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Exam II Flashcards

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1
Q

either difficulty initiating sleep, difficulty maintaining sleep, or early morning waking

A

Insomnia

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2
Q

Insomnia:
- timeline
- TX (3)

A
  • 3+ nights per week x3 months
  • CBT for insomnia (CBTi), Benzos, melatonin
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3
Q

MC sleep disorder?

A

Insomnia

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4
Q

excessive sleepiness despite 7+ hours of sleep

A

Hypersomnolence Disorder

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5
Q

Hypersomnolence Disorder:
- timeline
- TX

A
  • 3x per week x3 months
  • 15 min naps (no FDA approved pharm)
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6
Q

irrepressible need to sleep with 1 or more of the following:
- episodes of cataplexy
- hypocretin deficiency
- REM sleep latency <15 mins

A

Narcolepsy

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7
Q

_____ deficiency from the posterior thalamus leads to unstable activation/deactivation of sleep wake centers leading to narcolepsy

A

Orexin

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8
Q

CSF Orexin levels <____ can lead to Narcolepsy

A

<110 pg/mL

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9
Q

Narcolepsy:
- timeline
- TX (2)

A
  • 3x per week x3mo
  • 15 min naps at lunch or medication (Modafinil, Armodafinil, Pitolisant, Solriamfetol, Sodium Oxybate)
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10
Q

5+ obstructive apneas per hour and either
- breathing disturbances
- daytime sleepiness/fatigue

A

Obstructive Sleep Apnea

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11
Q

15+ obstructive apneas per hour regardless of sx

A

Obstructive Sleep Apnea

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12
Q

Obstructive Sleep Apnea is associated with what other condition?

A

adult onset DM

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13
Q

Obstructive Sleep Apnea tx?

A

CPAP

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14
Q

5+ central apneas per hour of sleep

A

Central Sleep Apnea

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15
Q

Central Sleep Apnea is associated with…

A

chronic opioid use

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16
Q

Central Sleep Apnea Tx? (3)

A
  • CPAP
  • BiPAP
  • Adaptive Servoventilation (ASV)
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17
Q

sleep with decreased respiration associated with elevated CO2 levels

A

Sleep Related Hypoventilation

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18
Q

Sleep Related Hypoventilation TX?

A

CPAP

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19
Q

sleep disruption d/t altered circadian rhythm or a schedule that causes misalignment b/t endogenous circadian rhythm and sleep-wake schedule; leads to excessive sleepiness and/or insomnia

A

Circadian Rhythm Sleep-Wake Disorder

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20
Q

50% of ______ pts experience Circadian Rhythm Sleep-Wake Disorder?

A

blind

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21
Q

50% of blind pts experience…

A

Circadian Rhythm Sleep-Wake Disorder

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22
Q

Circadian Rhythm Sleep-Wake Disorder Tx?

A

light therapy (bright light in am helps delayed phase; in evening helps advanced phase)

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23
Q
  • incomplete awakening from sleep with 1 of the following: sleepwalking
    and/or sleep terrors
  • NO dream imagery is recalled
  • amnesia for the episodes
A

Non-REM Sleep Arousal Disorders

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24
Q

Non-REM Sleep Arousal Disorders risk factor?

A

family member who sleep walks

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25
Q

Non-REM Sleep Arousal Disorders TX?

A

avoid sleep deprivation, consistent sleep schedule, safeguard the home

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26
Q

dysphoric well-remembered dreams and on awakening, pt rapidly becomes oriented and alert

A

Nightmare Disorder

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27
Q

Nightmare Disorder TX?

A

usually self-limited
- can do imagery reversal therapy and process underlying trauma

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28
Q

arousal during sleep with vocalization and/or complex motor behaviors
episodes occur during REM sleep

A

REM Sleep Behavior Disorder

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29
Q

REM Sleep Behavior Disorder TX?

A

safe sleeping environment

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30
Q

urge to move the legs d/t uncomfortable sensation in legs

A

Restless Leg Syndrome

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31
Q

Restless Leg Syndrome:
- timeline
- TX?

