Exam moc Flashcards
1
Q
Topic 1: Organisation of the Human Body and Introduction to Pharmacology
The serous membrane covers which of the following?
- Heart
- Uterus
- Nasal cavity
- Lungs
- Skin
Select one: A. 1, 2, 3 B. 1, 2, 4 C. 3, 4, 5 D. 1, 2, 6 E. 2, 3, 4
A
B
2
Q
- The appendix is located in the:
A. right upper quadrant B. right lower quadrant C. left upper quadrant D. left lower quadrant E. left upper region
A
B
3
Q
- A plane that runs vertically through the body and separates it into right and left portions is called:
A. sagittal B. transverse C. coronal D. frontal E. horizontal
A
A
4
Q
- Which factor/s may affect drug absorption?
A. Lipid solubility B. Water solubility C. Molecular size D. Dosage E. All the above
A
E
5
Q
- Therapeutic range can be defined as:
A. the dosage range expected to achieve desired therapeutic effects.
B. the dosage range expected to achieve higher therapeutic effects.
C. the dosage range expected to achieve lower therapeutic effects.
D. A, B and C are incorrect
E. A, B and C are correct
A
A
6
Q
Topic 2: Chemistry
- An ionic bond forms when:
A. One atom donates an electron to another atom and the oppositely charged ions are attracted to each other
B. When two atoms share electrons with each other
C. When two atoms share protons with each other
D. One atom donates a proton to another atom and the oppositely charged ions are attracted to each other
E. When the protons and neutrons of one atom combine with the protons and neutrons of a second atom in a new nucleus surrounded by electrons
A
A
7
Q
- For sodium (Na) to become a sodium ion (Na+) it must have
A. gained a single electron B. gained a single proton C. lost a single electron D. lost a single neutron E. lost a single proton
A
C
8
Q
- Steroids, phospholipids and triglycerides are all types of:
A. carbohydrate building blocks B. nucleic acids C. proteins D. lipid building blocks E. lipids
A
E
9
Q
- Which of the following statements is NOT true in regard to enzymes?
1) The building blocks of enzymes are fatty acids and glycerol.
2) All enzymes are proteins.
3) Enzymes speed up chemical reactions.
4) Enzymes are rapidly degraded by the reactions they assist.
5) Enzyme function depends on its three-dimensional shape.
A. 4 B. 2, 3, 5 C. 1, 2, 4 D. 1, 4 E. 3, 5
A
D
10
Q
- When added to water a ____________ acid like HCl will _____________ dissociate into its component ions H+ and Cl- and have a _________ pH.
A. weak, fully, high B. weak, partially, low C. strong, fully, low D. strong, fully, high E. strong, partially, high
A
C
What if it was
Sodium dioxide
or
Carbinic acid
11
Q
Topic 3: Cells and Tissues
- What are the organelles in the cell that are involved in protein synthesis?
- nucleolus
- ribosome
- mitochondria
- endoplasmic reticulum
- lysosomes
A. 1, 2, 3 B. 2, 3, 4 C. 1, 2, 4 D. 3, 4, 5 E. 1, 3, 5
A
C
12
Q
- The rough endoplasmic reticulum is a membranous system associated with:
A. chromosomes B. lysosomes C. ribosomes D. mitochondria E. nucleus
A
C
13
Q
- Which of the following is NOT a function of epithelium?
A. Barrier formation B. Impulse conduction C. Secretion D. Transportation E. A and B are correct
A
B
14
Q
- Organised groups of cells that have a common purpose form a(n):
A. organ B. tissue C. organism D. organ system E. organelle
A
B
15
Q
- Which of the following is NOT considered as connective tissue?
A. Cartilage B. Fibrous tissue C. Muscle D. Blood E. Bone
A
C
16
Q
Topic 4: Blood
- Which of the following are leukocytes:
1) Basophils
2) Platelets
3) White blood cells
4) Fibroblasts
5) Neutrophils
A 3 B 1,3,5 C 2,4 D 1,5,4 E 4
A
B
17
Q
- The primary organ responsible for producing erythropoietin (EPO) to stimulate the production of more red blood cells is the:
A. thyroid gland B. red bone marrow C. pancreas D. kidneys E. adrenal glands
A
D
18
Q
- Hemostasis refers to:
A. the production of red blood cells. B. the production of leukocytes. C. the prevention of blood loss through bleeding. D. fibrinolysis. E. the production of platelets.
A
C
19
Q
- A patient with a B+ blood type would have the following antibodies:
A. Anti-Rh antibodies only B. Anti-B antibodies only C. Anti-A antibodies only D. Anti-A and anti-Rh antibodies. E. Anti-B and anti-Rh antibodies.
A
C
20
Q
- A patient with the blood type AB- can receive blood from?
1) A+ donors
2) AB- donors
3) A- donors
4) O+ donors
5) A+ donors
A. 2 only B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 C. 2, 4 D. 2, 3 E. 1, 2, 3, 5
A
D
21
Q
Topic 5: CVS
- Blood is carried to capillaries in the myocardium by way of:
A. the coronary sinus B. the coronary veins C. the coronary arteries D. the endocardial arteries E. aorta
A
C
22
Q
- The function of the aortic and pulmonary semi-lunar valves in the heart is to:
A. allow the atria to fill with blood during diastole
B. prevent blood returning to the ventricles during diastole
C. prevent blood returning to the atria during systole
D. prevent blood entering the aorta and pulmonary artery during systole
E. prevent blood entering the vena cava
A
B
23
Q
- If blood samples were taken from the right atrium, right ventricle, and pulmonary artery, and analysed for oxygen concentration:
A. the right atrial sample would be lowest in oxygen concentration.
B. all would contain more oxygen than blood in the pulmonary vein.
C. all would contain about the same concentration of oxygen.
D. the right ventricular sample would contain more oxygen than the right atrial sample.
E. all would contain more nitrogen than blood in the pulmonary vein
A
C
24
Q
- Cardiac output is influenced by:
A. heart rate B. stroke volume C. exercise D. pregnancy E. all of the above
A
E
25
25. When comparing arteries and veins, which one of the following is true?
A. Veins have thicker walls than arteries
B. Arteries have a greater amount of smooth muscle and elastic fibres than veins
C. Veins have a tunica media while arteries do not
D. Arteries have valves, but veins do not
E. Veins lumen size smaller than arteries
B
26
Topic 6: The Respiratory System
26. Forced vital capacity refers to:
A. the volume of air movement occurring during quiet breathing.
B. total lung volume
C. the amount of air that remains in the lungs following one expiratory breath.
D. the maximal amount of air you can exhale, after inspiring the maximal amount of air possible.
E. the maximal amount of air that can be expelled in one second.
D
27
27. At high altitudes there is a(n):
1) lower partial pressure of oxygen.
