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KCUMB Physiology II > EXAM III Final > Flashcards

EXAM III Final Flashcards

1
Q

How many high energy phosphate bonds are needed to form one peptide linkage?

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5
A

4 = (48,000 cal) total

With each peptide bond storing 500-5000 cal

Not an effective way of storing up energy

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2
Q

What type of linkages is among the most important intracellular processes that require energy?

A

Peptide linkages

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3
Q

What are the two steps of the ornithine cycle that occur in the mitochondria?

A

2NH3 (ammonia) + 1CO2 –> Carbamoyl Phosphate

Carbamoyl Phosphate + Ornithine —> Citrulline

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4
Q

What is the rate limiting factor for energy metabolism in the body?

A

ADP

Chemical rxns that depend on ADP as a substrate is very slow

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5
Q

Overall rate of a series of chemical rxns is determined by _______

A

Slowest step in the series; factor = ADP

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6
Q

What stimuli is one of the best known stimuli for increasing the rate of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)?

A

Cold

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7
Q

What are the 9 factors that influence metabolic rate?

A
  1. Arousal vs. Sleep
  2. Skeletal muscle
  3. Age
  4. Thyroid activity
  5. Testosterone
  6. Growth hormone
  7. Fever
  8. Sleep
  9. Malnutrition
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8
Q

Which state is more lethargic, hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism?

A

Hypothyroidism

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9
Q

Liver has (high/low) blood flow and (high/low) vascular resistance

A

High blood flow and low vascular resistance

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10
Q

What percentage of resting cardiac output does the liver supply?

A

27%

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11
Q

Portal pressure into the liver ________, pressure from the liver to vena cava ________

A

9 mmHg, 0 mmHg

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12
Q

What is the effect of clot blocking of the portal vein or a major branch?

A

Blockage of return of blood from spleen and intestines

Increase in capillary pressure in the intestinal wall = loss of fluid = death

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13
Q

Ascites is a result of, due to what?

A

Large amount of fluid in the abdominal cavity as a result of higher than normal pressure in the hepatic veins

Back pressure causes fluid to flow into lymph, fluid leaks into abdominal cavity

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14
Q

T/F; hepatic sinusoids are highly permeable to proteins

A

True; efferent lymph [protein] = 6 g/dl (almost equivalent to [plasma])

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15
Q

List the 4 components of bile

A
  1. Bile acids - cholic and chenodeoxycholic acids via hepatocytes; deoxycholic acid & lithocholic acid
  2. Water and electrolytes
  3. Cholesterol and phospholipids
  4. Pigments and organic molecules = bilirubin
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16
Q

What converts heme into biliverdin?

A

Heme oxygenase

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17
Q

What are the factors of metabolic syndrome? (6)

A
  1. Obesity
  2. Insulin resistance
  3. Fasting hyperglycemia
  4. Increased lipid TGs
  5. Decreased HDL levels
  6. Hypertension
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18
Q

Insulin inactivates _______ and activates _____ in order for glucose uptake in the liver

A

Inactivates = phosphorylase

Activates = glucokinase

In order to P glucose to trap it into the liver

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19
Q

Under what conditions may down regulation of receptors occur?

A
  1. Inactivation of some of the intracellular protein signaling molecules
  2. Temporary sequestration of the receptor inside the cell
  3. Inactivation of some of the receptor molecules
  4. Destruction of receptors via lysosomes after internalized
  5. Decreased production of receptors
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20
Q

Under what conditions may UP regulation of receptors occur?

A
  1. When the stimulating hormone induces greater than normal formation of receptor or intracellular signaling molecules
  2. When the stimulating hormone may induce greater availability of the receptor for interaction with the hormone
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21
Q

List the 4 types of intracellular receptors for lipid soluble hormones

ATVR(ecks)

A
  1. Adrenal and steroidal hormones
  2. Thyroid hormones
  3. Vitamin D
  4. Retinoid hormones
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22
Q

Where on the DNA does the activated hormone-receptor complex bind to and what is this termed?

A

Promoter sequence of DNA

= Hormone response element

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23
Q

Calcium entry may be initiated by changes in membrane potential that open calcium channels or hormone interacting with membrane receptors that open calcium channels, once calcium entry occurs, where does calcium bind to?

A

Calmodulin

3-4 binding sites are filled and protein kinases are activated as well as inhibited

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24
Q

List the 5 types of cells of the anterior pituitary/adenohypophysis and give an example of each

A
  1. Somatotropes/acidophils = human growth factor
  2. Corticotropes = ACTH
  3. Thyrotropes = TSH
  4. Gonadotropes = LH & FSH
  5. Lactotropes = Prolactin
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25
Q

How many mg of iodine are required each year? Where is it absorbed?

A

50mg; absorbed via gut tract

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26
Q

What pump transports iodide from the blood in the basolateral side into the cell?

How much can iodide be concentrated in the cell?

A

Sodium-iodine symporter (2:1) in basal membrane of thyroid cell to put towards apical side

Energy via Na+/K+ ATPase pump

[30-250x]

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27
Q

What protein is important in transporting iodide across the apical membrane of thyroid cells into follicles?

A

PENDRIN

via Cl-Iodide counter-transporter

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28
Q

What enzyme converts iodide into iodine?

A

Peroxidase

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29
Q

What amino acid is involved in organifying iodine on thyroglobulin, forming T3 and T4?

A

Tyrosine

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30
Q

What hormone controls cortisol secretion?

LH
Aldosterone
ACTH
FSH

A

ACTH; via anterior pituitary

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31
Q

Which of the following is the major mineralocorticoid?

Catecholamines
Androgens
Cortisol
Aldosterone

A

Aldosterone; via Zona Glomerulosa (adrenal gland)

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32
Q

Which hormone has a major function of affecting electrolytes; Na+ and K+?

Catecholamines
Androgens
Cortisol
Aldosterone

A

Aldosterone

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33
Q

Which hormone secretion is mainly controlled by angiotensin II and K+?

Catecholamines
Androgens
Cortisol
Aldosterone

A

Aldosterone

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34
Q

Which of the following hormones increases Na+ reabsorption by kidney tubules, whose secretion is increased by hyperkalemia, and increases hydrogen ion secretion by kidneys?

Catecholamines
Androgens
Cortisol
Aldosterone

A

Aldosterone

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35
Q

Which of the following is the function of glucocorticoids?

a. Reduce stress
b. Stimulation of gluconeogenesis
c. Resists inflammation
d. Decrease glucose utilization by cells
e. May lead to adrenal diabetes
f. All of the above

A

All of the above

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36
Q

Which hormone is the major glucocorticoid?

Catecholamines
Androgens
Cortisol
Aldosterone

A

Cortisol; stress response

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37
Q

Which layer of the adrenal cortex secretes cortisol?

Medulla
Zona reticularis
Zona fasciculata
Zona glomerulose
All of the above
A

Zone Fasciculata

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38
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of glucocorticoids

a. Decreases protein catabolism
b. Decreases glucose utilization by cells
c. Increases lipolysis
d. Resists stress
e. Resists inflammation

A

Decreases protein catabolism

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39
Q

List the 6 main functions of glucocorticoids

A
  1. Stimulates gluconeogenesis
  2. May lead to adrenal diabetes
  3. Resists stress & inflammation
  4. Resolution of inflammation
  5. Inhibits immune response
  6. Maintains vascular response to catecholamines
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40
Q

Glucocorticoid functions that involve stimulating gluconeogenesis include:

A
  1. Increases protein metabolism
  2. Mobilizes aa from extrahepatic tissues
  3. Enhances transport of amino acids into hepatic cells
  4. Increases enzymes required to convert aa to glucose
  5. Decrease glucose utilization by cells
  6. Increases lipolysis
41
Q

Which disease is characterized by a “buffalo torso” and moon face?

a. Addison’s disease (hypoadrenalism)
b. Cushings syndrome (hyperadrenalism)
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Adrenal diabetes
e. All of the above

A

Cushing’s Syndrome (hyperadrenalism)

42
Q

Which of the following is the primary factor of causing Addison’s disease (hypoadrenalism)?

a. Impaired function of pituitary gland
b. Injury to adrenal cortex
c. Impaired function of hypothalamus
d. Injury to kidneys
e. None of the above

A

Injury to adrenal cortex

43
Q

What of the following is the secondary factor of causing Addison’s disease (hyperadrenalism)?

a. Impaired function of pituitary gland
b. Injury to adrenal cortex
c. Impaired function of hypothalamus
d. Injury to kidneys
e. None of the above

A

Impaired function of pituitary gland

44
Q

Osteoprotegerin ligand activates receptors on which cells to induce a secondary signal via parathyroid hormone in order to promote bone Ca2+ secretion?

a. Osteoblasts
b. Osteoclasts
c. Preosteoclasts
d. None of the above

A

Pre-Osteoblasts; transforms them into mature osteoclasts that remove bone over a period of weeks/months

45
Q

Where in the body is cholecalciferol (Vit D3) converted to 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol?

a. Skin
b. Liver
c. Kidney
d. Intestinal epithelium

A

Liver; regulated by inhibin

46
Q

Where in the body is the active form of vitamin (1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol) produced? What hormone activates it?

a. Skin
b. Liver
c. Kidney
d. Intestinal epithelium

A

Kidney; activated by PTH

47
Q

The active form of vitamin (1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol) in the kidneys is under control of which hormone?

a. Cortisol
b. Androgen
c. Aldosterone
d. Parathyroid
e. Catecholamine

A

Parathyroid; PTH

48
Q

Which protein functions in the brush border of the epithelial cells to transport calcium into the cell cytoplasm in the intestinal epithelial cells?

a. Alkaline phosphatase
b. Calbindin
c. Ca2+ stimulated ATPase
d. All of the above

A

Calbindin; Calcium moves thru basolateral membrane via facilitated diffusion

49
Q

Where are sperm cells stored until ejaculation?

a. Epididymis
b. Seminiferous tubules
c. Prostate
d. All of the above

A

Epididymis

50
Q

Which cells of the male reproductive system form testosterone?

a. Sertoli cells
b. Glandular cells
c. Interstitial cells of Leydig
d. All of the above

A

Interstitial cells of Leydig = stimulated by LH; testosterone nonexistent during childhood

51
Q

Which protein tightly and loosely binds testosterone in the blood? (tightly;loosely)

a. beta globulin;albumin
b. albumin;beta globulin
c. hemoglobin;albumin
d. albumin;hemoglobin
e. albumin;albumin

A

beta globulin;albumin

52
Q

What are the two fates of testosterone once secreted into the blood?

a. excreted or degraded to inactive products
b. reabsorbed or degraded to inactive products
c. transferred to tissues or degraded to inactive products
d. excreted or degraded to inactive products
e. All of the above are options

A

Transferred to tissues or degraded to inactive products

After circulating blood for 30 min-hrs.

53
Q

What is testosterone converted to once it enters prostate and fetal external genitalia? (tissues)

a. Testosterone
b. Monotestosterone
c. Dihydrotestosterone
d. Monodihydrotestosterone
e. None of the above

A

Dihydrotestosterone

54
Q

List the 3 fates of testosterone after circulating blood and not being fixed to tissues?

A
  1. Conversion in liver
  2. Conjugated = glocuronides or sulfates
  3. Excretion via bile or urine
55
Q

Where in the male system are sertoli cells located?

a. Epidydymis
b. Seminiferous tubules
c. Prostate
d. Glands
e. Penis

A

Seminiferous tubules; form estrogens and testosterone = spermiogenesis

56
Q

What two hormones do the seminiferous tubules secrete?

A

Estrogen and testosterone

57
Q

What is the location of the cells of leydig? What do they secrete?

A

Interstitial spaces in testes

Testosterone via LH via Anterior pituitary

58
Q

LH = spermiogenesis

FSH = spermatogenesis

A

.

59
Q

Seminal vesicles secretes a mucoid material that contains what primary sugar that nourishes the sperm and provides energy? what else?

A

Fructose

Citric acid, prostaglandins, fibrinogen

60
Q

What is the function of prostaglandins in the mucoid material that is formed in the seminal vesicles?

A

Makes cervical mucous more receptive to sperm movement

Retroperistaltic contractions of uterus and fallopian tubes

61
Q

What percentage of semen volume do seminal vesicle content and prostate gland make up?

A

Seminal vesicles = 60%

Prostate gland = 30%

62
Q

What type of secretion is contained within the prostate gland?

A

Milky fluid = Ca2+, citrate ions, phosphate ions, clotting enzyme, and profibrinolysin

Slightly alkaline

63
Q

Which hormone is involved in activating the second messenger system?

a. LH
b. FSH
c. GnRH
d. Oxytocin
e. All of the above

A

LH = Glycoprotein; which causes cells of Leydig to release testosterone (negative feedback on hypothalamus)

64
Q

T/F; LH causes Sertoli cells to secrete testosterone

A

False; Leydig cells secrete testosterone = negative feedback on hypothalamus

65
Q

Which cells secrete inhibin? What is inhibin’s function?

a. Leydig
b. Sertoli
c. Penis
d. Seminiferous tubules
e. Prostate

A

Sertoli; inhibits FSH secretion via anterior pituitary and GnRH to a lesser extent

66
Q

Explain the release of GnRH from the hypothalamus in the female

A

Less drastically than FSH and LH

Short pulses averaging once every 90 min

67
Q

What are the two ovarian hormones?

A

P + E

Similar to males

68
Q

What is the general structure of ovarian follicles?

A

Primordial follicles surrounded by single layers of granulosa cells

Ovum nourishment and keeps ovum suspended in primordial state

69
Q

During menopause, which hormone undergoes a rapid increase?

a. Gonadotrophins
b. Testosterone
c. Estrogens
d. None of the above

A

Gonadotrophins

70
Q

Which hormone is important during the proliferative stage of the uterine cycle?

a. Estrogen
b. Progesterone
c. Testosterone
d. LH
e. FSH

A

Estrogen; 4-14d

Increases stromal cells and glands

71
Q

Which hormone is important during the secretion stage of the uterine cycle?

a. Estrogen
b. Progesterone
c. Testosterone
d. LH
e. FSH

A

Progesterone; 14-28d = provides nourishment for the early dividing ovum, increase in swelling

72
Q

What are the 3 uterine phases? MPS

A
  1. Menstration; 1-5d = decrease in P+E
  2. Proliferation; 4-14d = Estrogen
  3. Secretion; 14-28d = Progesterone
73
Q

What are the 4 ovarian phases? FODR

A
  1. Follicular growth; 5-14d
  2. Ovulation = LH spike; 14d
  3. Development of corpus luteum; 14-23d
  4. Regression of corpus luteum; 24-28d
74
Q

Postganglionic sympathetic fibers pass through gray or white rami?
Type A or C fibers?
Make up 8 or 10% of fibers in the average nerve?
What do they control?

A

Gray Rami

C type fibers

8%

Blood vessels, sweat glands, piloerector muscles

75
Q

What type of fibers are splanchnic nerves made up of?

What part of the body do they supply and where do they synapse?

A

Preganglionic and visceral sensory fibers

Abdominal viscera

Synapse in prevertebral ganglia

76
Q

What are the 3 types of splanchnic nerves and where along the vertebrae do they sit and where do they synapse?

A

Greater - T5-T9 = celiac

Lesser - T10-T11 = superior mesenteric ganglion

Least - T12 = aorticorenal ganglion

77
Q

Where are postganglionic parasympathetic fibers located and what NT is used?

A

Wall of the organ

ACh = Cholinergic

Most preganglionic fibers pass all the way to organ to be innervated

Vagus makes up 75% parasymp. fibers

78
Q

List the functions of the oculomotor nerve; sympathetic and parasympathetic

A

Supplies 4 of the 6 EXTRINSIC eye muscles and levator palpebrae superioris

Para = Pregang. = Edinger-Westphal nucleus to ciliary ganglion

Postgang. = ciliary ganglion —> sphincter pupillae muscle

79
Q

What are the pre- and post-ganglionic functions of the parasympathetic function of the facial nerve?

A

Pre = superior salivatory & lacrimal nuclei —> submandibular/sublingual ganglia

Post = lacrimal/submandibular/sublingual/mucous glands of mouth and nose

80
Q

List the parasympathetic function of the Glossopharyngeal nerve pre- and post-ganglion

A

Pre = inferior salivatory nucleus —> otic ganglion

Post = to parotid gland

81
Q

What is the motor function of the vagus nerve?

A

Muscles of 4th and 5th pharyngeal arches

Swallowing and speaking

82
Q

What is the parasympathetic function of the vagus nerve pre- and post-ganglion?

A

Majorly = thoracic and abdominal organs

Pre = dorsal motor nucleus

Post = myenteric plexus of wall of gut tube to left colic flexure

83
Q

Describe the course of the vagus nerve; what does it eventually supply/innervate?

A

Parallel to esophagus = innervates eso.

Passes posterior root of lung on each side, pierces diaphragm = gastric nerve and supplies viscera thoracic cavity

84
Q

What is the first step in the synthesis of norepinephrine? Which amino acid is the precursor

A

Hydroxylation of tyrosine to dopa

Decarboxylation of dopa —> dopamine

Dopamine —> vesicles

Dopamine hydroxylation —> NEpi

85
Q

Where in the body is NEpi methylated to form epinephrine?

A

Adrenal medulla; 80% of NEpi methylated

86
Q

The removal of NEpi can occur through several different mechanisms; which of the following does not occur?

a. Reuptake
b. Diffusion
c. Destruction by monamine oxidase in nerve endings
d. Endocytosis
e. Destruction by catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT) that’s present in all tissues

A

Endocytosis

87
Q

Where does Epi/NEpi have its lasting affects on? Tissue or blood?

A

Blood via adrenal medulla = active until destroyed by COMT in surrounding tissue esp liver

Active for a few seconds in tissues

88
Q

What type of receptors do Epi/NEpi bind to?

A

Adrenergic = Alpha 1,2 and Beta 1,2,3

89
Q

What type of receptors does ACh bind to? Where are these receptors found?

A

Cholinergic = Muscarinic and Nicotinic

Muscarinic = all effector cells stimulated by post-ganglionic cholinergic neurons

Nicotinic = skeletal muscle junctions; autonomic ganglia at synapses b/w pre- and post-ganglionic neurons

90
Q

What are the functions of alpha receptors of the adrenergic receptors?

A

NEpi = excites mainly alpha, sometimes beta

Epi = excites both alpha + beta equally

91
Q

Function of beta 1 receptors of adrenergic receptors?

A

Heart stuff

Cardioacceleration
Increased myocardial strength
Lipolysis

92
Q

What is the function of beta3 receptors of the adrenergic receptors?

A

Thermogenesis

93
Q

List the drugs that are sympathomimetic

AMEN! PI (penis increase)

A
  1. Albuterol (beta2)
  2. Methoxamine
  3. Epi
  4. NEpi
  5. Phenylephrine (alpha)
  6. Isoprotenol (beta)
94
Q

List the drugs that cause release of NEpi

ETA (everyone takes it in the ass)

A
  1. Ephedrine
  2. Tyramine
  3. Amphetamine
95
Q

List the drugs that block adrenergic activity

M.P.H. RPG (ruins peoples g)

A
  1. Metoprolol (beta1)
  2. Propranolol (beta 1,2)
  3. Hexamethonium
  4. Reserpine (blocks syn. & storage NEpi)
  5. Phenoxybenzamine (blocks alpha)
  6. Guanethidine (blocks NEpi release)
96
Q

What are the 3 groups of drugs that act on cholinergic effector organs?

A
  1. Parasympathomimetic drugs
  2. Those that inhibit acetylcholinesterase
  3. Those that block cholinergic activity
97
Q

Pilocarpine and methacholine are drugs that are not rapidly destroyed by cholinesterase and act directly on muscarinic receptors, which type of autonomic nervous system does this drug mimic?

A

Parasympathomimetic drugs

98
Q

List the 3 drugs that inhibit acetylcholinesterase

NAP - stops ACh from being degraded

A

So you cannot take a nap

  1. Neostigmine
  2. Pyridostigmine
  3. Ambenonium
99
Q

List the 3 drugs that block cholinergic activity

AHS - Always Has Spasms

A
  1. Atropine
  2. Homatropine
  3. Scopolamine

KCUMB Physiology II (4 decks)

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