A
  • 3x per week x3 months
  • dopaminergic agents (Ropinrole, Pramipexole)
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32
Q

EITHER
- delay in ejaculation
- infrequency or absence of ejaculation

A

Delayed Ejaculation

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33
Q

Delayed Ejaculation:
- timeline
- TX

A
  • 6+ months
  • decreases substances (alcohol, SSRIs/SNRIs) and behavioral therapy
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34
Q

in a pt with Delayed Ejaculation, if you’re concerned of a neuro deficit, what should you test?

A

pudendal nerve conduction study

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35
Q

1 or more of the following:
- difficulty obtaining an erection
- difficulty maintaining an erection
- decreased erectile rigidity

A

Erectile Disorder

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36
Q

Erectile Disorder
- timeline
- labs
- TX

A
  • 6+ months
  • free T, PRL, fasting glucose, lipids, thyroid
  • PDE5 inhibitors
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37
Q

Erectile Disorder
- caution with PDE5 inhibitor use in pts with/on…

A
  • nitrates (antiHTN meds)
  • unstable angina
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38
Q

Either
- delay or absence of orgasm in female
- decreased orgasm intensity in female

A

female orgasmic disorder

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39
Q

female organsmic disorder:
- timeline:
- TX (2)

A
  • 6+ months
  • remove SSRI/SNRI, CBT
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40
Q

reduced sexual interest / arousal with 3+ symptoms

A

Female Sexual Interest / Arousal Disorder

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41
Q

Female Sexual Interest / Arousal Disorder:
- timeline
- DX tool:
- TX? (2)

A
  • 6+ months
  • female sexual function index
  • CBT, sex therapy
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42
Q

difficulty with 1 of the following
- penetration
- pelvic pain with sex
- fear or anxiety about the pain
- tensing or tightening with sex

A

Genito-Pelvic Pain / Penetration Disorder

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43
Q

Genito-Pelvic Pain / Penetration Disorder:
-timeline:
- tx? (2)

A
  • 6+ months
  • manual therapy for pelvic floor, CBT
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44
Q

deficient or absent sexual / erotic thoughts and desire for sexual activities in males

A

Male Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder

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45
Q

Male Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder:
- timeline
- TX

A
  • 6+ months
  • CBT, sex therapy
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46
Q

ejaculation occurring during partnered sexual activity within 1 minute following vaginal penetration and before individual wishes

A

Premature Ejaculation

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47
Q

Premature Ejaculation:
- timeline:
- TX?

A
  • 6+ months
  • CBT, sex therapy
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48
Q

incongruence b/t one’s experienced gender and assigned gender
at least SIX months of strong desire to be/insistence to be other gender (need SIX criteria)

A

Gender Dysphoria in kids

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49
Q

incongruence b/t one’s experienced gender and assigned gender
at least SIX months of strong desire to be/insistence to be other gender (need TWO criteria)

A

Gender Dysphoria in adolescents or adults

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50
Q

Gender Dysphoria:
- DX
- timeline
- TX (3)

A
  • gender identity interview schedules
  • 6+ months
  • CBT, hormonal tx, surgical interventions
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51
Q

sexual arousal from observing an unsuspected person naked, undressing, or engaging in sexual activity

A

Voyeuristic Disorder

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52
Q

Voyeuristic Disorder:
- timeline
- minimum age
- tx

A
  • 6+ months
  • 18+ years old
  • CBT
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53
Q

sexual arousal from the exposure of one’s genitals to unsuspecting persons

A

Exhibitionistic Disorder

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54
Q

Exhibitionistic Disorder
- timeline
- tx

A
  • 6+ months
  • CBT
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55
Q

sexual arousal from touching or rubbing against a nonconsenting person

A

Frotteuristic Disorder

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56
Q

Frotteuristic Disorder:
- timeline
- tx

A
  • 6+ months
  • no good treatment; can try GnRH agonist
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57
Q

sexual arousal from the act of being humiliated, beaten, bound, or made to suffer

A

Sexual Masochism Disorder

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58
Q

Sexual Masochism Disorder
- timeline
- tx

A
  • 6+ months
  • no good tx; can try CBT
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59
Q

sexual arousal from the physical or psychological suffering of another person

A

Sexual Sadism Disorder

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60
Q

Sexual Sadism Disorder
- timeline
- TX

A
  • 6+ months
  • incarceration; can try CBT
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61
Q

sexual arousal from use of nonliving objects or highly specific focus on congenital body parts

A

Fetishistic Disorder

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62
Q

Fetishistic Disorder
- timeline
- tx

A
  • 6+ months
  • many consider it a gift and avoid tx!
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63
Q

sexual arousal form cross-dressing

A

Transvestic Disorder

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64
Q

Transvestic Disorder
- timeline
- tx

A
  • 6+ months
  • psychodynamic psychotherapy (long-standing tx)
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65
Q

angry or irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, or vindictiveness with at least 4 sx

A

Oppositional Defiant Disorder

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66
Q

Oppositional Defiant Disorder
- timeline
- tx
- anatomic changes

A
  • 6+ months
  • CBT, parent training (if <12 y/o)
  • low HR, low cortisol, prefrontal cortex and amygdala changes
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67
Q

failure to control aggressive impulses
- verbal or physical aggression x3 months
- OR 3 behavioral outbursts involving damage of property or assault within 12 months

A

Intermittent Explosive Disorder

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68
Q

Intermittent Explosive Disorder
- minimum age
- tx
- risk factors

A
  • 6 y/o
  • CBT behavioral modification
  • hx of physical or emotional trauma within 1st 20 years of life
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69
Q

pattern of behavior in which the basic rights of others or major age-appropriate societal rules/norms are violated; need 3 symptoms

A

Conduct Disorder

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70
Q

Conduct Disorder:
- if less than 18 y/o, criteria for _____ are NOT met
- tx?

A
  • antisocial personality disorder
  • head start REDI programs to develop coping skills, trained foster parents, pharm (chlorpromazine, thioridazine, haloperidol)
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71
Q

fire setting on 1+ occasion,
tension or arousal prior to event,
fascination with fire,
pleasure/relief when setting fires,

A

Pyromania

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72
Q

Pyromania:
- tx

A

CBT

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73
Q

impulses to steal objects that are not needed for personal use,
tension before threat,
pleasure/relief after theft,
theft is not d/t anger or delusion/hallucination

A

Kleptomania

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74
Q

Kleptomania
- tx
- M or F?

A
  • CBT (target tension and compensatory behavior)
  • F > M
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75
Q

Alcohol Use Disorder:
- # of sx
- timeline
- relevant labs

A
  • 2+ sx
  • within 12 months
  • AST:ALT ratio of 2:1
76
Q

Alcohol withdrawal:
- can be life threatening d/t
- tx

A

Delirium Tremors
Benzos

77
Q

Alcohol Use Disorder:
- tx (3)

A
  • Disulfiram
  • Naltrexone
  • Acamprosate
78
Q

Caffeine Intoxication
recent caffeine consumption
(usually >250 mg) with __+ sx after intake

A

5+

79
Q

Cannabis Use Disorder:
- use with __+ sx within __months

A

2+
12 months

80
Q

Cannabis Use Disorder:
- TX
- endoscopic sedation medication ______ doses in those using cannabis

A
  • CBT, Motivation Enhancement Therapy (MET)
  • increase
81
Q

phencyclidine use leading to 2+ sx within 12 months

A

Hallucinogen-Related Use Disorder

82
Q

Hallucinogen-Related Use Disorder
- tx
- MOA

A
  • hallucinogen persisting perception disorder – NO good tx! antipsychotics are NOT effective
  • NMDA antagonist
83
Q

pattern of hydrocarbon inhalant use with 2+ sx within 12 months

A

Inhalent Use Disorder

84
Q

Inhalent Use Disorder
- tx

A

hospitalization with acute intoxication / resp suppression

85
Q

Opioid Use Disorder Prevention of Relapse:
- tx (2)

A
  • Methadone
  • Buprenophine
  • Naltrexone
86
Q

what must be done before giving Methadone and why?

A

ECG d/t risk of QT prolongation

87
Q

Opioid Use Disorder OD:
- tx

A

Naloxone

88
Q

Pt with Opiod use disorder presents with meiosis and decreased RR

A

Opioid INTOXICATION

89
Q

Pt with Opiod use disorder presents with piloerection

A

Opioid WITHDRAWAL

90
Q

Sedative, Hypnotic, or Anxiolytic Disorder:
- tx?

A

taper off! decrease dose 25-50% every 1-2 weeks

91
Q

Sedative, Hypnotic, or Anxiolytic Disorder: OD
- tx?

A

Flumazenil

92
Q

Amphetamine-type use with 2+ sx within 12 months

A

Stimulant Use Disorder

93
Q

Stimulant Use Disorder:
- tx?

A

CBT

94
Q

tobacco use disorder:
- tx? (3)

A

nicotine replacement
Bupropion
Varenicline

95
Q

Gambling Disorder:
- tx?

A

CBT
motivational interviewing

96
Q

what are the Criteria for Delirium?

A

WACC (waxing/waning, acute onset, changes in attention, changes in cognition) as a consequence of another medical condition / substance use

97
Q

up to 1/3 of delirium cases are caused by…

A

meds!

98
Q

Delirium:
- dx:
- tx:

A
  • confusion assessment method
  • olanzapine (BB warning of increased mortality) and tx underlying condition)
99
Q

criteria for major neurocognitive disorder?

A

significant cognitive decline from a previous level in 1+ cognitive domains (complex attn, executive function, learning/memory, language);
DEFICITS INTERFERE WITH INDEPENDENCE IN EVERYDAY ACTIVITIES

100
Q

criteria for mild neurocognitive disorder?

A

significant cognitive decline from a previous level in 1+ cognitive domains (complex attn, executive function, learning/memory, language);
DEFICITS DO NOT INTERFERE WITH INDEPENDENCE IN EVERYDAY ACTIVITIES

101
Q

criteria for PROBABLE neurocognitive disorder d/t Alzheimers

A
  • major NC disorder with genetic mutation OR all 3 clues present
  • mild NC disorder with genetic mutation
102
Q

criteria for POSSIBLE neurocognitive disorder d/t Alzheimers

A

mild or major NC impairment with
no genetic mutation or 3 clinical clues

103
Q

neurocognitive disorder d/t Alzheimers
- pathology
- tx (3)

A
  • beta amyloid plaques, tau neurofibrillary tangles
  • AchE inhibs (Donepazil, Rivastigmine, Galantamine), NMDA antag (Memantine), mAb (Adacanumab)
104
Q

gradual progressive NC disorder with relative sparing of learning and memory

A

Frontotemporal NC Disorder

105
Q

two variants of Frontotemporal NC Disorder

A

behavioral variant
language variant

106
Q

Frontotemporal NC Disorder TX?

A

behavioral strategies

107
Q

gradual progressing cognitive deficits with
A) Core Dx Features (fluctuating cognition, hallucinations, Parkinsonism)
B) Suggestive Features (REM sleep behavior disorder, neuroleptic sensitivity)

A

NC Disorder with Lewy Bodies

108
Q

NC Disorder with Lewy Bodies TX?

A

behavioral strategies
tx hallucinations and REM SBD

109
Q

cognitive deficit is temporarily d/t CVA and evidence of cerebrovascular disease

A

Vascular NC Disorder

110
Q

Vascular NC Disorder
- TX?
- MRI

A
  • behavioral strategies
  • focal infarcts
111
Q

evidence of TBI with 1+ of the following (LOC, post-traumatic amnesia, disorientation/confusion, neuro signs) AND disorder presents immediately after TBI

A

Neurocognitive Disorder d/t TBI

112
Q

Neurocognitive Disorder d/t TBI
- risk factor
- TX

A
  • repeated concussions
  • memory aides
113
Q

criteria met for mild or major NCD and a +HIV test

A

Neurocognitive Disorder d/t HIV Infection

114
Q

Neurocognitive Disorder d/t HIV Infection tx?

A

behavioral strategies

115
Q

criteria met for mild or major NCD; rapid progression
motor sx such as myoclonus or ataxia

A

Neurocognitive Disorder d/t Prion Disease

116
Q

Neurocognitive Disorder d/t Prion Disease tx?

A

fatal!!

117
Q

criteria met for mild or major NCD;
occurs in the setting of Parkinson’s;
gradual progression

A

Neurocognitive Disorder d/t Parkinsons

118
Q

Neurocognitive Disorder d/t Parkinsons
- Avoid what tx
- Tx

A
  • anticholinergics and antipsychotics
  • use Ldopa / carbidopa
119
Q

criteria met for mild or major NCD;
gradual progression;
clinically dx with HD

A

Neurocognitive Disorder d/t Huntingtons

120
Q

Neurocognitive Disorder d/t Huntingtons
- tx
- genetic
- MRI

A
  • antidepressants
  • chromosome 4 CAG repeat
  • caudate atrophy
121
Q

pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others such taht their motives are interpreted as malevolent;
4 of 7 sx

A

Paranoid Personality Disorder

122
Q

Paranoid Personality Disorder
- tx:
- DX: (2)

A
  • psychotherapy (antipsychotics have no benefit)
  • Millón Clincal Multiaxial Inventory (MCMI) or Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)
123
Q

pervasive pattern of detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of expression of emotions

A

Schizoid Personality Disorder

124
Q

Schizoid Personality Disorder:
- number of Sx
- tx

A
  • 4+ sx
  • no pharm; group therapy is helpful
125
Q

pervasive pattern of social and interpersonal deficits as well as by cognitive or perceptual distortions and eccentricities of behavior

A

Schizotypal Personality Disorder

126
Q

Schizotypal Personality Disorder:
- number of sx
- tx
- risk factor

A
  • 5+ sx (odd beliefs, paranoid, lack of close friends)
  • poor candidate for for low structure therapy; no FDA approved pharm; try group therapy
  • family member with schizophrenia or other psych disorder
127
Q

pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others; occurring since 15 y/o; evidence of conduct disorder with onset before 15 y/o

A

Antisocial Personality Disorder

128
Q

Antisocial Personality Disorder
- number of sx
- tx
- risk factor

A
  • 3+ sx
  • poorest tx response of any personality disorder! highly tx resistant
  • family hx; lower socioeconomic status
129
Q

disorder with poorest tx response of any personality disorder! highly tx resistant

A

Antisocial Personality Disorder

130
Q

pervasive pattern of instability of interpersonal relationships, self-image and affects, marked impulsivity

A

Borderline Personality Disorder

131
Q

Borderline Personality Disorder
- number of sx
- tx
- risk factor

A
  • 5+ sx
  • no pharm; dialectical behavior therapy (DBT)
  • 5x increased risk if family member with disorder
132
Q

pervasive pattern of excessive emotionality and attention seeking with wanting to be center of attention, sexually seductive, dramatic, physical appearance to draw attention

A

Histrionic Personality Disorder

133
Q

Histrionic Personality Disorder
- number of sx
- tx

A
  • 5+ sx
  • group therapy
134
Q

pervasive pattern of grandiosity (in fantasy or behavior), need for admiration, lack of empathy

A

Narcissistic Personality Disorder

135
Q

Narcissistic Personality Disorder
- number of sx
- tx
- m or f?

A
  • 5+ sx
  • group therapy (homogenous narcissistic group)
  • M > F
136
Q

pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, hypersensitivity to negative evaluation (avoids social contact, fear of not being liked)

A

Avoidant Personality Disorder

137
Q

Avoidant Personality Disorder
- number of sx
- tx

A
  • 4+ sx
  • group therapy, CBT
138
Q

pervasive and excessive need to be taken care of that leads to submissive and clinging behavior and fears of separation (indecisive, lack of independence, etc)

A

Dependent Personality Disorder

139
Q

Dependent Personality Disorder
- number of sx
- tx

A
  • 5+ sx
  • group therapy (individual therapy might encourage the dependence)
140
Q

pervasive pattern or preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and mental interpersonal control at the expense of flexibility, openness, and efficiency

A

Obsessive Compulsive Personality Disorder

141
Q

Obsessive Compulsive Personality Disorder
- number of sx
- tx

A
  • 4+ sx
  • individual CBT
142
Q

_________ are used to avoid anticipated dangers, or to stabilize the individuals emotional state, but often at a loss of other emotional or relational opportunities

A

Defense mechanisms 

143
Q

Defense Mechanisms:
The withdrawal from consciousness of an unwanted idea, affect or desire by pushing it down or repressing it into the unconscious part of the mind; i.e. not recalling a traumatic experience

A

Repression 

144
Q

Defense Mechanisms:
The fixation and consciousness of an idea, affect or desire that is opposite to a feared unconscious impulse i.e. resentful mother is overprotective

A

Reaction formation

145
Q

Defense Mechanisms:
Unwanted feelings are displaced onto another person where they then appear as a threat from the external world i.e an angry person accuses another of hostile thoughts towards them

A

Projection

146
Q

Defense Mechanisms:
A return to earlier stages of development and abandoned forms of gratification belonging to them prompted by dangers or conflicts arising at one of the later stages i.e. following a stressful encounter and adult lies in bed, sucking their thumb

A

Regression

147
Q

Defense Mechanisms:
The diversion or deflection of instinctual drives usually sexual ones into non-instinctual channels, i.e. desire and energy to seduce another is channeled into art or work projects

A

Sublimation

148
Q

Defense Mechanisms:
The cautious refusal to perceive that painful facts exist i.e. denying feelings of hostility consciously allows an individual to escape certain thoughts, or events like an arrest

A

Denial

149
Q

Defense Mechanisms:
The substitution of a safe or reasonable explanation for the true but threatening cause of behavior, i.e. explaining aggression toward another as self-defense, instead of efforts to fulfill a selfish desire

A

Rationalization

150
Q

Defense Mechanisms:
Use of irony, sarcasm, or other tools to reframe a situation in a hilarious light i.e. during an argument one person makes fun of themselves diffusing the tension of the interaction.

A

 Humor

151
Q

Major component of CBT?

A

Homework

152
Q

Vagus Nerve Stimulation:
electrodes surgically placed around the ____ vagus nerve

A

left

153
Q

ECT uses ________ for paralytic purposes in the typical pt; what is the ADR?

A
  • succinylcholine (depolarizing)
  • increased serum K+
154
Q

ECT uses _______ for paralytic purposes in inactive/bedridden, paretic, or burn pts

A

Cisatrocurium
Rocuronium

155
Q

ECT:
- uses (2)
- ADRs (1)

A
  • severe MDD episode, catatonia
  • retrograde and anterograde amnesia
156
Q

Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (TMS)
- targets ______ for MDD
- targets ______ for OCD

A
  • dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
  • anterior cingulate gyrus
157
Q

indications for TMS?

A

MDD
OCD

158
Q

three components of suicidal AND homicidal assessment?

A
  1. thoughts
  2. plans
  3. intent
  4. access to means
  5. prior attempts
159
Q

TX for agitated pt with psychosis, mania, or unclear etiology?

A

SGA (quick dissolving or IM)

160
Q

Pt presents with hyperreflexia, fluctuations in vital signs, shivering

A

Serotonin Syndrome

161
Q

Pt presents with rigidity, mutism, hyperthermia, diaphoresis, tachycardia and HTN CRISIS

A

Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (ADR of antipsychotics)

162
Q

Omega 3 Fatty Acids have most beneficial evidence in…

A

bipolar
MDD

163
Q

St. Johns Wort indications?

A

MDD

164
Q

St Johns Wort DDI?

A

CYP Inducer!

165
Q

S-Adenosylmethionine (SAMe)
- MOA (1)
- indication (1)
- may be better if used with…

A
  • increases serotonin, NE, DA (depending on folate and B12 availability)
  • MDD
  • augmentation with SSRI/SNRI
166
Q

SE of Valerian for anxiety/sleep

A

hepatoxicity

167
Q

Melatonin:
- endogenously secreted by
- no human evidence of what ADR?

A
  • pineal gland
  • retinal damage
168
Q

ADRs of Kava for anxiety?

A

hepatotoxicity
liver failure

169
Q

Ginkgo Biloba:
- possible indication?
- minimum length of tx vs maximum?

A
  • memory issues with mild dementia
  • min 8 weeks; max 1 year
170
Q

ADRs of DHEA for memory / depression sx? (5)

A
  • wt gain
  • hirsutism
  • irregular menses
  • voice changes
  • prostatic hypertrophy
171
Q

both St. johns wort and SAMe have shown similar efficacy to ____ in treating MDD

A

TCAs

172
Q

Psychotropic Considerations:
- don’t start a medication you are not comfortable _____, _____ and _____
- do not exceed FDA ________
- make _____ medication change at a time
- ensure appropriate ongoing ______

A
  • managing, monitoring, weaning off
  • approved maximum dose
  • one
  • monitoring
173
Q

Psychotropics and HIV care:
- initial doses ____ of standard starting dose
- increase dose at ____ the usual pace

A

1/2 (half)
1/2 (half)

174
Q

Psychotropics and HIV care:
- what HIV drugs INHIBIT CYP450 2B6 and what effect does this have on psychotherapy?

A
  • ritonavir, nelfinavir, efavirenz
  • increase bupropion levels
175
Q

Psychotropics and HIV care:
- what HIV drug induces CYP450 and what effect does this have on psychotherapy?

A
  • Nevirapine
  • decreases bupropion levels
176
Q

Pregnancy and Antidepressants:
- most used medications? (4)

A
  • Citalopram
  • Escitalopram
  • Fluoxetine
  • Sertraline
177
Q

1st line recommended antidepressants while breastfeeding? (2)

A

Sertraline
Paroxetine

178
Q

“start low and go slow” refers to psychopharmacology in what population?

A

elderly

179
Q

Military Resuscitative Meds and Psych ADRs:
- Epi (2)
- Lidocaine (2)
- Atropine (2)

A
  • anxiety, increased BP/HR
  • delirium, psychosis
  • delirium, anxiety
180
Q

BICEPS for Management of Combat-Operational Stress Reactions:
- what is the B?

A

brevity (tx should occur over no more than a few days)

181
Q

BICEPS for Management of Combat-Operational Stress Reactions:
- what is the I?

A

Immediacy (tx should take place ASAP)

182
Q

BICEPS for Management of Combat-Operational Stress Reactions:
- what is the C?

A

centrality/contact (higher level mental health services should be co-located with higher level care services)

183
Q

BICEPS for Management of Combat-Operational Stress Reactions:
- what is the E?

A

Expectancy (tx should be geared toward returning service member to his/her unit)

184
Q

BICEPS for Management of Combat-Operational Stress Reactions:
- what is the P?

A

Proximity (tx should take place as close as possible to member’s unit)

185
Q

BICEPS for Management of Combat-Operational Stress Reactions:
- what is the S?

A

Simplicity (tx should be as simple as possible)

186
Q

who has the highest rate of being a 2C19 poor metabolizer?

A

Asian individuals

Psych (4 decks)

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