis TB

A

Isoniazid WITH B6
polyneuropathy

114
Q

Rifampin

A

orange urine, secretion, staining

115
Q

Ethambutol

A

optic neuritis, vision changes

116
Q

Pyrazinamide

A

joint pain, uric acid (hyperuricemia)

117
Q

pleurisy

A

inflammation of lung due to lack of surfactant, sharp stabbing pain with inspiration

118
Q

Pneumothorax

A

pleural space exposed to positive pressure (spontaneous, trauma, post surgical, tension)

plueritic sharp stabbing pain

119
Q

Heimlich valve

A

one way value does not come back into chest cavity

120
Q

Tracheal deviation is an indicator of a

A

pneumothorax

121
Q

A chest tube is being placed for a patient, the nurse knows that when tubing is used to drain fluid and blood it is to hang ____ while draining air it is to drain ____.

A

Low

High

122
Q

Chest tubes must be below ___cm or more

A

40

123
Q

Complication where air bubbles get into tissue under the skin

A

subq emphysema

124
Q

ABCD of chest tube

A

A- suctioning, gentle bubling
b+c - water seal NO bubbles, tidaling
D is output

125
Q

Lung Cancer

A

no early diagnosis
80-85% NSCLC adenocarcinoma

90% start at bronchial epithelium

126
Q

Diagnosis Lung Cancer

A

CT, PET, MRI, Biopsy, CXRAY

127
Q

treatment complications for lung cancer drugs

A

respiratory failure
ventilator dependency
pulmonary fibrosis
pericarditis
myelitis
cor pulmonale
pulmonary toxicit
pneumonitis

128
Q

Pulmonary Embolism

A

BC in circulation to right side of heart

obstrucution of pulmonary artery

trauma, surgery, pregnancy, HF >50, hypercoaguable states, immobility

129
Q

COPD

A

Non-reversible airflow limitation on exhalation associated with an inflammatory response in proximal and peripheral airways, parenchyma and vasculature

130
Q

Complications of COPD

A

hypoxia, acidosis, infection, narrowing of airways, right-sided heart failure, dysrhythmias, decrease QOL, death

131
Q

What are the three primary symptoms of COPD?

A

chronic cough, sputum production, dyspnea

(wt loss, DOE, use accessory)

132
Q

To diagnose a patient with bronchitis, what are two indications of the disease?

A

cough with daily sputum
3mo for 2yrs

133
Q

S/Sx of Bronchitis

A

Duskt/Cyanotic
Cough w/ Sputum
Hypoxia
Hypercapnea
Acidosis
Increase RR
Clubbing

134
Q

Characteristics of Bronchitis

A

Pursed-lip
Stocky
Accessory muscles
Fluid retention
Respiratory acidosis r/t oxygen
Cor pulmonale - right sided HF

135
Q

Why use steroid short term?

A

Could make patient diabetic, increases risk of fracture and infection, adrenal insufficiency.

136
Q

Emphysema

A

Impaired oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange r/t breakdown of alveolar walls

137
Q

What occurs from the breakdown of alveolar walls

A

increase in deadspace
impaired diffusion (hypoxemia)
co2 elimination impaired
overinflation of alveoli and air trapping

138
Q

S/Sx emphysema

A

Pink (co2 retention)
Dyspnea (exertional)
Inneffective cough
Hyper-resonance
Orthopneic
Short-Jerky sentences

139
Q

Emphysema Common Characteristics

A

Thin, increased RR
Accessory muscle use, purse lipped breathing, pneumonia risk

140
Q

COPD treatment

A

small frequent meals, low CHO, hydration

Bronchodilators - steroids

Surgery

Pulmonary Rehabilitation (education, activity pacing, physical conditioning, coping, o2)

141
Q

Asthma

A

Chronic inflammation of the airway, airway hyper-reponsiveness

142
Q

Bronchospasm

A

usually reversible, related to structurally changes of the airways

142
Q

Bronchospasm

A

usually reversible, related to structurally changes of the airways

142
Q

Bronchospasm

A

usually reversible, related to structurally changes of the airways

143
Q

Initially when asthma attacks occur hypoxia leads to _______. While later in the attack, increased Co2 leads to ______ ultimately leading to _________ ________.

A

Alkalosis

Acidosis; Respiratory Failure

144
Q

What are asthma triggers?

A

Allergies, meds, URI, GERD, strong odors, hormones, exercise, stress, laughing, cold air

145
Q

What are three most common symptoms of asthma?

A

Cough, Dyspnea, Wheezing

prolonged expiration
Diaphoresis
Hypoxemia
Tachy
Widened pulse pressure

146
Q

Asthma diagnostic tests

A

FEV1 (Forced Expiratory)
Forced Vital Capacity
PFTs

147
Q

Asthma education

A

trigger recognition, environmental changes, med uses, monitoring of PEF

148
Q

Complications of asthma

A

status asthmaticus, R failure, pneumonia, atelectasis, hypoxemia

149
Q

Asthma not responding to normal course of treatment is considered:

A

Status Asthmaticus

150
Q

Dyspnea management meds

A

Bronchodilators
Opioids
Anxiolytics

151
Q

What is the role of MonteLukast? When should it be given?

A

prevents bronchial tubes from constriction

nighttime

152
Q

What are rescue drugs for asthma?

A

Albuterol
Beta 2 agonist
Levalbuterol (HR not as high as Al)

153
Q

What are maintenance or prevention drugs for asthma?

A

Salmeterol and Formoterol

154
Q

What drugs are most effective for asthma?

A

Inhaled corticosteroids

Fluticasone, Budesonide, Flunisolide

155
Q

Nursing interventions for COPD

A

o2 management oxygen therapy

energy conversion

exercise

fluids

expectorants

breathing exercises

anxiety reduction

156
Q

Diagnostic for Delirium

A

CAM

157
Q

Tools to assess functional capacity

A

ADLs, IADLs

Adults (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions