Exam II: Central Nerve Blocks Flashcards

1
Q

Understanding of the ___ ___ of the vertebral body is necessary for consistent success in ___ in administration.

A

structural components, block

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2
Q

This is the best picture to appreciate needle advancement, but also note that___ connect the ___ ___ to the vertebral body and lamina connect the transverse process to the ___ process

A

pedicles, transverse process, spinous

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3
Q

Spinal needle___ ___ ___to aid evaluation of tip location within the subarachnoid space.

A

rotated 360 degrees

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4
Q

The spinal cord terminates at the level of___in most adults having continued from the base of the ___.

A

L2 , brain

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5
Q

This last portion of the cord is termed the ___ ___and is generally at the level of __.

A

conus medularis, L2

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6
Q

The___ of the cord is not abrupt but transitions into a collection of nerves called the ___.

A

termination, cauda equina

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6
Q

The importance of this structure is the lessened risk of ___ ___ injury when a needle is placed into the space, thus ___-____ blockade is ideally placed ___ this level.

A

direct cord, sub-arachnoid, below

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7
Q

The epidural space is ___to the dura and ___ to the ligamentum flavum is ___.

A

posterior, anterior, “potential”

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8
Q

Like the esophagus, it’s not an ___ supported structure like the trachea.

A

air-filled

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9
Q

Rather, it is a ___structure like an ___balloon.

A

collapsed, uninflated

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10
Q

This space contains: ___, ___, and ___where nerve roots pass ____.
[Epidural]

A

nerve, vessels, fat, outwardly

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11
Q

The epidural space is generally ___ deep to the skin and is widest at the ___ ___ and tapering to the narrow ___.

A

5cm, midline point, inwardly

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12
Q

Bordering the space are the ___ ___.

A

epidural veins

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13
Q

The three essential curvatures of the spine should be noted (3)

A

Lordosis, Kyphosis, Scoliosis

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14
Q

Lordosis, is:

A

the inward curving position noted naturally in the lumbar and cervical regions resulting in a posterior directed spine.

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15
Q

Kyphosis is:

A

the outward-curving position found in the thoracic region and when exaggerated results in the forward leaning position.

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16
Q

Kyphosis is:

A

the outward-curving position found in the thoracic region and when exaggerated results in the forward leaning position.

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17
Q

Scoliosis is:

A

a lateral transitioning development.

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18
Q

For lumbar placement, opposition of the ___ ___ allows the spinous processes to ___ for the widest point of access.

A

natural lordosis, “open”

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19
Q

Lumbar spinous processes are the least___deflected compared with ___ and cervical vertebrae.

A

downward, thoracic

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20
Q

Thus, ___ approaches are often uses for ___ ___ to avoid the steep spinous process approach.

A

paramedian, thoracic approaches

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21
Q

Consideration of the use of ___ ___ follows other anesthetic decision-making pathways.

A

central blockade

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22
Q

The use of a ____ should be used.
[Consideration of central blockade]

A

risk to benefit comparison

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23
Q

The ___ ___is not to be underestimated as a decision-making tool and the ___ ___ though easily normalized away through integration of electronic health records, should not be dismissed.

A

patient history, patient interview,

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24
Q

___ at the site of injection or near the CNS, coagulopathy or use of ___, neuromuscular disease (MS, MG, Increased ICP), ___ frailty, patient consent and ability to___both the block placement and procedure under blockade, and surgical requirements should be considered in the process.

A

Infection, anticoagulants, cardiac, tolerate

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25
Q

Specific cardiac diagnoses have special implications for ___.

A

SAB

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26
Q

___ and HOCM/ IHSS have ___ specific blood pressure regulation and a ___ can result in cardiac arrest with difficulty in resuscitation.

A

Aortic valve stenosis, SVR, sympathectomy

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27
Q

Various ___ have been applied to coagulation lab values for epidural and spinal blockade eligibility.

A

ranges

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28
Q

Some of these are loosely based on ___ values and ___ within an institution.
[Lab values]

A

historic, normalized

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29
Q

For example, some facilities use an activated clotting time, aspirin use, platelet count, and PT/PTT values in developing a ___ though no absolute standard is recognized.

A

contraindication

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30
Q

A significant matter for which anesthesia should be involved is the post-operative removal of ___ ___.

A

epidural catheters

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31
Q

Not only is there potential for ___ ___, but special techniques may be required for ___.

A

accidental retention, extraction

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32
Q

Additionally, the prevalence of post-operative ___ ___ warrants careful timing of removal such that previous and anticipated doses of anti-coagulants do not increase the risk of___ ___

A

VTE prophylaxis, epidural hematoma.

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33
Q

The key point is that a non-compressible hemorrhage is ___, ___, and ___.

A

difficult to resolve, slow to be recognized, potentially catastrophic

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34
Q

The reliance on the ___ pathways to independently mitigate any ___ ___warrants the careful consideration of whether to proceed in the presence of a perceived or ___of normal blood clotting.

A

coagulation, vessel damage, potential impairment

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35
Q

See the reference article on the consensus statement regarding each of the specific coagulation manipulating agents and their respective ___ times that impact nerve blocks; particularly ___ ___.

A

“hold”, central blocks.

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36
Q

Complications that may arise from ___, ____, or ___parallel the anticipated impairment of the neurologically controlled systems.

A

CNS infection, hematoma, direct injury

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37
Q

___, ____, ___; changes in bowel or bladder function; or severe pain in the back warrant immediate evaluation.

A

Altered pain, temperature, motor function

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38
Q

A “total” spinal occurs when injected medications block nerves high into the ___or even ___levels.

A

thoracic, cervical

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39
Q

Blockade of sympathetic stimulation results in ___; bradycardia, hypotension, vascular collapse, and apnea accompany the loss of motor function of the ____ extremities.

A

unimpeded parasympathetic response, lower and upper

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40
Q

Loss of consciousness should be expected; presumably related to ___ ___.

A

cerebral hypoperfusion

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41
Q

Loss of consciousness should be expected; presumably related to ___ ___.

A

cerebral hypoperfusion

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42
Q

___, ___, and ___support should follow quickly with consideration of ___ response if the obstetric setting.
[Complications]

A

Airway support, oxygen, and hemodynamic, fetal

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43
Q

What are 6 adverse physiological responses for neuraxial anesthesia?

A

Urinary retention, high block, total spinal anesthesia, cardiac arrest, anterior spinal artery syndrome, and Horner syndrome.

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44
Q

Complications related to needle/catheter placement: B___, dural puncture/leak, postural puncture headache, diplopia, t___, neural injury, nerve root damage, spinal cord damage, caudal equine syndrome, bleeding, infra spinal/epidural hematoma, misplacement, ___/inadequate anesthesia, s___ block, inadvertent intravascular injection catheter shearing/retention.

A

Backache, tinnitus, no effect, subdural

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45
Q

What is a “Spinal headache”?

A

Post-Dural puncture headache/PDPH

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46
Q

PDPH occurs when ___ ___occurs and ___ ___ is inadequate resulting in CSF leakage.

A

dural puncture, dural closure

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47
Q

When ___ ___supersedes production, the “stretching” of the ____ results in a headache

A

CSF leakage, meninges

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48
Q

Classic symptoms include a worsening of the headache in ___position; when ____, the CSF pressure increases relieving the ____.
[PDPH]

A

the upright, supine, stretching

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49
Q

Incidence is ___ of spinals.
[PDPH]

A

1-2%

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50
Q

Incidence is ___ of spinals.
[PDPH]

A

1-2%

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51
Q

Conservative treatment involves (4)…
[PDPH]

A

rest, supine position, caffeine (oral or IV), and hydration.

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52
Q

If unsuccessful, an ___ ___ __ is performed resolving most cases (90%).
[PDPH]

A

epidural blood patch

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53
Q

Rarely is a ___ ___necessary, but can be used.
[PDPH]

A

second patch

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54
Q

If unsuccessful, more ____and/ or____pathologies must be considered.
[PDPH]

A

serious, permanent

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55
Q

____ volume of blood is used to “patch” the dura.
[PDPH]

A

20ml

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56
Q

Cutting needles mimic ____ in that they have beveled edge.
[Subarachnoid/spinal placement]

A

hypodermic

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57
Q

A ____ inside the needle reduces the likelihood of coring of tissue during____.
[Subarachnoid/spinal placement]

A

stylet, insertion

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58
Q

___-___ needles are popular and have a ___ shaped tip that are designed to separate without cutting tissues
[Subarachnoid/spinal placement]

A

Non-cutting, cone

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59
Q

Generally, ____ gauge needles are used to reduce the chance of a ___ ___from dural holes.
[Subarachnoid/spinal placement]

A

small, CSF leak

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60
Q

Baricity reflects the response of the ___ to the native ___.
[Baricity]

A

injectate, CSF

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61
Q

____ indicates in “sinks” whereas ___ stays in the same location and ____ floats.
[Baricity]

A

Hyperbaric, isobaric, hypobaric

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62
Q

Commonly, a hyperbaric solution is used and achieved by use of Dextrose ___ and is often found ____ with the LA.
[Baricity]

A

7.5%, pre-mixed

63
Q

Selecting the baricity has application when the ___, ___, ___ are considered.
[Baricity]

A

position of the patient, surgical site, and toleration of the procedure

64
Q

For example, a left hip fracture patient may not tolerate lying on the ___ ___ for a spinal.
[Baricity]

A

left hip

65
Q

A ___ spinal might be used to affect the left hip while lying on the right.
[Baricity]

A

hypobaric

66
Q

What are 6 most important factors affecting the dermatomal spread of spinal anesthesia?

A

Baracity of anesthetic solution, position of the patient, during injection, immediately after injection, drug dosage, site of injection.

67
Q

8 other factors are considered affecting the dermatomal spread of spinal anesthesia: age, CSF, c___, drug volume, i____, needle direction, patient height, p___

A

curvature of the spine, intraabdominal pressure, pregnancy

68
Q

The two approaches to the sub-arachnoid space are the ___ and ____approach.

A

midline and paramedian

69
Q

Midline offers the benefit of ___ ___ to consider and simply approaches the structures ___.

A

fewer angles, directly

70
Q

Additionally, the midline approach offers the ___portion of the epidural space versus the ____.

A

widest, paramedian

71
Q

Commonly, the___ are connected resulting in identification of L4.

A

iliac crests

72
Q

Between this and the L2, spinous processes are visualized to form an ___ line.

A

intersecting

73
Q

Following skin preparation and draping, ____ between the selected spinous processes, ___ lidocaine is injected for topical sensation.

A

midway, 1%

74
Q

Then an introducer needle is placed ____ or slightly ___ followed by insertion of the spinal needle through the ____.

A

horizontally, cephalad, introducer

75
Q

Generally, ligaments are recognized by a ____, or ____ (friction) changes as the needle advances.

A

pop, tension

76
Q

It is acceptable to frequently check the needle by removing the ____for identification of the ___.

A

stylet, CSF

77
Q

Following the absence of___ or ___, the LA is injected into the CSF and both the spinal and ____ needles are removed.

A

blood or paresthesia, introducer

78
Q

The effect of spinal block on vascular tone (sympathetic blockade) is noticed in ___ and ____.
[Side effects: subarachnoid block]

A

loss of vascular tone/ SVR and subsequent hypotension

79
Q

This (sympathetic blockade) can be more pronounced in patients with ___ ___or in conditions of___ ___.
[Side effects: subarachnoid block]

A

underlying disease, volume depletion

80
Q

This “sympathectomy” occurs within ____ of injection and can be mitigated with small doses of ____ and ___ ___ pre-treatment in eligible patients.
[Side effects: subarachnoid block]

A

minutes, vasopressors, volume challenge

81
Q

When dermatome levels reach the ___ level, cardioaccelerator nerves are blocked resulting in prominent (unopposed) ___stimulation and ____.
[Side effects: subarachnoid block]

A

T1- T4, parasympathetic, bradycardia

82
Q

Under certain conditions, the sudden loss of ___ coupled with loss of heart rate can result in profound ___ and ____.
[Side effects: subarachnoid block]

A

SVR, hypotension and loss of consciousness

83
Q

If the anesthetic is associated with obstetrics, concern for ___ ___ is warranted.
[Side effects: subarachnoid block]

A

fetal circulation

84
Q

While neosynephrine is often recommended for hypotension, reflex bradycardia may result in ____ ___ with a high-level spinal (___ ___).
[Side effects: subarachnoid block]

A

cardiac asystole, baroreceptor response

85
Q

Prudence in managing ___and ___ ___ simultaneously is recommended.
[Side effects: subarachnoid block]

A

SVR, heart rate

86
Q

A recognition of dermatome levels is helpful in developing ___, ___, and ___.
[Dermatone Level Evaluation]

A

dosing calculations, documentation, and adequacy of coverage for analgesia

87
Q

Many charts exist to assist in memorization of the ___and the ___ landmarks.
[Dermatone Level Evaluation]

A

levels, surface

88
Q

Access anesthesiology references in the Hadzic’s textbook of regional anesthesia are generally very practical.
[Dermatone Level Evaluation]

A

I think this just a tip**

89
Q

In addition to these charts, several ____ are well known corresponding markers for dermatome levels.
[Dermatone Level Evaluation]

A

landmarks

90
Q

___ is the most prominent cervical spinous process, the ____ is at T7, T10 is at the ____, and ___ is at the level of the superior aspect of the iliac crests.
[Dermatone Level Evaluation]

A

C7, base of the scapulae, umbilicus, L4

91
Q

For both spinal and epidural, a “___” or ___be identified by having a level of sympathetic blockade with loss of temperature superior to an area of sensory blockade with loss of sense of touch and pain superior to a motor blockade with inability to generate skeletal muscle control.

[Dermatone Level Evaluation]

A

“differential block”, difference of effect can

92
Q

As a general rule, these differentiations are a couple of ____apart (1-3).
[Dermatone Level Evaluation]

A

segments

93
Q

As the ___ wanes, so does these levels.
[Dermatone Level Evaluation

A

blockade

94
Q

Spinal dosing is influenced by the desired ____ of anesthesia and the ____ to be anesthetized.
[Dosing]

A

length, dermatome level

95
Q

In a dose dependent fashion, more ____ of LA results in a ___ and higher___of blockade.
[Spinal Dosing]

A

milligrams, longer block, level

96
Q

Blockade height can be manipulated by adjusting ___ and ___ at insertion.
[Spinal Dosing]

A

baricity and position

97
Q

Most important factors: (6)
B____
D___
D___
A____
S___
P____
[Factors affecting the dermatomal spread of spinal anesthesia]

A

Baracity of anesthetic solution
Drug Dosage
During Injection
After Injection (immediately)
Site of Injection
Position of the patient

98
Q

Other factors:
Patient ___, Intraabdominal ____, Pregnancy, CSF, ____ of the spine, Age, Needle direction, Drug volume
[Factors affecting the dermatomal spread of spinal anesthesia]

A

Height, pressure, Curvature

99
Q

Epidurals offer ____ blockade anesthesia with several unique characteristics that must be weighed in the ___ decision making process.

[Epidural placement]

A

central, anesthesia

100
Q

*Ability to create ____blockade without motor blockade.

[Epidural placement]

A

sensory

101
Q

*Ability to titrate more or less dosage to change of ___ and ____.

[Epidural placement]

A

spread medication and clinical effect

102
Q

*Ability to provide prolonged effect through ___ or ___dosing

[Epidural placement]

A

continuous or intermittent

103
Q

*Less dense of a motor block than ____

[Epidural placement]

A

SAB

104
Q

*Larger needle placement, increases risk of ____from inadvertent vessel injury

[Epidural placement]

A

bleeding

105
Q

*Larger needle increases risk of ___ if inadvertent subarachnoid puncture

[Epidural placement]

A

PDPH

106
Q

Clinical effect is achieved through both the action on ____ as they pass through the epidural space and diffusion into the CSF where action is on the ____.
[Epidural placement]

A

spinal roots, spinal cord

107
Q

The ____ process is slower than with SAB injection directly into the CSF.
[Epidural placement]

A

diffusion

108
Q

Access to the epidural space is by a special needle that is both ___ and ___.
[Epidural placement]

A

blunted and curved

109
Q

The blunting decreases the likelihood of ___ puncture; the needle should pass through the ___, stop in the ___ space, and remain shallow to/ proximal to the ___.
[Epidural placement]

A

dural, ligamentum flavum, epidural potential, dura

110
Q

The curvature also protects the dura by avoiding a ___ on the ___end.
[Epidural placement]

A

piercing tip, distal

111
Q

Additionally, the curvature directs the ___; generally, ___ for advancement.
[Epidural placement]

A

catheter, cephalad

112
Q

The larger gauge ___ facilitates the placement of the ___through the needle once it arrives in the ___ space; generally advancing the catheter 2-5cm past the needle tip.

[Epidural placement]

A

(18-16g), catheter, epidural

113
Q

Identification of the epidural space requires a unique process with one of two techniques, either ___ or ___.
[Epidural placement]

A

loss of resistance or hanging drop

114
Q

The ___ technique is the most common and easier to learn.
[Epidural placement]

A

loss of resistance

115
Q

Once the epidural needle is advanced into ___, the stylet in the ___ needle is removed and a glass syringe attached. [Epidural placement: Loss of resistance technique]

A

interspinous ligament, Tuohy

116
Q

The property of the syringe is such that the plunger is “___” within the barrel and feels “___”.
[Epidural placement: Loss of resistance technique]

A

“loose”, “spongy”

117
Q

The needle is___advanced with careful bracing against the patient with ___ or ___ compressions of the plunger.
[Epidural placement: Loss of resistance technique]

A

slowly , constant, frequent

118
Q

Because the ___ will not allow injection, the plunger bounces back to compression.
[Epidural placement: Loss of resistance technique]

A

ligament

119
Q

Only after entering the ___ space (or vessel), will the loss of resistance be achieved where the plunger ___.
[Epidural placement: Loss of resistance technique]

A

epidural, advances

120
Q

This (loss of resistance) signifies needle ___.
[Epidural placement]

A

entry

121
Q

The hanging drop again begins with the needle tip in ___ as soft tissue superficially ___ injection.
[Epidural placement: Hanging Drop]

A

ligament, accepts

122
Q

Once the needle is in ligament, the ___ is removed and ___ is added to the hub of the needle to be maintained by ___.
[Epidural placement: Hanging Drop]

A

stylet, saline, surface tension

123
Q

As the needle advances, the potential space, with its ____ pressure, will draw the saline into the needle.
[Epidural placement: Hanging Drop]

A

subatmospheric

124
Q

Thus placement is confirmed when the saline drop ___ into the needle. [Epidural placement: Hanging Drop]

A

withdraws

125
Q

Anecdotally, caution must be used with this technique as it requires ___ and ___.
[Epidural placement: Hanging Drop]

A

extraordinary attention and needle control

126
Q

Further, any occlusion of the needle will ___ the drop from having access to the space and its negative pressure property which exposes the patient to ___.
[Epidural placement: Hanging Drop]

A

prevent, inadvertent dural puncture

127
Q

*If a dural puncture occurs, ___ of the needle is warranted immediately. Some practitioners have considered placement of a ____ to “seal” the hole and allows ___block dosing as a temporary measure. Since sub-arachnoid catheters have fallen out of favor due to TNS and cauda equina syndrome, this practice is not recommended.

[Special precautions with epidural needles]

A

removal, sub-arachnoid catheter, spinal

128
Q

*Catheters should not be ____from the needle. If the catheter must be ____, the needle should be removed ___ and then the catheter.

[Special precautions with epidural needles]

A

withdrawn,, withdrawn, first

129
Q

*Test dosing: The use of ____ (historically ___with ___epinephrine) is used to rule out intravascular and subarachnoid catheter placement.
[Special precautions with epidural needles]

A

3ml of lidocaine, 1.5%, 1:200,000

130
Q

If the catheter is in a vessel, the ____ will cause an acute increase in heart rate and blood pressure. If the catheter is ___, then the dose will produce a rapid onset and dense spinal block.

[Special precautions with epidural needles]

A

epinephrine, subarachnoid

131
Q

*Cather tip placement should ideally be at the center of the ___ region being anesthetized as this ____ the concentration of LA in that area.

[Special precautions with epidural needles]

A

dermatome, increases

132
Q

*___ effects spread. A higher ____ agent with less volume can have a greater density with less spread, while a lower ____ agent with more volume will have a more diffuse, but less intense blockade.
[Special precautions with epidural needles]

A

Volume, concentration, concentration

133
Q

A guide is to consider ___ml per level of spread. So for T-10 to S 5, you would need ___mls of volume.
[Special precautions with epidural needles]

A

1ml, 12 mls

134
Q

Thus volume affects ___and concentration affects the ___affected.

[Special precautions with epidural needles]

A

spread, types fibers

135
Q

*Re-dosing of a catheter does not require an additional___dose, but should always be ___first.

[Special precautions with epidural needles]

A

test, aspirated

136
Q

*___ effects density, for laboring women, clinical effect might be ___ if they are positioned to one side.

[Special precautions with epidural needles]

A

Gravity, less

137
Q

*Epidural dosing of ___ is similar to intravenous
[Special precautions with epidural needles]

A

opioids

138
Q

Using this guide (Morgan and Mikhail text ), ___ml per level (___ with advanced age or during pregnancy for labor) can be administered.
[Special precautions with epidural needles]

A

1-2 ml, less

139
Q

Following delivery (in labor epidurals) or surgery, ___ of the catheter is warranted unless sustained post-op ___ is desired.
[Catheter removal]

A

removal, analgesia

140
Q

At the desired time, careful removal of the catheter is achieved by simply withdrawing the ___noting the complete ___removal in the ___.
[Catheter removal]

A

catheter, catheter, documentation

141
Q

In the event the catheter is stuck, positioning of the patient into___position may open the spaces sufficiently to withdraw the catheter.

[Catheter removal]

A

placement

142
Q

Retained catheters warrants neurologic follow up due to risk of ___ and ___irritation of the CNS structures.
[Catheter removal]

A

sepsis, mechanical

143
Q

It is critical to remember that ___rules apply to catheter ___ just as they do to catheter insertion.
[Catheter removal]

A

anticoagulation, removal

144
Q

For both___ and ___placement, strict adherence to sterility is essential.
[Sterility]

A

SAB and Epidural

145
Q

At minimum, ___ preparation of the site, a sterile ___, and ___ should be used.
[Sterility]

A

sterile, drape, gloves

146
Q

It is recommended that a ___, ___, ___ also be used.
[Sterility]

A

mask, hat, and eyewear

147
Q

Anticipation of needs should accompany insertion such that the ___ prior to gloves being donned and ___ precedes site preparation.
[Sterility]

A

kit is opened, palpation of landmarks

148
Q

___, while included in many commercially available kits, has begun to fall out of favor due to potential and advertised risk associated with introduction of ___into the CNS.
[Sterility]

A

Betadine, betadine

149
Q

While ___ with ___(chloraprep) solution is also toxic within the CNS, it is more widely accepted as the preferred skin preparation for ___ ___ blocks.
[Sterility]

A

chlorhexidine, alcohol, central neuraxial

150
Q

More commonly associated with ___ anesthesia, the caudal block is functionally the same as an ___block.
[Caudal blocks]

A

pediatric, epidural

151
Q

Dosing and management are similar as the epidural, however the name is derived from the ___ to the space through the ___ ___(caudal location of insertion).

[Caudal blocks]

A

approach, sacral hiatus

152
Q

The anatomical structures are___ reliable in adults thus reducing its ___ and limitations to the procedure also relate to the target level of anesthesia; that is the most ___, ___, and ___ procedures.
[Caudal blocks]

A

less, efficacy, distal colon, urologic, and lower extremity

153
Q

Finally, the potential for inadvertent ___ of the LA into other compartments has resulted in an ___ ___ rate for this block as compared to other techniques and approaches.

[Caudal blocks]

A

extravasation, increase failure

154
Q

Identification of landmarks is completed by noting the ___, the ___ on as lateral margins and the ___ in the center.
[Caudal blocks]

A

distal end of the coccyx, sacral cornua, sacral hiatus

155
Q

A small gauge (___) needle is advanced at a ___degree angle ___ until a pop and loss of resistance is achieved (with saline).
[Caudal blocks]

A

22ga, 45, cephalad

156
Q

At this point, injection may occur. ___ ml/kg are administered.
[Caudal blocks]

A

0.5-1