2) stimulus for hyperventilating.
3) rise in red blood cell numbers after a prolonged period of time.
4) increase in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide
5) a higher partial pressure of oxygen compared to sea level
```
A. 1, 3 only
B. 1, 2, 3 only
C. 4, 5 only
D. 2, 5 only
E. 3, 4 only
```
B
28
28. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through cell membranes via:
```
A. active transport
B. diffusion
C. filtration
D. osmosis
E. alveolar pumps
```
B
29
29. The following oxygen saturation (SpO2) readings on the pulse oximeter would be considered normal.
```
A. 85%
B. 89%
C. 93%
D. 95%
E. Both C and D
```
D
30
30. Air moves out of the lungs during expiration due to:
A. the increased intrapulmonary pressure compared to the atmospheric pressure.
B. the reduced intrapulmonary pressure compared to the atmospheric pressure.
C. the diaphragm contracting
D. equilibrium being reached between the intrapulmonary pressure and the atmospheric pressure.
E. nerve impulses that stimulate expiration
A
31
Topic 7: Renal system
31. The urinary system is responsible for:
1. Removal of waste products from the bloodstream.
2. Storage and excretion of urine.
3. Regulation of leukocyte and platelet production.
4. Regulation of blood volume and, indirectly, blood pressure.
5. conducts nerve impulses
```
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 3, 4
C. 1, 2, 4
D. 3, 4, 5
E. All of the above
```
C
32
32. What is the functional filtration unit in the kidney?
```
A. Renal tubule
B. Renal capsule
C. Renal papilla
D. Glomerulus
E. Renal cortex
```
D
33
34. Which of the following hormones directly promotes the reabsorption of sodium ions?
```
A. Aldosterone
B. Renin
C. ADH
D. Erythropoietin
E. Insulin
```
A
34
35. When the extracellular fluid becomes too acidic, the tubular secretion of:
```
A. hydrogen ions decreases
B. hydrogen ions increases
C. sodium ions decreases
D. sodium ions increases
E. calcium ions decreases
```
B
35
Topic 8: Endocrine system
36. All hormones:
A. are of similar chemical composition
B. are secreted at a constant rate
C. combine with specific receptors on the target cell’s surface or inside the target cell
D. are cholesterol derivatives
E. have the same chemical structure and composition
C
36
37. What organ produces the hormone “cortisol”?
```
A. Thyroid glands
B. Gonadal glands
C. Pancreas
D. Adrenal glands
E. Thymus
```
D
37
38. Which of the following secretes insulin and glucagon?
```
A. Liver
B. Pancreas
C. Adrenal cortex
D. Pituitary gland
E. Thyroid gland
```
B
38
39. The secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) is controlled mainly by the:
```
A. hypothalamus
B. thyroid gland
C. pituitary gland
D. blood calcium levels
E. blood sodium levels
```
D
39
40. The posterior pituitary stores and releases ________________________.
```
A. ADH and oxytocin
B. growth hormone and testosterone
C. adrenaline and noradrenaline
D. ACTH and FSH
E. insulin and glucagon
```
A
40
Topic 9: Reproductive System
41. Which of the following is NOT a part of the male reproductive system?
1. Epididymis
2. Ureters
3. Ductus deferens
4. Urethra
5. Uterine tube
```
A. 1, 2
B. 2, 3
C. 2, 5
D. 3, 4
E. 4, 5
```
C
41
42. What is spermatogenesis?
A. Spermatogenesis is another name for the process of puberty.
B. Spermatogenesis is the sequence of events that leads to the production of spermatozoa.
C. Spermatogenesis is the reabsorbing of sperm that are not ejaculated.
D. Spermatogenesis is the conversion of spermatids to spermatozoa.
E. Spermatogenesis is the sequence of events that leads to the production of oocyte.
B
42
45. 43. Which of the following hormones are secreted by the corpus luteum?
```
A. Progesterone
B. Estrogen
C. FSH
D. LH
E. Both A and B
```
E
43
44. Which one of the following statements is correct?
```
A. The male gamete is known as sperm
B. A mature sperm is a diploid (2n) cell
C. Haploid cells are formed by the process of mitosis
D. Sperm cells live only two hours
E. The male gamete is known as ovum
```
A
44
45. Inhibin:
A. is produced by the Sertoli cells
B. is produced by the developing sperm cells
C. is produced by the Leydig cells
D. is produced the mature sperm cells
E. is produced in the spermatogonium cells
A
45
Topic 10: Embryology
46. The blastocyst is:
A. the single fertilised egg formed following fertilisation of the ovum with a single sperm.
B. the 4-cell stage that develops approximately 2 days after fertilisation.
C. the cell stage that implants into the wall of the uterus
D. the part of the trophoblast layer of cells responsible for achieving implantation in the uterine wall
E. the embryo at the stage of development when the placenta is fully functional.
C
46
47. The transformation to a three-layered embryo occurs during week 3 of development, the process of which is called gastrulation. What are the names of the three layers formed in order from innermost to outermost layer?
A. Endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm
B. Primitive streak, endoderm, mesoderm
C. Neural crest tissue, muscular tissue, epithelial tissue
D. Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm
E. Primitive streak, gastrulated tissues, notochord
A
47
48. Which of the following physiological changes can usually be observed to have increased in a healthy mother by late pregnancy
A. Blood volume, blood pressure, cardiac output, haematocrit, urination, constipation
B. Blood pressure and cardiac output
C. Blood volume and blood pressure
D. Total body water, blood volume, cardiac output, urination, constipation
E. All of the above listed physiological measurements
E
48
49. Oxytocin and Prostaglandins both have critical roles in driving true labour. Which hormone(s) drives the up-regulation of oxytocin receptors on the uterus during late pregnancy to allow it to respond to oxytocin signals during labour?
```
A. Prostaglandin E
B. Relaxin
C. Human placental lactogen
D. Progesterone
E. Estrogen
```
E
49
50. A baby’s first breath:
1) is driven by CO2 accumulation in the blood causing acidosis, which triggers the baby’s respiratory control centre to inspire
2) is contingent on the initiation of surfactant production in the first minute after birth
3) occurs in utero
4) requires tremendous effort as the airways are tiny and the lungs are collapsed
5) none of these statements are correct.
```
A. 2
B. 2, 3
C. 2, 4
D. 1, 4
E. 5
```
D
50
Directing swift responses to stimuli, usually by coordinating the activities of other organ systems is the function of the:
Select one:
A. Integumentary system
B. Nervous system
C. Endocrine system
D. Cardiovascular system
b
51
The mid-sagittal plane:
Select one:
A. divides the body into superior and inferior portions.
B.divides the body in two equal left and right parts along the midline.
C. cuts the body diagonally between the horizontal and vertical planes.
D. divides the body into left and right parts that are parallel to the midline.
b
52
Which of the following activities are regulated by Homeostasis?
Select one:
A. Temperature
B. Water balance
C. Blood sugar level
D. All of the above
d
53
Pharmacokinetics is:
Select one:
A. The study of biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
B. The study of mechanisms of drug action
C. The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs
D. The study of methods of new drug development
d
54
Kidneys are located in the:
Select one:
A. dorsal body cavity
B. thoracic cavity
C. ventral body cavity
D. abdominal cavity
d
55
Which of the following is not a part of the urinary system?
Select one:
A. Kidney
B. Ureters
C. Spleen
D. Urethra
c
56
Substance which alters functions of the body by absorbing into the body of a living organism is called a:
Select one:
A. Mineral
B. Compound
C. Vitamin
D. Drug
d
57
Which of the following organs or structure would be found in the epi-gastric region?
Select one:
A. Appendix
B. Urinary bladder
C. Stomach
D. Heart
c
58
What is the most common route of administration?
Select one:
A. Inhalation
B. Intravenous
C. Oral
D. Intramuscular
c
59
The body cavity which houses the lung is known as the:
Select one:
A. pericardial cavity
B. pelvic cavity
C. thoracic cavity
D. cranial cavity
c
60
pH is a concentration unit used to measure the concentration of:
Select one:
A. hydroxyl ions in a solution.
B. hydrogen ions in a solution.
C. any cations in a solution.
D. any anions in a solution.
b
61
The major building blocks for neutral fats (triglycerides) are:
Select one:
A. Amino Acids
B. Nucleic Acids
C. Glycerol and fatty acids
D. Monosaccharides
c
62
For H to become H+ it must have:
Select one:
A. Gained a proton
B. Gained a neutron
C. Lost an electron
D. Lost a proton
c
63
Which of the following constitutes a long chain of simple sugars?
Select one:
A. Monosaccharide
B. Polysaccharide
C. Protein
D. Nucleic Acid
b
64
Bases can be referred to as:
Select one:
A. Proton Donators
B. Proton Acceptors
C. Cations
D. H+ ions
b
65
An unknown substance is added to a solution of water and the pH increases. The substance is likely:
Select one:
A. A solvent
B. A buffer
C. An acid
D. A base
d
66
Blood pH can be affected by:
Select one:
A. Alterations in breathing rates
B. The bicarbonate/carbonic acid buffer system
C. The function of the kidneys
D. All of the above
d
67
Oxygen has 8 electrons total. How many electrons would you find in its valence shell?
Select one:
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
c
68
An ionic bond is formed between:
Select one:
A. two ions that result from atoms gaining or losing an electron
B. two atoms that share an electron
C. two neutral atoms
D. two Hydrogen atoms that share a weak attraction with each other, such as that seen between the bases in DNA
a
69
The element Chlorine (Cl) has an atomic number of 17, and an atomic mass of 35, how many protons (p), neutrons (n) and electrons (e) does it have?
Select one:
A. 17 (p), 17 (n), 17(e)
B. 17 (p), 35 (n), 35 (e)
C. 17 (p), 8 (n), 7 (e)
D. 17 (p), 18 (n), 17 (e)
d
70
Most of the water in the body is:
Select one:
A. Intracellular fluid
B. Interstitial fluid
C. Extracellular fluid
D. Plasma
a
71
The movement of oxygen from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is an example of:
Select one:
A. Osmosis
B. Diffusion
C. Active transport
D. Facilitated diffusion
b
72
A group of similar cells that have a shared function is known as:
Select one:
A. Tissues
B. Cells
C. Organs
D. Organelles
a
73
The plasma membrane is:
Select one:
A. composed of a bilayer of proteins.
B. composed of a bilayer of lipids.
C. composed of only carbohydrate molecules.
D. a complex combination of carbohydrates and proteins.
b
74
Which of the following statements is correct regarding diffusion?
Select one:
A. Rate of diffusion is independent of temperature.
B. Rate of diffusion is dependent of temperature.
C. Higher the temperature, lower the rate of diffusion.
D. Lower the temperature, faster the diffusion rate.
b
75
Which of the following cell organelles serves sorting and packaging of proteins?
Select one:
A. Mitochondrion
B. Ribosome
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Centriole
c
76
Which of the following tissues lines the majority of the digestive tract?
Select one:
A. Stratified cuboidal
B. Transitional
C. Simple squamous
D. Simple columnar
d
77
Which one of the following epithelial tissue types is best adapted for the rapid transport of materials across its membranes?
Select one:
A. Transitional
B. Simple squamous
C. Stratified squamous
D. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar
b
78
Name the epithelium which consists of two, or more than two, layers of cells that protect the core tissues?
Select one:
A. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
B. Simple columnar epithelium
C. Stratified epithelium
D. Simple cuboidal epithelium
c
79
The membranes that line body cavities that are closed to the exterior are called:
Select one:
A. Cutaneous
B. Mucous
C. Serous
D. Synovial
b
80
An Agonist is?
Select one:
1. A drug that blocks the receptors without activating them
2. A drug that initiates the receptor to inhibit the biological reaction
3. A drug that initiates the receptor to activate the biological reaction
4. A drug that excites the receptors without activating them
3
81
A structure that is composed of two or more tissues would be:
Select one:
a. a complex tissue
b. an organ
c. a complex cell
d. an organ system
b
82
Humans have the most urgent need for a continuous supply of
Select one:
a. oxygen
b. water
c. food
d. Nitrogen
a
83
Select the option that shows increasing complexity levels:
Select one:
a. cellular, tissue, organ system, organ
b. cellular, tissues, organ, organ system
c. tissue, organ, organ sytem, cellular
d. organ, tissue, cellular, organ system
b
84
Histology is the study of?
Select one:
a. tissues
b. cells
c. systems
d. organs
a
85
Which of the following would be an example of positive feedback?
Select one:
a. Release of glucagon to increase a below normal level of glucose in the blood
b. Release of insulin to decrease a high level of glucose in the blood
c. Release of oxytocin to increase the strength of labor contractions
d. Shivering to generate heat in a situation where body temperature is below normal
c
86
Which of the following is a structural and functional unit of the human body?
Select one:
a. cell
b. tissue
c. organ
d. organ system
a
87
The liver is part of:
Select one:
a. reproductive system.
b. digestive system.
c. respiratory system.
d. endocrine system
b
88
Which choice below is NOT one of the three components of homeostatic control systems?
Select one:
a. Receptor (senses the change)
b. The effector
c. Stimulus (cause of the initial change)
d. The control center
c
89
Homeostatic imbalance has occurred when a:
Select one:
a. person becomes ill.
b. person's breathing rate increases as a result of exercise.
c. person sweats as a result of being hot.
d. person shivers as a result of being cold.
a
90
The respiratory system contains the:
Select one:
a. kidneys, ureters, and bladder.
b. trachea, bronchi, and lungs.
c. pituitary, pineal, and thyroid glands.
d. liver, small intestine, and colon.
b
91
Which of the following is NOT a necessary human life function?
Select one:
a. Responsiveness
b. Intelligence
c. Metabolism
d. Excretion
b
92
Which one of these is an example of positive feedback system?
Select one:
a. blood pressure control
b. temperature control
c. blood sugar control
d. blood clotting process
d
93
A group of similar cells that perform the same function is classified as a(n) ------.
Select one:
a. organ
b. tissue
c. organism
d. organ system
b
94
Which of the following is a logical organisation?
Select one:
a. atoms, cells, molecules, tissues
b. molecules, atoms, cells, tissues
c. atoms, tissues, molecules, cells
d. atoms, molecules, cells, tissues
d
95
During exercise the body cools itself by sweating. Sweating in response to an elevated body temperature is an example of what process?
Select one:
a. metabolism
b. negative feedback
c. positive feedback
d. movement
b
96
Which of the following events is not the result of a negative feedback mechanism?
Select one:
a. Sweating to help lower elevated body temperature
b. An increased respiratory rate when blood pH is decreased
c. Blood clotting when the lining of a blood vessel is injured
d. Decreased urine production when the blood pressure drops
c
97
Which of the following body systems acts as a fast-acting control system for the body?
Select one:
a. Endocrine
b. Respiratory
c. Skeletal
d. Nervous
d
98
What are the four elements that makes up 96% of our body?
Select one:
a. carbon, nitrogen, zinc, potassium
b. carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen
c. carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, sodium
d. carbon, calcium, hydrogen, nitrogen
b
99
Which of the following body systems is most involved in responsiveness?
Select one:
a. muscular system
b. digestive system
c. nervous system
d. reproductive system
c
100
What is the definition of homeostasis?
Select one:
a. The ability to maintain relatively stable external conditions even though the inside world changes continuously
the ability to maintain relatively stable external conditions even though the inside world changes continuously
b. when the outpur shuts off the original effect of the stimulus
c. the response enhances the original stimulus so that the response is accelerated or inhibited
d. the ability to maintain relatively stabale internal conditions even through the outside world changes continuously
d
101
The study of drug properties, composition and medical applications is called?
Select one:
1. Zoology
2. Histology
3. Pharmacology
4. Ecology
3
102
Which one of the following statements is correct?
Select one:
1. first-pass metabolism is a phenomenon of drug metabolism whereby the concentration of a drug is greatly increased before it reaches the systemic circulation
2. Sublingual drug administration, drug must remain under the tongue until dissolved
3. Sublingual drug administration, drug must be swallowed quickly
4. first-pass metabolism is a phenomenon of drug metabolism whereby kidney excretes the drug completely from the body
2
103
Drugs on which people become dependent are called?
Select one:
1. Pharmaceutical Drugs
2. Industrial Drugs
3. Addictive
4. Single Cell Drugs
3
104
Illicit drug means
Select one:
1. Drugs that are sold in Chemists
2. Those that illegal to make/sell/use
3. Drugs are prescribed to patients
4. Drugs that can be bought over the counter
2
105
Pharmaco-dynamics is:
Select one:
1. The effects of drugs on the liver
2. The effect of drug on the body
3. How the body metabolises the drug
4. Both 1 and 2 are correct
2
106
Factor/s which may affect drug absorption:
Select one:
1. Molecular size
2. All the above
3. Dosage
4. Lipid water solubility
2
107
Therapeutic range can be defined as:
Select one:
1. The dosage range expected to achieve higher therapeutic effects
2. None of the above
3. The dosage range expected to achieve desired therapeutic effects
4. The dosage range expected to achieve lower therapeutic effects
3
108
An Agonist is?
Select one:
1. A drug that blocks the receptors without activating them
2. A drug that initiates the receptor to inhibit the biological reaction
3. A drug that initiates the receptor to activate the biological reaction
4. A drug that excites the receptors without activating them
3
109
Oral doses of medications are generally higher than intravenous (IV) does because:
Select one:
1. They metabolise more quickly
2. IV drug preparations are more potent
3. They undergo the first pass effect
4. They undergo more protein binding
3
110
The range of plasma drug levels between the minimally effective dose and the toxic
concentration is known as the:
Select one:
1. Therapeutic range
2. Range of maximal efficacy
3. Tolerance index
4. Dose index
1
111
A high number of H+ (compared to OH-) ions in a solution means that the solution is ..................., whereas a high number of OH- (compared to H+) ions in solution means that the solution is .........................
Select one:
a. acidic, basic
b. acidic, neutral
c. basic, acidic
d. alkaline, neutral
a
112
Select the statement that is most correct regarding chemical bonds.
Select one:
a. Covalent bonds only ever involve the sharing of one electron
b. Ionic bonds involve the sharing of electrons between two atoms.
c. Covalent bonds involve the sharing of one or more electrons between one or more atoms
d. Covalent bonding involves the transfer of an electron between atoms to form ions that then are attracted to each other
c
113
Which is the smallest out of the following?
Select one:
a. Electron
b. Atom
c. Proton
d. Element
a
114
Excessive retention of CO2 in the blood stream caused by poor lung function will result in:
Hint: Consider the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system equation (CO2 + H2O ↔ H2CO3 ↔ H+ + HCO3-)
Select one:
a. The blood becoming too basic
b. The pH of the blood becomes too high
c. The onset of acidosis (blood pH drops)
d. The excessive formation of HCl
a
115
A long chain of simple sugars would be a:
Select one:
a. monosaccharide.
b. polysaccharide.
c. nucleic acid.
d. protein.
b
116
Select the most correct statement regarding nucleic acids.
Select one:
a. DNA is a long, double-stranded molecule made up of A, T, G, and C nucleotides.
b. Nucleic acids have the building blocks of glycerol and fatty acid chains
c. Three forms of nucleic acid exists: DNA, RNA, and lipids
d. RNA is a long, double-stranded molecule made up of the nucleotides A, T, G, and C.
a
117
A solution that has a pH of 1 could best be described as being:
Select one:
a. strongly alkaline
b. weakly acidic
c. strongly acidic
d. neutral
c
118
Which of the following would be regarded as an organic molecule?
Select one:
a. H2O
b. NaOH
c. CH4
d. NaCl
c
119
A buffer is a solution that ___________________ pH
Select one:
a. promotes changes to
b. doesn't have a
c. always decreases
d. resists changes to
d
120
Carbonic acid is a ________ acid that ___________ dissociates in solution
Select one:
a. strong, partially
b. weak, fully
c. strong, fully
d. weak, partially
d
121
The formula C6H12O6 means:
Select one:
a. This is an inorganic molecule
b. the substance is a colloid.
c. the molecular weight is 24.
d. there are 12 hydrogen, 6 carbon and 6 oxygen atoms bonded together.
d
122
If atom X has an atomic number of 74 it would have ________.
Select one:
a. 37 protons and 37 neutrons
b. 37 electrons
c. 74 protons and no neutrons
d. 74 protons and 74 electrons
d
123
Human blood has a pH of _______
Select one:
a. 8.1
b. 6.8
c. 7.4
d. 5.9
c
124
Which of the following is an example of a strong base?
Select one:
a. Ca2CO3
b. H2O
c. NaOH
d. HCl
c
125
Seeing O = O written as part of a structural formula means:
Select one:
a. the oxygen atoms are double bonded meaning they are sharing two electrons in their valence shells
b. both oxygen atoms are bonded and have zero electrons in the outer orbit.
c. zero equals zero
d. this is an ionic bond with two shared electrons.
a
126
What occurred to Hydrogen (H) for it to become H+
Select one:
a. Gained an electron
b. Gained a proton
c. Lost an electron
d. Lost a neutron
c
127
Which of the following is not a function that water plays in our bodies?
Select one:
a. Plays a role in many chemical reactions
b. Excellent at cushioning
c. High heat capacity
d. Non-polar solvent
d
128
The four elements that make up about 96% of body matter are:
Select one:
a. carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, calcium.
b. carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen.
c. nitrogen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium.
d. sodium, potassium, hydrogen, oxygen.
b
129
Sucrose is a ________________
Select one:
a. Protein
b. Steroid
c. Triglyceride
d. Disaccharide
d
130
Amino acids are the building block for ______________
Select one:
a. Polysaccharides
b. Proteins
c. DNA and RNA
d. Lipids
b
131
When added to water salts:
Select one:
a. Flat on top as they are unable to mix with water
b. Remain unchanged sinking to the bottom
c. Bind to form new salt structures
d. Dissociate into their component ions
d
132
Metabolic alkalosis results in a ________ pH as a result of an issue with the __________________
Select one:
a. Low, lungs
b. High, lungs
c. high, the kidneys (or another non-lung organ)
d. Low, kidneys (or another non-lung organ)
c
133
Carbonic acid (H2CO3) can partially dissociate into:
Select one:
a. H+ ions, C+ ions and O3- ions
b. H+ ions and Cl- ions
c. H+ ions and bicarbonate (HCO3-) ions
d. OH- ions and CHO2- ions
c
134
A solution with a pH of 11:
Select one:
a. Is neutral
b. Is strongly acidic
c. Has more H+ ions in solution than OH- ions
d. Has more OH- ions in solution than H+ ions
d
135
The genetic information is coded in DNA by:
Select one:
a. the three-dimensional structure of the double helix.
b. the structure of the histones.
c. the regular alteration of sugar and phosphate molecules.
d. the sequence of the nucleotides.
d
136
In regards to enzymes which of the following is NOT true?
Select one:
a. They can participate in many reactions, ie they are not used just once
b. They are used up in chemical reactions
c. They speed up reactions
d. They are a subset of proteins
b
137
A high concentration of H+ ions will result in a solution with a .............................
Select one:
a. high pH
b. low pH
c. neutral pH
d. no charge
b
138
Considering the electron shells/orbits of atoms. The innermost shell closest to the nucleus normally contains a maximum of _____ electrons
Select one:
a. 4
b. 8
c. 2
d. 12
c
139
In DNA, adenine binds to:
Select one:
a. guanine
b. uracil
c. cytosine
d. thymine
d
140
An anion is:
Select one:
a. A negatively charged ion
b. A positively charged ion
c. A neutral atom
d. An ion that has donated electrons
a
141
The corpus luteum is:
Select one:
a. the ruptured follicle following the ejection of an oocyte from the ovary.
b. the mesovarium.
c. the ovarian ligament that anchors the ovary medially to the uterus.
d. part of the uterine tube.
a
142
Which of the following hormones controls the release of anterior pituitary gonadotropins?
Select one:
a.
testosterone
b.
LH
c.
FSH
d.
GnRH
d
143
The constancy of the chromosome number from one generation to the next is maintained through:
Select one:
a.
DNA synthesis.
b.
meiosis.
c.
cytokinesis.
d.
mitosis.
b
144
Fertilization generally occurs in the:
Select one:
a.
vagina
b.
ovary
c.
uterus
d.
fallopian tubes.
d
145
The structures that receive the ovulated oocyte, providing a site for fertilization, are called:
Select one:
a. the Graafian follicles.
b. the infundibula.
c. the fallopian tubes.
d. the fimbriae.
c
146
Functions of testosterone include:
Select one:
a. growth of the breasts.
b. facilitation of muscle and skeletal growth in mass.
c. drying of the skin.
d. loss of facial hair.
b
147
Which of the following glands are responsible for 60% of the synthesis of semen?
Select one:
a. the pituitary
b. the prostate
c. the bulbourethral glands
d. the seminal vesicles
d
148
The ability of sperm cells to move along the ductus deferens is due to:
Select one:
a. hormonal action.
b. gravity.
c. peristaltic contractions.
d. enzymatic activity.
c
149
The primary function of the uterus is to:
Select one:
a. protect the ovaries.
b. synthesize female hormones.
c. receive, retain, and nourish a fertilized ovum.
d. regulate the ovarian and menstrual cycles.
c
150
The primary function of the uterus is to:
Select one:
a. protect the ovaries.
b. synthesize female hormones.
c. receive, retain, and nourish a fertilized ovum.
d. regulate the ovarian and menstrual cycles.
c
151
The basic difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis is that:
Select one:
a. in oogenesis, one mature ovum is produced, and in spermatogenesis four mature sperm are produced from the parent cell.
b. spermatogenesis involves mitosis and meiosis, but oogenesis involves meiosis only.
c. during spermatogenesis two more polar bodies are produced.
d. the mature ovum is n, while the sperm is 2n.
a
152
The cells that produce testosterone in the testis are called:
Select one:
a. interstitial cells.
b. sustentacular cells.
c. spermatogonia.
d. spermatocytes.
a
153
Which of the following statements is true concerning the mammary glands of both males and females?
Select one:
a. The mammary glands are modified sweat glands that are actually part of the integumentary system.
b. The only time hormones target breast tissue is during pregnancy and lactation.
c. All lumps identified in breast tissue are malignant.
d. Both sexes are equally prone to breast cancer.
a
154
During the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle:
Select one:
a. the Graafian follicle forms.
b. estrogen reaches its highest levels.
c. progesterone levels are at their highest.
d. LH reaches its highest levels.
c
155
Secretion of progesterone stimulates:
Select one:
a.preparation of the mammary glands for lactation.
b. secretory activity of the uterine myometrium.
c. development of the female secondary sex characteristics.
d. contraction of uterine muscles.
a
156
Effects of estrogen include:
Select one:
a. growth of the breasts at puberty.
b. growth of the larynx.
c. increased oiliness of the skin.
d. deepening of the voice.
a
157
Which of the following will occur after ovulation?
Select one:
a. The corpus luteum secretes estrogen only.
b. The corpus luteum prepares to become a corpus albicans.
c. The endometrium enters its secretory phase.
d. The secretion of anterior pituitary gonadotropins is enhanced.
c
158
Normally menstruation occurs when:
Select one:
a. the corpus luteum secretes estrogen.
b. blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decrease.
c. blood levels of estrogen and progesterone increase.
d. blood levels of FSH fall off.
b
159
Select the correct statement about the uterine cycle.
Select one:
a. The menstrual phase of the cycle is from day 1 to day 8.
b. If fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum is maintained by a hormone secreted by the developing embryo.
c. During the secretory phase, estrogen levels are at their highest.
d. During the proliferative phase, levels of progesterone rise as the follicle begins to produce more hormone.
b
160
The seminal vesicles:
Select one:
a. produce about 90% of the volume of semen.
b. attach at the base of the penis.
c. encircle the upper part of the urethra.
d. produce a yellowish fluid rich in fructose.
d
161
```
FSH and LH are produced by the
A. posterior pituitary gland
B. anterior pituitary gland
C. hypothalamus
D. adrenal gland
```
b
162
```
E & P are secreted by:
A. hypothalamus
B. anterior pituitary
C. posterior pituitary
D. granulosa cells of the ovarian follicles
```
d
163
```
During menstrual period (Day 1-4), E & P level is:
A. high
B. low
C. no change
Ans B
```
b
164
```
During proliferatory (pre-ovulatory) phase (Day 5-13), which hormone level highest?
A. estrogen
B. progesterone
C. oxytocin
D. prolactin
```
a
165
```
During secretory (post-ovulatory) phase (Day 15-28), which hormone level highest?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Oxytocin
D. Prolactin
```
b
166
```
In a menstrual cycle, LH is released during the:
A. mentrual period
B. proliferatory phase
C. secretory phase
D. prior to ovulatory phase
```
d
167
```
When woman reached menopause, which one of the hormones levels increased?
A. FSH
B. estrogen
C. progeterone
D. prolactin
```
a
168
```
Jane’s infertility may be due to
A. ovaries do not respond to FSH
B. ovarian duct abnormality
C. low sperm count
D. abnormal sperm structure
E. pituitary gland abnormality
F. All of the above may be true
```
f
169
```
Name the hormones that has/have effect on breast tissue.
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Prolactin
D. Oxytocin
E. All of the above
```
e
170
```
In the male, the structure inferior to the bladder is the
A. Kidney
B. Seminal vesicle
C. Epididymis
D. Prostate gland
```
d
171
```
Which part of the spermatozoon establishes its motility?
A. head
B. acrosome
C. midpiece
D. Tail
```
d
172
```
The seminal vesicles
A. Store sperms prirot to ejaculation
B. Supply fructose to be utilised by the sperms for energy
C. Secrete FSH
D. Both b and c are correct
```
b
173
```
Inhibin
A. Is produced by the Sertoli cells
B. Is produced by the sperm cells
C. Signals the pituitary gland
D. Both A and C are correct
```
d
174
```
------------ cells produce testosterone
A. sertoli (sustenticular) cells
B. spermatogonium cells
C. sperm cells
D. Leydig (interstitial cells)
```
b
175
Sertoli cells
A. produce hormone ‘inhibin’
B. produce hormone ‘ABP’
C. supports and protects sperm producing cells
D. nourish spermatocytes, spermatids and spermatozoa
E. All of the above
e
176
```
The hormones produced in the testis are
A. testosterone
B. inhibin
C. androgen-binding protein
D. all of the above
```
d
177
Aldosterone ________.
Select one:
a. is secreted by the neurohypophysis
b. functions to increase sodium reabsorption
c. presence increases potassium concentration in the blood
d. production is greatly influenced by ACTH
b
178
Gluco-neo-genesis (formation of new glucose molecules from non-carbohydrate sources) occurs in the liver due to the action of ________.
Select one:
a. aldosterone
b. insulin
c. secretin
d. cortisol
d
179
```
The most important regulator of electrolyte concentrations in extracellular fluids is ________.
Select one:
a. insulin
b. aldosterone
c. glucagon
d. cortisol
```
b
180
When it becomes necessary to enlist the fight-or-flight response, a hormone that is released during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome is ________.
Select one:
a. estrogen
b. adrenaline
c. thyroid
d. renin
b
181
ADH ________.
Select one:
a. increases urine production
b. promotes dehydration
c. is produced in the adenohypophysis
d. is inhibited by alcohol
d
182
ACTH ________.
Select one:
a. is secreted by the posterior pituitary
b. is secreted by the anterior pituitary
c. secreted by the adrenal medulla
d. secreted by the pancreas
b
183
Which of the following is not a category of endocrine gland stimulus?
Select one:
a. enzyme
b. humoral (relating to body fluids and/or immune response)
c. neural
d. hormonal
a
184
Mineralocorticoid is to aldosterone as glucocorticoid is to ________.
Select one:
a. testosterone
b. estrogen
c. cortisol
d. adrenaline
c
185
```
The major targets of growth hormone are ________.
Select one:
a. the blood vessels
b. the adrenal glands
c. the liver
d. bones and skeletal muscles
```
d
186
The parathyroid glands maintain adequate levels of blood calcium. This is accomplished through ________.
Select one:
a. blocking the action of growth hormone
b. targeting the bone and activating osteoclasts so that calcium will be released
c. targeting the osteoblasts so that calcium will be released
d. slowing the activity of tissues that require calcium for activity
b
187
Growth hormone:
Select one:
a. promotes long bone growth during formative years
b. secretion results in a decrease in muscle mass
c. is also called somatostatin
d. is regulated by humoral mechanisms
a
188
The posterior pituitary gland secretes
Select one:
a. TSH
b. FSH
c. ADH
d. ACTH
c
189
Cells of the adrenal cortex produce
Select one:
a. aldosterone
b. adrenaline
c. insulin
d. ACTH
a
190
The hormone which increases the reabsorption of sodium ions and water from the urine is
Select one:
a. insulin
b. cortisol
c. aldosterone
d. adrenaline
c
191
The enzyme renin is responsible for the activation of
Select one:
a. erythropoetin
b. cortisol
c. angiotensin
d. adrenaline
c
192
Insulin, is synthesised by the beta cells of the pancreas. This hormone is released:
Select one:
a. when the body's glucose level drops
b. when the body's glucose level rise
c. in excessive amounts in obese people.
d. in response to severe physical stress (i.e. - a 25 km run)
b
193
The thyroid hormone contains the mineral
Select one:
a. iodine
b. potassium
c. sodium
d. iron
a
194
Which of the following is not a hormone from the anterior pituitary?
Select one:
a. ADH
b. TSH
c. growth hormone
d. ACTH
a
195
When blood glucose levels fall
Select one:
a. peripheral cells take up less glucose
b. insulin is secreted
c. glucagon is released
d. protein synthesis decreases
c
196
The islets of Langerhans produces hormones in which organs?
Select one:
a. kidney
b. liver
c. pancreas
d. heart
c
197
The function of the proximal convoluted tubule is
Select one:
a. filtration
b. adjusting the urine volume
c. absorption of ions, organic molecules, vitamins and water
d. secretion of drugs
c
198
The juxtaglomerular apparatus is responsible for:
Select one:
a. reabsorption of organic molecules, vitamins, and water.
b. regulating the rate of filtrate formation and controlling systemic blood pressure.
c. the secretion of acids and ammonia.
d. the secretion of drugs.
b
199
The functional and structural unit of the kidneys is:
Select one:
a. the nephron.
b. the loop of Henle.
c. Bowman's capsule.
d. the basement membrane of the capillaries.
a
200
The renal corpuscle is made up of:
Select one:
a. Bowman's capsule and glomerulus.
b. the renal pyramid.
c. the descending loop of Henle.
d. the renal papilla.
a
201
While the kidneys process about 180 L of blood-derived fluids daily, the amount that actually leaves the body is:
Select one:
a. 100 L
b. all of the 180 L
c. 50% or 90 L
d. 1% or 1.8 L
d
202
Urine passes through the:
Select one:
a. hilus to urethra to bladder.
b. kidney hilus to the bladder to the ureter.
c. pelvis of the kidney to ureter to bladder to urethra.
d. glomerulus to ureter to renal tubule.
c
203
Which of the following is not reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule?
Select one:
a. creatinine
b. glucose
c. K+
d. Na+
a
204
Select the correct statement about the ureters.
Select one:
a. The ureter is innervated by parasympathetic nerve endings only.
b. The ureters are capable of peristalsis like that of the gastrointestinal tract.
c. Ureters contain sphincters at the entrance to the bladder to prevent the backflow of urine.
d. The epithelium is stratified squamous like the skin, which allows a great deal of stretch.
b
205
Which gland sits atop each kidney?
Select one:
a. pituitary
b. pancreas
c. thymus
d. adrenal
d
206
10The chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood across the filtration membrane is:
Select one:
a. glomerular hydrostatic pressure (glomerular blood pressure).
b. the design and size of the podocytes.
c. the thickness of the capillary endothelium.
d. the size of the pores in the basement membrane of the capillaries.
a
207
The main factor favouring filtrate formation at the glomerulus
Select one:
a. Partial pressure of oxygen
b. body temperature
c. the glomerular hydrostatic pressure
d. the myogenic mechanism
c
208
The region known as the macula densa
Select one:
a. loop of Henle
b. collecting duct
c. proximal convoluted tubule
d. distal convoluted tubule
d
209
The fatty tissue surrounding the kidneys is important because:
Select one:
a. it stabilizes the position of the kidneys by holding them in their normal position.
b. it produces vitamin D.
c. it ensures adequate energy for the adrenal glands to operate efficiently.
d. it is necessary as a barrier between the adrenal glands and kidneys.
a
210
Which statement is true about urine?
Select one:
a. Urine has a yellow colour due to the presence of haemoglobin
b. Urine has nitrogenous waste such as urea and uric acid
c. Urine is usually slightly alkaline
d. Urine has an ammonia-like odour when fresh
b
211
The Bowman's capsule and glomerulus make up the
Select one:
a. renal papilla
b. renal corpuscle
c. loop of Henle
d. renal pyramid
b
212
Which one of the following structures form the last part of nephron?
Select one:
a. collecting duct
b. loop of Henle
c. distal convoluted tubule
d. proximal convoluted tubule
a
213
17The urinary bladder is composed of ________ epithelium.
Select one:
a. pseudostratified columnar
b. transitional
c. simple squamous
d. stratified squamous
b
214
Place the following in the correct sequence from the formation of a drop of urine to its elimination from the body.
1. major calyx 2. minor calyx 3. nephron 4. urethra 5. ureter 6. collecting duct
Select one:
a. 3, 1, 2, 6, 5, 4
b. 3, 6, 2, 1, 5, 4
c. 6, 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
d. 2, 1, 3, 6, 5, 4
b
215
The glomerulus differs from other capillaries in the body in that it:
Select one:
a. has a basement membrane.
b. is drained by an efferent arteriole.
c. has a blood pressure much lower than other organ systems.
d. is impermeable to most substances.
b
216
20.The enzyme renin is responsible for the activation of
Select one:
a. cortisol
b. angiotensin
c. erythropoietin
d. adrenaline
b
217
The mechanism of water reabsorption by the renal tubules is:
Select one:
a. solvent drag.
b. co-transport with sodium ions.
c. osmosis
d. active transport.
c
218
Aldosterone:
Select one:
a. functions to increase sodium reabsorption
b. presence increases potassium concentrations in the blood
c. production is greatly influenced by ACTH
d. is secreted by the neurohypophysis
a
219
The fluid in the glomerular (Bowman's) capsule is similar to plasma except that it does not contain a significant amount of:
Select one:
a. glucose
b. hormones
c. plasma protein
d. electrolytes
c
220
An increase in the permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water is due to:
Select one:
a. a decrease in the production of ADH.
b. an increase in the production of aldosterone.
c. a decrease in the concentration of the blood plasma.
d. an increase in the production of ADH.
d
221
ADH:
Select one:
a. promotes dehydration.
b. is inhibited by alcohol.
c. increases urine production.
d. is produced in the adenohypophysis.
b
222
Select the correct statement about the nephrons.
Select one:
a. The substances are filtered, reabsorbed and secreted in the glomerulus
b. The substances are only filtered but not resorbed or secreted in the glomerulus
c. The substances are filtered and reabsorbed in the glomerulus
d. The substances are reabsorbed and secreted in the glomerulus
b
223
The function of angiotensin II is to:
Select one:
a. decrease the production of aldosterone.
b. decrease arterial blood pressure.
c. constrict arterioles and increase blood pressure.
d. decrease water absorption.
c
224
Unine pH approximately
Select one:
a. 6-7
b. 9-10
c. 10-12
d. 2-3
a
225
Angiotensin I is converted to Angiotensin II by converting enzymes in the
Select one:
a. lungs
b. kidneys
c. liver
d. heart
a
